Molecular Genetics
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics explores the structure, function, and regulation of genes at the molecular level. This course covers the organization of genetic material, mechanisms of DNA replication, repair, transcription, and translation, as well as gene expression and regulation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Key topics include molecular genetics techniques such as PCR, cloning, and gene editing, as well as the molecular basis of genetic variation and heredity. The course also examines applications of molecular genetics in fields such as medicine, biotechnology, and evolutionary biology.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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22 Chapters
1034 Verified Questions
1034 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polydactyly is considered a Mendelian trait as
A)it is caused by linked genes.
B)it is caused by a single gene.
C)it is caused due to environmental factors.
D)it affects the stem cells.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following traits is considered Mendelian?
A)A trait which is caused by linked genes
B)A trait which is caused by a single gene
C)A trait which is caused by environmental factors
D)A trait which is multifactorial
Answer: B
Q3) Sequencing all the DNA in the fluid that leaks from the bottom of a garbage can is an example of
A)stem cell science.
B)gene expression profiling.
C)metagenomics.
D)DNA profiling.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human stem cells are valuable in drug development because they can be used to
A)create experimental organisms,such as rats and mice.
B)replace experimental animals such as rats and mice.
C)grow human embryos in culture,on which drugs can be tested.
D)study the latest stages of the disease that would have unfolded if the person hadn't dieD.
Answer: B
Q2) During apoptosis,caspases
A)activate enzymes that cut DNA into same-sized pieces.
B)cause mitochondria to replicate their DNA.
C)alter the cell surface so that viruses can more easily enter.
D)remove introns from DNA.
Answer: A
Q3) The cellular basis of muscular dystrophy is that some of a child's muscle cells
A)have combined into a structure that cannot contract.
B)lack DNA.
C)lack a protein that enables them to withstand the force of contraction.
D)have too much of a contractile protein and become weak.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The female gonads are the A)ovaries.
B)oocytes.
C)uterus.
D)labia.
Answer: A
Q2) The hormone measured in a pregnancy test is A)progesterone.
B)hCG.
C)ADH.
D)testosterone.
Answer: B
Q3) Tanisha and Tawanda are twins but do not look alike.They are the result of fertilization of
A)one oocyte by two sperm cells.
B)two oocytes by one sperm cell.
C)two oocytes by two sperm cells.
D)one oogonium by one spermatogonium.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sickle cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.The genotype of an individual with sickle cell disease is
A)homozygous dominant.
B)homozygous recessive.
C)heterozygous dominant.
D)heterozygous recessive.
Q2) A very narrow pedigree,such as that for Egypt's Ptolemy dynasty,reflects
A)families with many adopted children.
B)a very mild phenotype.
C)many uncles marrying their nephews.
D)families with many relatives having children with blood relatives.
Q3) In a family that starts with you,your grandchildren would be the _____ generation.
A)P<sub>1</sub>
B)P<sub>2</sub>
C)F<sub>1</sub>
D)F<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two different alleles for the same mitochondrial gene is called A)heterogamy.
B)heteroplasmy.
C)heterogeneity.
D)heterozygosity.
Q2) In a heterozygote for two linked genes,both dominant alleles are on one chromosome and both recessive alleles are on another chromosome.The genes are said to be in
A)recombination.
B)repulsion.
C)cis.
D)trans.
Q3) Different alleles that are both expressed in a heterozygote are A)dominant.
B)codominant.
C)incompletely dominant.
D)homozygous dominant.
Q4) In the context of linkage,the higher the LOD score,the closer are two genes. A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male with a missing SRY gene would be phenotypically a A)female.
B)male.
C)a female until age 12,and then a male.
D)a male until age 12,and then a female.
Q2) Indifferent gonads develop
A)during the first two weeks of prenatal development.
B)during the fifth week of prenatal development.
C)during the ninth week of prenatal development.
D)when the embryo becomes a fetus.
Q3) In cattle,mahogany spots are dominant in males and recessive in females.This trait is
A)sex-linked.
B)sex-limited.
C)sex-influenced.
D)sexually determineD.
Q4) A daughter can inherit an X-linked recessive disorder when her father is affected and her mother is a carrier.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies that implicate the environment in influencing body weight consider
A)indigenous populations where the people have lived in the same area for thousands of years and tend to all be thin.
B)populations that split,with some people remaining in the homeland and others moving to areas where their diet changes dramatically,and they gain a great deal of weight.
C)mice bred to be obese that are given different types of junk food.
D)SNPs located throughout the genome.
Q2) A continuously varying trait is
A)cystic fibrosis.
B)seed color in pea plants.
C)extra fingers and toes.
D)weight in humans.
Q3) The coefficient of relatedness indicates
A)the number of relatives with a certain trait.
B)the proportion of genes that types of relatives share.
C)the heritability of a trait.
D)the number of genes responsible for a polygenic trait.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some drugs are plant products that can bind neural receptors in a human body because the body makes a similar chemical.Endorphins are the human equivalent of A)opiates. B)cocaine.
C)THC (tetrahydrocannabinol). D)ethanol.
Q2) Bipolar disorder affects about _____ percent of the U.S.population.
A)0.1
B)1
C)2
D)5
Q3) SSRIs such as Prozac,Paxil,and Zoloft are widely prescribed to treat A)post-traumatic stress disorder. B)major depressive disorder.
C)schizophrenia.
D)minor depressive disorder.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erwin Chargaff showed that DNA that has 30% adenine has _____ thymine.
A)20%
B)30%
C)60%
D)40%
Q2) Which base pair is complementary?
A)A and T
B)C and T
C)A and G
D)C and C
Q3) In a DNA molecule,the base pairs provide information,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not,because
A)the base pairs are all the same,but the sugar-phosphate backbone varies.
B)there are eight types of base pairs.
C)the bases form a sequence,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not.
D)the sugar-phosphate backbone is highly unstable.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Place the types of RNA molecules in correct size order,from smallest to largest.
A)mRNA,tRNA,rRNA
B)aRNA,bRNA,cRNA
C)tRNA,rRNA,mRNA
D)tDNA,rDNA,mDNA
Q2) A benefit of alternate splicing of introns out of mRNAs is that A)it maximizes the number of introns.
B)it increases the number of proteins that the genome encodes.
C)it lowers the risk of infection.
D)it speeds transcription.
Q3) About _____ percent of the human genome is the exome.
A)0.5
B)1.5
C)5.0
D)10
Q4) An mRNA molecule is also called a(n) A)intron.
B)transcript. C)gene.
D)proscript.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complexity of microRNA function is that
A)microRNAs can be rRNA,mRNA,or tRNA.
B)they range in size from 10 to 10,000 bases.
C)a microRNA type can bind several mRNAs,and an mRNA can bind several microRNAs.
D)it can be acetylated,phosphorylated,or methylateD.
Q2) Rett syndrome results from
A)a microRNA that binds the wrong set of mRNA targets.
B)unstable transposons.
C)fetal hemoglobin that is reactivated in a child.
D)abnormal methylation of a gene expressed in the brain.
Q3) About _____ percent of the human genome sequence comes from retroviruses.
A)4
B)8
C)12
D)21
Q4) In the adult pancreas,the beta,alpha,gamma,and F cells are A)stem cells.
B)progenitor cells.
C)differentiated cells.
D)blood cells.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation expressed only under certain conditions is A)germinal.
B)de novo.
C)conditional.
D)deleterious
Q2) Palindrome sequences are often found at mutation hotspots.Which of the following is a palindrome?
A)AAAATTTT
B)ATATGCGC
C)GATCCTAG
D)GATCGATC
Q3) Allelic disorders may result from mutations in different parts of the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individuals with _____ develop numerous skin cancers when exposed to sunlight.
A)Ataxia telangiectasis
B)Cockayne syndrome
C)Werner syndrome
D)Xeroderma pigmentosum
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The areas between the protein-rich parts of a chromosome and the telomeres are called 3-26-2013
A)submetacentric.
B)subtelomeres.
C)subcentromeres.
D)subchromatin.
Q2) A karyotype with an extra set of chromosomes indicates A)aneuploidy.
B)polyploidy.
C)diploidy.
D)haploidy.
Q3) To observe chromosomes,they must be
A)actively transcribing all of their genes.
B)actively transcribing some of their genes.
C)condensed.
D)in interphase.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers began using short tandem repeats (STRs)because
A)shorter DNA molecules were more likely to persist in a violent situation.
B)each person has no more than one copy of each STR.
C)STRs are nonuniformly distributed.
D)restrictive enzymes cannot be used to cut short DNA molecules.
Q2) The parts of the genome that are used in markers of identity in DNA profiling
A)are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.
B)are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.
C)are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.
D)are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.
Q3) In a familial DNA search,DNA from a crime scene is compared to DNA in databases from convicted felons,and if nearly half the CODIS sites match,a first-degree relative of the convict becomes a suspect.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Control of human reproduction to achieve a societal goal is called
A)biogenics.
B)eugenics.
C)biodiversity.
D)natural selection.
Q2) A founder effect occurs when
A)geographic barriers separate populations.
B)some individuals leave a larger group.
C)individuals in a population have few children.
D)mutations introduce new alleles into a population.
Q3) In an endogamous community,
A)many people marry people from within the community.
B)many people marry people from another country.
C)many people marry blood relatives.
D)many people have dominant genetic disorders.
Q4) Deleterious alleles are eliminated from populations by A)natural selection.
B)mutation.
C)nonrandom mating.
D)genetic drift.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern Europeans and Asians have Neanderthal DNA sequence variants in their genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fossil records indicates that _____ lived in families of male-female pairs,used fire,and left evidence of social cooperation (lived communally).
A)Homo habilis
B)Australopithecus
C)Dryopithecus
D)Homo erectus
Q3) Evolutionary tree diagrams compare
A)anatomical similarities revealed in fossil evidence for several related species.
B)the sizes and shapes of body part in related species.
C)conserved DNA sequences for which the rate of base substitution mutation is known.
D)data derived from radioactive dating of fossils,with the half-life used to estimate time.
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18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monoclonal implies that the A)antibodies come from a twin.
B)antibodies are identical.
C)cancer cells are all of one type.
D)antigens are from a single source.
Q2) The part of an antigen binding site on an antibody that binds antigen is the A)idioblast.
B)idiotype.
C)epitope.
D)intron.
Q3) In an allograft,the tissue donor is A)the recipient.
B)a non-relative.
C)a dizygotic twin.
D)a monozygotic twin.
Q4) All of the following are cytokines except A)interleukins.
B)interferons.
C)tumor necrosis factor.
D)collectins.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The probability of cancer development in the general population is one is _____ people.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q2) A(n)_____ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place.
A)DNA repair gene
B)tumor suppressor gene
C)oncogene
D)teratoma
Q3) The first mutation typically detected in FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis)colon cancer is
A)APC.
B)TGF.
C)p53.
D)PRL-3.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transgenic organisms carry the transgene in A)every cell.
B)gametes only.
C)somatic cells only.
D)the cell in which it was originally introduceD.
Q2) Both gene silencing and genome editing techniques are limited by "off-target effects"-doing something other than what we want them to do.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of RNA that carries out RNA interference is A)tRNA.
B)mRNA.
C)rRNA.
D)siRNA.
Q4) A naturally occurring,small,circle of DNA used as a vector to transmit DNA is a A)plasmid.
B)prion.
C)lipofectin.
D)ring chromosome.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would provide the longest lasting treatment for Leber's congenital amaurosis II?
A)Replacing an enzyme that restores the function of T and B cells
B)Substrate reduction therapy and pharmacological chaperone therapy
C)Injecting adeno-associated virus carrying ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC)into T and B cells
D)Injecting adeno-associated virus carrying a wild type version of the RPE65 gene into affected cells of the retina
Q2) Newborn screening reveals that newborn Jessica has inherited phenylketonuria (PKU).Her parents are distraught at the diagnosis,but a nutritionist explains that Jessica can be treated,right away.The treatment for PKU is
A)nonheritable gene therapy.
B)heritable gene therapy.
C)exchange of her blood supply.
D)dietary.
Q3) Repurposing a drug is much more economical than developing a new one.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)screens _____ for genetic disorders.
A)oocytes
B)spermatocytes
C)polar bodies
D)early embryos
Q2) Some cases of male infertility are due to immature sperm or sperm that cannot readily penetrate an oocyte.For these individuals,fertilization can still be accomplished using
A)CVS.
B)IVF.
C)ICSI.
D)GIFT.
Q3) A normal sperm count is _____ sperm per ejaculate.
A)100,000 to 500,000
B)1 to 2 million
C)20 to 200 million
D)1 to 3 billion
Q4) A lesbian couple may use intrauterine insemination (IUI)to have a child.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequencing of the first three human genomes revealed that the percent of our SNPs likely to influence our phenotypes is
A)0 percent.
B)<1 percent.
C)about 2 percent.
D)about 10 percent.
Q2) The human genome project did not discover copy number variants because
A)people did not know they existed.
B)the sequenced and overlapped DNA pieces were unique.
C)there are too many to count,and they overlap among individuals.
D)no restriction enzymes are known that cut at these sequences.
Q3) Whole-genome shotgunning is faster,but it misses some sections that the clone-by-clone method detects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA sequencing can reveal
A)mutations that do not alter phenotype.
B)mutations that do not alter genotype.
C)which tissues express a gene.
D)how many genes a person has.
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