Molecular Genetics
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics explores the structure, function, and regulation of genes at the molecular level. This course delves into the mechanisms of DNA replication, transcription, and translation, examining how genetic information is transferred and expressed within cells. Students learn about gene structure, genome organization, genetic mutations, and the cutting-edge techniques used to manipulate and analyze genetic material. The course also covers applications of molecular genetics in fields such as biotechnology, medicine, and agriculture, providing foundational knowledge for understanding genetic diseases, gene therapy, and modern genomic research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1140 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an example of basic research?
A) Developing a new diagnostic test
B) Synthesizing proteins for treating disease
C) Manufacturing a vaccine
D) Developing a new drug to treat diabetes
E) Learning how plants turn carbon dioxide into sugar
Answer: E
Q2) The development and use of ____ ushered in the era of genomics when geneticists began planning ways to sequence the 3.2 billion nucleotides in the human genome.
A) transmission genetics
B) the electron microscope
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) cytogenetics
E) karyotypes
Answer: C
Q3) DNA is a helical molecule consisting of two strands of ____________________ that is the primary carrier of ____________________ information.
Answer: nucleotides,genetic
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3
Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) In mitosis,chromatids separate and move to the center of the cell during ____________________.
Answer: metaphase
Q2) In both progeria and Werner syndrome,cells are switched from a growth to a maintenance mode,halting ____________________.
Answer: divisions cell divisions
Q3) In meiosis of oogenesis,how many mature eggs result?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Answer: A
Q4) Cytokinesis usually occurs just prior to mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In crosses involving complete dominance,the F2 genotypic ratio is 1:2:1 and is expressed as a phenotypic ____________________ ratio (express as x:x).
Answer: 3:1
Q2) In Mendel's pea plant experiment,the trait of pea shape was represented by the two variations ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: smooth; wrinkled wrinkled; smooth
Q3) Explain Mendel's conclusion that traits passed from parents to offspring are not blended,but are instead inherited as if they are separate units.
Answer: Mendel based his conclusion on several observations.Only one of the parental traits was present in the offspring (F1).The trait not present in the offspring (F1)reappeared in about 25% of the second offspring generation (F2).In all crosses,it did not matter which parental plant contributed the pollen; the results were always the same.He,therefore,concluded that traits remained unchanged,even though they might not be expressed in a specific generation.Instead,he concluded that traits were inherited as if they were separate units that did not blend together.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) One goal of pedigree analysis is to determine ____.
A) what diseases a family will display
B) if two people are related
C) gene loci
D) whether a gene has a dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance
E) what treatment a person should undergo
Q2) Mucus production that blocks ducts of certain glands and lung passages is a symptom of ____________________.
Q3) If a man expresses an X-linked recessive trait,his ____________________ was either homozygous or heterozygous for the trait.
Q4) Choose one of the basic patterns of Mendelian inheritance and draw and explain a three-generation family pedigree illustrating that pattern.
Q5) The phenotype in homozygous dominant individuals affected with an autosomal genetic disorder is often more severe than the ____________________ phenotype.
Q6) Males never give an X chromosome to any of their sons.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain why color-blindness is much more common in males than in females.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) In twin studies,geneticists look for situations in which genetic and environmental influences are clearly ____________________.
Q2) An expanded definition of intelligence that goes beyond IQ is called ____________________ and includes verbal and spatial abilities,memory,speed of perception,and reasoning.
Q3) Describe the relationship between single nucleotide polymorphisms and haplotypes and explain how each is used in genome-wide association studies.
Q4) Continuous phenotypic variations can be explained by Mendelian inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cleft palate is ____.
A) controlled only by genetics
B) a continuously distributed trait
C) controlled by a single gene pair
D) only transmitted from father to son
E) explained by the threshold model of complex traits
Q6) Epigenetic modifications affect the nucleotide sequence of the DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Karyotypes prepared from chorionic villus cells can be used to identify many ____________________ abnormalities.
Q2) Describe normal embryo formation and two mechanisms of nondisjunction represented in the figure and identify the consequences of these chromosomal anomalies.
Q3) List at least three types of information provided by a karyotype and interpret the chromosomal structural abnormality written as 46,XX,t(18q).
Q4) Free fetal DNA (ffDNA)originates from the breakdown of fetal cells and their nuclei in the ____________________.
Q5) Part of a chromosome moves to another,nonhomologous chromosome during
Q6) A chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere is called
Q7) Down syndrome can be caused by either trisomy 21 or a Robertsonian translocation. A)True B)False
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Q8) The karyotype designation for a female with X chromosome trisomy is
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inner lining of the uterus that is shed at menstruation if fertilization has not occurred is called the ____.
A) cervix
B) endometrium
C) oogonium
D) chorion
E) epididymis
Q2) In an XX embryo,____ inactivation of one X chromosome usually occurs when the embryo has about 32 cells.
A) phenotypic
B) inhibited
C) cascading
D) selective
E) random
Q3) Children born with ____________________ have genital structures that are neither fully male nor fully female.
Q4) Describe the Lyon hypothesis.
Q5) The duct between a testis and a seminal vesicle used for the transport of sperm is the ____________________.
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the chemical composition of DNA.
Q2) The H5N1 influenza killed more than 50% of those infected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In June 2013,the U.S.Supreme Court ruled that if a gene is removed from the human body and purified it can be patented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin obtained X-ray diffraction photographs that indicted that DNA has a ____________________ shape with a constant diameter.
Q5) A replicated DNA molecule contains one new strand and one old strand.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One double-stranded DNA molecule combined with proteins form ____________________,which is visible as clumps or threads in the cell nucleus.
Q7) Explain why X-ray diffraction was important in the study of DNA structure and describe the procedure used in X-ray diffraction.
Q8) Explain how a telomerase inhibitor might be an effective cancer treatment.
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each amino acid has a different side chain,called a(n)____.
A) amino strand
B) carboxyl group
C) R group
D) glucose pentose configuration
E) ribosomal attachment
Q2) A proteome is the set of ____________________ present in a particular cell at a specific time under a particular set of conditions.
Q3) Activated genes can be inactivated by reversing histone modification during a process called ____.
A) chromatin remodeling
B) histone remodeling
C) chromatin interference
D) interference remodeling
E) histone interference
Q4) The codon encoding the amino acid methionine functions as a start codon when it occurs at the beginning of a gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Q1) Proteins that act as ____________________ catalyze biochemical reactions and are vital components of the cell's metabolic pathways.
Q2) Human diet must be varied enough to provide ____________________ of the 20 amino acids from the foods we eat.
Q3) An autosomally recessive metabolic disorder in the phenylalanine pathway that was first investigated by Garrod at the beginning of the twentieth century is
Q4) Discuss how mutations in proteins can be used to examine the link between a person's genotype and that person's phenotype.
Q5) Genetic goitrous cretinism and alkaptonuria are metabolic disorders in the ____ pathway.
A) nucleic acid
B) thalassemia
C) phenylalanine
D) paraoxonase
E) lipid biochemical
Q6) Identify several ways in which the study of hemoglobin variants led to an understanding of the molecular relationship among genes,proteins,and human disease.
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Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ____ is incorporated into DNA or RNA during synthesis,it will create a(n)____.
A) carbon; base analog
B) oxygen; base analog
C) 5-bromouracil; nucleotide substitution mutation
D) 5-bromouracil; frameshift mutation
E) oxygen; nucleotide substitution mutation
Q2) Describe how an epigenetic trait differs from a mutated trait.
Q3) Because there was no previous history of hemophilia in Queen Victoria's family,and because she transmitted the mutant allele to a number of her children,it is reasonable to assume that ____.
A) her father was homozygous for the disorder
B) her mother was homozygous for the disorder
C) her sister was a heterozygous carrier
D) she was homozygous for the disorder
E) she was a heterozygous carrier
Q4) When the direct method of measuring mutation rates is used,estimates are made for a specific ____________________ over a number of
Q5) Explain why a frameshift mutation can have such devastating effects.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Q1) Progressive chromosomal changes as cancer develops are related to the loss of the ability to repair ____________________ in cancer cells.
Q2) An autosomal dominant trait called familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)results in the development of polyps and benign growths in the colon and is coupled with ____________________ instability.
Q3) Explain why epithelial cells are the source of 80% to 90% of all cancers.Then list at least two types of epithelial cells,and at least four types of cancer for which they are the source.
Q4) The cancer drugs Gleevec and Herceptin bind to receptor ____________________ and stop the growth of cancer cells.
Q5) Summarize two pathways to colon cancer.
Q6) Most of the somatic cells in the body are structurally and functionally specialized and do not divide.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When MSH2 and MLH1 are inactivated by mutation,DNA repair is defective and ____________________ mutation rates increase by at least 100-fold.
Q8) Mutant forms of proto-oncogenes are called ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the three requirements for cloning once a source of DNA has been selected.
Q2) The basic method of DNA sequencing is the Sanger method.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the mid-1970s a group of scientists asked the National Academy of Sciences to appoint a panel to assess the risks of recombinant DNA technology and the need to control its associated research.Summarize the most important lesson learned from this event.
Q4) The discovery that some bacteria ____ using enzymes that cut the viral DNA into pieces was one of the first steps in the development of recombinant DNA technology.
A) exchange fused plasmid DNA
B) restrict important nutrients from leaving the bacterial cell
C) resist viral infection
D) cut up and recycle mRNA transcripts
E) attach amino acids to tRNA molecules
Q5) Describe a benefit of cloning plants and animals.
Q6) Summarize the major advantage of using YACs to carry genome libraries.
Q7) Explain why identical twins are clones.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a DNA profile analysis using two loci,the chance of a match between two unrelated individuals at one locus is 1 in 400,and 1 in 1000 at the second locus.Therefore,the overall probability that two unrelated individuals will match at both loci is
Q2) In the U.S.,the ____________________,a standardized set of thirteen STR alleles,is used to generate DNA profiles for legal cases.
Q3) Transgenic crops are planted in _____ countries,with the amount of land dedicated to such crops _____ every year.
A) more than 50; remaining the same B) more than 25; decreasing C) less than10; increasing D) more than 25; increasing E) just under 25; increasing
Q4) Because embryonic stem cells can form any tissue in the human body,they are termedĀ ____________________; adult stem cells,on the other hand,are ____________________,since they can only form a limited number of cells types.
Q5) The most common use of DNA evidence in civil legal proceedings is ____________________.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The different proteins characteristic of breast cancer subtypes can be used as _____ for proper diagnosis and treatment.
A) prebiotics
B) biomarkers
C) DNA clones
D) bioinformatic data
E) physical maps
Q2) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ____________________.
Q3) Discuss the relationship between genetic distance and physical distance between two linked genes.
Q4) A method used to link genetic markers with specific genes on chromosomes is called ____________________.
Q5) According to data from the Human Genome Project,98.9% of the human genome is composed of ____________________ DNA sequences.
Q6) A set of SNPs close together on a chromosome is called a(n)____________________.
Q7) The distances between genes on a genetic map are measured in base pairs. A)True
B)False
Q8) ____________________ molecules are responsible for the phenotype of an organism. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the reasons why ART leads to more multiple and premature births than the general population.
Q2) The first successful outcome of gene therapy was in a case of a young girl suffering from ____________________,who was supplied with normal copies of the ADA gene.
Q3) A variation of the PGD method,called ____________________,can test for genetic disorders in the egg before fertilization.
Q4) Early failures of gene therapy included two children who developed ____________________ after receiving gene therapy for X-linked SCID.
Q5) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)is used by couples in which the _____.
A) female has blocked oviducts
B) female has very irregular ovulation
C) female is approaching menopause
D) source of sperm is a sperm bank
E) male is infertile
Q6) If a male produces healthy gametes but his female partner can neither produce gametes nor carry a fetus,a(n)____________________ surrogate can be used to help them achieve successful reproduction.
Page 19
Q7) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called ____________________.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) The transplant of pig bone marrow into a human recipient may overcome the ____________________ triggered by transplanted pig organs.
Q2) The huge diversity of antibody molecules is generated by the shuffling of gene segments in T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________________ T cells secrete interleukins that activate other cells in both the cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immune responses.
Q4) Disease-causing infectious agents are known as ____________________.
Q5) What is the underlying molecular cause of Crohn's disease?
A) B cells are mutated and do not release antibodies.
B) Receptor proteins are mutated and cause an abnormal immune response.
C) Helper T cells are inactivated.
D) Mucus is not released from epithelial tissues.
E) Antigen-presenting cells are absent.
Q6) Suppose that an infectious agent,such as a virus or bacterium,had surface antigens identical to those displayed on the surface of human cells.Would the immune system be able to detect and destroy these agents? Why or why not?
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) The observation that schizophrenia is associated with duplications of a certain copy number variant (CNV),while autism spectrum disorders are associated with deletions of the same CNV,suggests that _____.
A) CNV mutations are present in all psychiatric disorders
B) both disorders have identical phenotypes
C) both disorders have an environmental component
D) both disorders share common developmental pathways
E) neither disorder has a genetic component
Q2) The finding that mutations in synapse genes are associated with many genetic disorders that have a behavioral component suggests that _____.
A) individuals with these mutations lack synapses
B) individuals with these mutations lack neurotransmitters
C) malfunctions in presynaptic neurons cause abnormal behavior
D) malfunctioning synapses are associated with abnormal behavior
E) behavior disorders are attributable to environmental factors
Q3) The mutant huntingtin protein is _____________________,meaning that it kills cells,such as those in the brain and nervous system.
Q4) Discuss the difficulties in studying the genetics of human behavior traits
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Albinism is a recessive trait controlled by a single gene.If the frequency of albinos in a population is 0.25,what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes for this trait?
A) 0.25
B) 0.50
C) 0.75
D) 0.90
E) 1.00
Q2) Genetic drift is a random process that can change the genetic structure of a population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans differ from each other by 1 in 1000 to 1 in 5000 nucleotides,while chimpanzees differ from each other by 1 in 500 nucleotides.This suggests that _____.
A) humans are a younger species
B) humans are an older species
C) humans descended directly from chimpanzees
D) chimpanzees descended directly from humans
E) chimpanzees and humans have identical proteomes
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