Molecular Genetics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics explores the structure and function of genes at a molecular level, highlighting the processes by which genetic information is encoded, replicated, expressed, and regulated within cells. The course covers fundamental concepts such as DNA and RNA structure, gene organization, replication, transcription, translation, and regulation of gene expression. It also examines the molecular techniques used to manipulate genetic material, the role of mutations in heredity and disease, and current applications in biotechnology and genetic engineering. Students gain an in-depth understanding of the molecular mechanisms underlying inheritance and variation, preparing them for advanced study or careers in biomedical research, genetics, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome
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Q1) Genetics is the study of A)variation of inherited traits.
B)how organisms reproduce.
C)how life originated.
D)how the environment causes disease.
Answer: A
Q2) Constructing a "diseasome" is a way to connect diseases that share certain gene expression patterns.A goal of this approach is to A)cure cancer.
B)identify new drug targets.
C)cure all diseases that involve the same set of genes.
D)discover how our ancestors were relateD.
Answer: B
Q3) A chart that displays paired chromosomes in order of size is a A)phenotype.
B)genotype.
C)karyotype.
D)genome.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Q1) Cristae are
A)types of genes.
B)types of insects.
C)membranous structures that are parts of mitochondria.
D)bits of sugars in the Golgi apparatus.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Somatic cells are diploid,meaning that they have two copies of the human genome.
B)Somatic cells are haploid,meaning that they have one copy of the human genome.
C)Sperm and egg cells are diploid,meaning that they have two copies of the human genome.
D)Stem cells are haploid,meaning that they have one copy of the human genome.
Answer: A
Q3) The defining characteristic of a stem cell is
A)self-repair.
B)self-renewal.
C)the ability to turn into a cancer cell.
D)its origin from a progenitor cell.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging
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Q1) Tanisha and Tawanda are twins but do not look alike.They are the result of fertilization of
A)one oocyte by two sperm cells.
B)two oocytes by one sperm cell.
C)two oocytes by two sperm cells.
D)one oogonium by one spermatogonium.
Answer: C
Q2) The female sex cells develop in paired organs in the abdomen called _____. A)ovaries
B)oocytes
C)vagina
D)clitoris
Answer: A
Q3) The number of possible chromosome combinations in a human gamete,considering independent assortment but not crossing over,is about A)8.
B)800.
C)80,000.
D)8 million.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wild type eye color for humans is A)brown.
B)green.
C)hazel.
D)pink.
Q2) Eric and Janelle are carriers of the recessive allele causing Tay-Sachs disease,which is lethal in early childhood.If they have a healthy child,what is the probability that this child would NOT be a carrier of Tay-Sachs disease?
A)1
B)2/3
C)1/2
D)1/3
Q3) In a human pedigree that traces the inheritance of albinism,a filled square represents a A)male with albinism.
B)female with albinism.
C)heterozygous male.
D)heterozygous female.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws
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Q1) Zuzu is a white cat.She is genotype Ww for the "white masking gene" that reduces the number of melanocytes (pigment-containing cells).As a result,her body makes pigment,but it cannot get into the cells where it would color the fur.Zuzu's white masking gene is _____ to the melanin pigment gene because it prevents full expression of the pigment.
A)recessive
B)pleiotropic
C)epistatic
D)dominant
Q2) Mitochondrial disorders tend to cause great fatigue because
A)nerve cells are filled with mitochondriA.
B)muscle cells are normally filled with mitochondria.
C)affected cells do not use their mitochondrial DNA.
D)lysosomes dismantle the mitochondria in muscle cells.
Q3) Types of genetic markers include
A)places in the genome where a base varies among individuals in a population.
B)places in the genome where all people have identical base sequences.
C)the types of mRNAs in a cell.
D)the proteins produced in a cell.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Q1) Indifferent gonads develop
A)during the first two weeks of prenatal development.
B)during the fifth week of prenatal development.
C)during the ninth week of prenatal development.
D)when the embryo becomes a fetus.
Q2) A gene that determines the heaviness of a man's beard is A)X-linked.
B)sex-limited.
C)sex-influenced.
D)Y-linkeD.
Q3) Imprinting affects the phenotype when
A)both alleles of a gene are imprinted.
B)both alleles of a gene are inactivated or deleted.
C)one allele is imprinted and the other is inactivated or deleted.
D)an embryo arises from two female genomes or two male genomes.
Q4) A boy developed signs of sexual maturity at age 3.A possible diagnosis is A)XY female syndrome.
B)XX male syndrome.
C)congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
D)pseudohermaphroditism due to 5-alpha reductase deficiency.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) If a trait has a large inherited component,then concordance among monozygotic twins will be
A)considerably higher than that of dizygotic twins.
B)considerably lower than that of dizygotic twins.
C)about the same as that of dizygotic twins.
D)100%.
Q2) The empiric risk that the monozygotic twin of a person with cleft lip also has cleft lift is _____ times the risk to a member of the general population who has no relatives with cleft lip.
A)4
B)40
C)100
D)400
Q3) The empiric risk to a family member of an affected individual developing a disorder caused by a multifactorial trait
A)decreases with severity of the disorder.
B)increases with fewer affected family members.
C)decreases in larger families.
D)increases with increasing relatedness to affected individuals.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) In the 1980s,when researchers began seeking gene variants that caused or contributed to bipolar disorder,it seemed that each extended family had its own mutations.These findings,looking back,most likely mean that A)bipolar disorder results from imitating the behavior of an affected family member.
B)many gene variant combinations cause or contribute to bipolar disorder,but only a few such variants are seen in any one family.
C)many people fake the symptoms of bipolar disorder.
D)bipolar disorder reflects changes in gene expression,but not in mutations.
Q2) Schizophrenia differs from dementia in that it
A)is a single-gene disorder.
B)is treatable with insulin.
C)is episodic rather than degenerative.
D)is degenerative rather than episodic.
Q3) The first narcolepsy gene was discovered in A)bats.
B)cockroaches.
C)hippos. D)dogs.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) In a DNA molecule,the base pairs provide information,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not,because
A)the base pairs are all the same,but the sugar-phosphate backbone varies.
B)there are eight types of base pairs.
C)the bases form a sequence,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not.
D)the sugar-phosphate backbone is highly unstable.
Q2) DNA entwined around an octet of proteins is called a(n) A)nucleotide.
B)karyosome.
C)nucleosome. D)ribosome.
Q3) Chargaff showed that DNA that has 20% guanine has _____ cytosine.
A)20%
B)30%
C)60%
D)40%
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein
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Q1) Which of these is not found in RNA?
A)phosphate
B)deoxyribose
C)purines
D)ribose
Q2) _____ proteins stabilize partially folded parts of proteins in their correct form.
A)Chaperone
B)Signal sequences
C)Proteasomes
D)Ubiquitin
Q3) DNA replication is necessary so that
A)transcription can proceed.
B)translation can proceed.
C)genetic information is not lost as the information in DNA sequences is accessed.
D)the cell does not die when it divides.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Q1) Modifiers of gene expression include
A)isolated amino acids and tRNAs.
B)specific classes of proteins and RNA molecules.
C)specific classes of lipids and carbohydrates.
D)nicotine and alcohol.
Q2) Fetal hemoglobin is hemoglobin that consists of two gamma chains and _____.
A)two alpha chains
B)two beta chains
C)two zeta chains
D)two epsilon chains
Q3) A typical human cell contains
A)one copy of each of 3.2 billion different microRNAs.
B)one copy of each of about 20,000 different microRNAs.
C)from 1,000 to 200,000 microRNAs.
D)no microRNA unless the person develops cancer.
Q4) A microRNA is _____ bases long.
A)2 or 4
B)12 or 13
C)21 or 22
D)100 or 110
13
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Q1) A somatic mutation
A)occurs only in microbes.
B)affects a particular subset of cells.
C)affects all cells of an individual.
D)is expressed only in embryos.
Q2) Copy number variants
A)are extremely rare,occurring in only about a dozen sites in the genome.
B)are found only in even-numbered chromosomes.
C)account for about 25 percent of the genome and number in hundreds to thousands.
D)account for less than 1 percent of the genome and are five or fewer bases long.
Q3) Allelic disorders may result from mutations in different parts of the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fact that myotonic dystrophy worsens with each generation is due to
A)a second somatic point mutation.
B)an increasing number of repeated short DNA sequences.
C)a transposing tandem triplet repeat.
D)family members perceiving their symptoms as worse.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Q1) Polyploidy can result when
A)a translocation occurs between two chromosomes.
B)one pair of homologous chromosomes does not separate during meiosis.
C)a developing gamete is haploid.
D)a haploid sperm fertilizes a diploid egg.
Q2) Heterochromatic regions at the ends of chromosomes are A)centromeres.
B)euchromatin.
C)telomeres.
D)DNA hubs.
Q3) A man with trisomy 21 could pass Down syndrome to offspring if he A)produces sperm that have two copies of chromosome 21.
B)produces sperm lacking chromosome 21.
C)also has Turner syndrome.
D)is a carrier of a deletion for chromosome 21.
Q4) In the earliest karyotypes,chromosomes were distinguished by A)specific size order.
B)general size classes.
C)banding patterns.
D)stage of the cell cycle.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Q1) VNTRs and STRs differ in that
A)a VNTR repeat is shorter than an STR repeat.
B)a VNTR repeat is longer than an STR repeat.
C)a VNTR is a type of copy number variant and an STR is not.
D)an STR is a type of copy number variant and a VNTR is not.
Q2) The difference between microevolution and macroevolution is that
A)microevolution affects bacteria and macroevolution affects larger organisms.
B)microevolution happens slowly and macroevolution happens quickly.
C)macroevolution happens slowly and microevolution happens quickly.
D)microevolutionary changes are small,and macroevolutionary changes are large.
Q3) Which choice describes a biological population?
A)A bird,a lizard,and an insect in a cage at a zoo
B)An all-male army
C)People living in an apartment building
D)Pebbles on a beach
Q4) Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)is
A)a fifteen-base DNA sequence used in DNA profiling.
B)a type of mutation used in forensic applications.
C)a system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles.
D)a technology used to amplify DNA found at crime scenes.
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) _____ maintains deleterious alleles in a population.
A)Mutation
B)Migration
C)Random mating
D)Natural selection
Q2) The fact that nearly everyone on the island of Sardinia has the same X chromosome sequence indicates that the population has experienced
A)mutation.
B)natural selection.
C)nonrandom mating.
D)consanguinity.
Q3) Which of these affects allele frequencies the least?
A)natural selection
B)mutation
C)migration
D)genetic drift
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution
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Q1) Recently,fossils of a new species,called _____,were discovered in Indonesia.They were smaller than modern humans,had a small brain,but appeared to use tools.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo afarensis
D)Homo floresiensis
Q2) Nariokotome Boy was one of the first H.erectus individuals described. A)True
B)False
Q3) Hominins are ancestral to A)humans only.
B)humans and apes.
C)humans,apes,and gibbons.
D)apes and gibbons.
Q4) All of the following are classified as Homo except A)Neanderthals.
B)modern humans.
C)Orrorin tugenensis. D)Otzi.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Q1) Inflammation helps to fight infection by
A)creating an environment in the body that is hostile to pathogens.
B)producing antibodies that kill viruses and bacteria.
C)limiting the number of phagocytes at the infection site.
D)producing collectins,cytokines,and red blood cells.
Q2) Research suggests a link between a mutation in the skin protein filaggrin and allergic reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of an autoimmune disorder is A)hay fever.
B)severe combined immune deficiency.
C)systemic lupus erythematosus.
D)colon cancer.
Q4) Scleroderma is a disorder that can be caused by
A)retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the mother's cells.
B)retained fetal cells with surfaces that are very different from those of the mother.
C)retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the father's cells.
D)repeated exposure to the scleroderma virus.
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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) A(n)_____ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place.
A)DNA repair gene
B)tumor suppressor gene
C)oncogene
D)teratoma
Q2) In Wilms' tumor,
A)heart cells divide as frequently as do cells in the skin.
B)being exposed to cigarette smoke in the uterus causes lung cancer in infants.
C)cells in a child's kidney divide as frequently as if they were still in a fetus.
D)deletion of the retinoblastoma gene causes an eye tumor.
Q3) Invasive malignant tumors typically contain mutations that affect the cytoskeleton and allow the cell to move from where it is anchored.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Bacteriophages can be used as vectors in recombinant DNA experiments because they
A)are small and made of double-stranded DNA.
B)are circular and easily imported into bacteria or yeast.
C)insert their genetic material into bacteria.
D)are resistant to protective restriction systems.
Q2) A DNA sequence can be patented if
A)two or more people isolate the same sequence successfully.
B)it forms a single gene.
C)it has economic implications.
D)it is useful as a tool for research.
Q3) Tiny fat bubbles used to deliver genes are A)phospholipids.
B)cholesterols.
C)liposomes.
D)plasmids.
Q4) In 2010,a federal judge in the U.S.ruled seven patents on the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes had been improperly granted.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) Rita has been diagnosed with HER2 breast cancer,and is prescribed Herceptin.The approach of basing a drug prescription on the results of a single-gene test is called A)pharmacogenetics.
B)pharmacophenetics.
C)pharmacogenomics.
D)enzyme replacement therapy.
Q2) Enzyme replacement therapy treats
A)the genotype.
B)the genome.
C)the phenotype.
D)the genetic code.
Q3) Newborn screening reveals that newborn Jessica has inherited phenylketonuria (PKU).Her parents are distraught at the diagnosis,but a nutritionist explains that Jessica can be treated,right away.The treatment for PKU is A)nonheritable gene therapy.
B)heritable gene therapy.
C)exchange of her blood supply.
D)dietary.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) Darnell and Tinaka are each carriers of an autosomal recessive disorder that is lethal in early childhood.They want to have a child who is free of the disease,so they have preimplantation genetic diagnosis.Unfortunately,their child has the disease.A scientific explanation is that
A)the blastomere that was tested had undergone a somatic mutation,making it not representative of the rest of the embryo.
B)Darnell was not really the father.
C)the 7 cells of the remaining embryo each underwent a mutation,so the sampled cell was not representative.
D)Darnell or Tinaka is really homozygous recessive,and not heterozygous.
Q2) Excess tissue growing in the uterine lining is called A)hemorrhoids.
B)pelvic inflammatory disease.
C)endometriosis.
D)an ectopic pregnancy.
Q3) Assisted Reproductive Technologies are typically not covered by health insurance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) Positional cloning
A)seeks regions of the genome shared by the members of large families who have the same Mendelian disorder.
B)scans and then sequences the human genome chromosome by chromosome,in size order.
C)determines the sequence of protein-encoding genes on a chromosome.
D)identifies expressed sequence tags in genes of interest.
Q2) _____ was the first organism to have its entire genome sequenced.
A)The fruit fly
B)E.coli
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Mycoplasma genitalium
Q3) The microbiome considers
A)DNA from microorganisms in the human body.
B)human DNA in microorganisms.
C)all DNA that is too small to be seen in a light microscope.
D)genes that contribute to or control metabolism.
Q4) The "1,000 Genomes Project" investigated 2,500 genomes from 27 populations.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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