Molecular Genetics Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics explores the structure, function, and regulation of genes at a molecular level, focusing on how genetic information is encoded, replicated, and expressed within cells. The course delves into the mechanisms of DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene regulation, while introducing essential laboratory techniques such as PCR, electrophoresis, and gene cloning. Students will also examine the genetic basis of hereditary diseases, genome organization, and modern applications like genetic engineering and CRISPR technology, gaining critical insight into how molecular genetics drives advances in medicine, biotechnology, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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22 Chapters
998 Verified Questions
998 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biotechnology grew out of
A) veterinary medicine.
B) human health care.
C) civil engineering.
D) psychology.
E) agriculture.
Answer: E
Q2) DNA profiling has been used to
A) identify victims of terrorist attacks and natural disasters.
B) cure metabolic diseases caused by mutations in single genes.
C) treat male infertility.
D) predict how children will do in school.
E) predict if someone will develop cancer.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The defining characteristic of a stem cell is A) self-repair.
B) self-renewal.
C) the ability to turn into a cancer cell.
D) origin from a progenitor cell.
E) ability to be part of an embryo.
Answer: B
Q2) The cytoskeletal component that consists of different protein types in different cell is A) a microtubule.
B) an intermediate filament.
C) a microfilament.
D) a fibrous filament.
E) a plasma membrane.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) During meiosis II in sperm development
A) spermatogonia replicate DNA and divide mitotically to form primary spermatocytes.
B) primary spermatocytes divide meiotically to form diploid secondary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes divide meiotically to form haploid spermatids.
D) spermatids divide meiotically to form haploid spermatozoa.
E) sperm and oocyte meet and merge.
Answer: C
Q2) During the first meiotic division
A) sperm and oocytes form.
B) homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C) homologous chromosome pairs join.
D) the cell becomes diploid.
E) all of the chromosomes temporarily attach.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ian and Bryony are both carriers for two autosomal recessive disorders,PKU (chromosome 12)and cystic fibrosis (chromosome 7).They are expecting a daughter.What is the probability that she will have PKU but not CF?
A) 3/4.
B) 9/16.
C) 3/16.
D) 1/2.
E) 1/16.
Q2) Mode of inheritance reflects
A) whether the gene is on an autosome or sex chromosome and whether the allele is recessive or dominant.
B) whether the allele is transmitted from the male or the female.
C) whether the allele is received by a male or a female.
D) the number of genes that determine a trait.
E) the size of the chromosome that includes the gene in question and the sex of the parent transmitting it.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man who has normal hearing and has a recessive deafness allele on chromosome 17 marries a woman who also has normal hearing and also has a recessive deafness allele,but this allele is on chromosome 3.The probability that their children will be deaf due to either of these mutated genes is closest to A) 100%.
B) 50%.
C) 25%.
D) 0%.
E) 200%.
Q2) In a heterozygote for two linked genes,both dominant alleles are on one chromosome and both recessive alleles are on the homologous chromosome.The genes are said to be in A) recombination.
B) repulsion.
C) cis.
D) trans.
E) the mitochondria.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex ratio at birth is called the _______ sex ratio.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) Mendelian
Q2) Human males are the _______ sex.
A) homozygous
B) homogametic
C) heterogametic
D) heterozygous
E) hermaphroditic
Q3) Two unusual type of people who led researchers to discovery of the SRY gene were
A) physicists and chemists.
B) XX males and XY females.
C) XY males and XX females.
D) XXX females and XYY males.
E) men and women who lack sex chromosomes.
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) A continuously varying trait is
A) height in pea plants.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) seed color in pea plants.
D) extra fingers and toes.
E) height in humans.
Q2) The number of genes that affect skin,hair,and eye color is about
A) 4.
B) 8.
C) 20.
D) 100.
E) the entire genome.
Q3) Skin color is not a good way to distinguish "races" of people because A) it can be changed by environmental factors.
B) it is but one of many traits that vary within and between human populations.
C) it is not inherited.
D) it changes over a person's lifetime.
E) there are too many variations to keep track of.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average score on an IQ test,such as the Stanford-Binet,is
A) 50.
B) 75.
C) 100.
D) 150.
E) 200.
Q2) Age of onset for schizophrenia is
A) prenatal.
B) birth.
C) early childhood.
D) early adulthood.
E) at one's 50th birthday party.
Q3) Which choice accurately conveys the complexity of neural connections in the human brain?
A) about 100 billion neurons each contact 1,000 to 10,000 other neurons
B) a million or so neurons each contact up to 100,000 other neurons
C) 10 million or so neurons each contact up to 10,000 other neurons
D) a billion or so neurons each contact up to a million other neurons
E) a million or so neurons each contact up to 10 million other neurons
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Page 10
Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical is not part of DNA?
A) phosphate
B) ribose
C) cytosine
D) nitrogen
E) carbon
Q2) In one minute,DNA replicates about _______ bases.
A) 40
B) 100
C) 250
D) 1,000
E) 3,000
Q3) The DNA researcher who had his genome sequenced is
A) Francis Crick.
B) James Watson.
C) Frederick Griffith.
D) Rosalind Franklin.
E) Jay Leno.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nitrogenous base that is in RNA but not in DNA is A) thymine.
B) thiamine.
C) uracil.
D) urea.
E) adenine.
Q2) RNA differs from DNA in that A) most of it is single-stranded.
B) it is usually double-stranded.
C) it has thymine instead of uracil.
D) it has deoxyribose instead of ribose.
E) it encodes information but has no other functions.
Q3) A mutation that changes one particular amino acid into another can affect the functioning of other amino acids farther away in the primary sequence due to A) the presence of prions.
B) protein folding.
C) the fact that the mutation functions only part of the time.
D) jumping genes.
E) the tendency for further mutations to occur.
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) MicroRNAs bind to
A) the 3' ends of specific mRNAs.
B) the 5' ends of specific mRNAs.
C) the 3' ends of specific tRNAs.
D) the 3' ends of specific macroRNAs.
E) the 4' ends of specific mRNAs.
Q2) Multiple proteins can be produced from a single gene by
A) intron shuffling.
B) alternate splicing.
C) chain switching.
D) production of pseudogenes.
E) chromatin remodeling.
Q3) About ___ percent of the human genome actually encodes proteins.
A) 0.5
B) 1.5
C) 5.0
D) 10
E) 100
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13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents-to-be were shocked when an ultrasound scan done in the second trimester of the pregnancy showed a fetus with obviously broken leg bones and ribs.The doctor diagnosed osteogenesis imperfecta.This is caused by a mutation in a gene that encodes
A) beta globin.
B) alpha globin.
C) a clotting factor.
D) myosin.
E) collagen.
Q2) In Huntington disease,the mutation causes the encoded protein to have a novel function from the wild type protein.This is an example of
A) a gain of function.
B) a loss of function.
C) a translocation of function.
D) a deletion.
E) a change in the genetic code.
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14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ are illustrations that show chromosome arm and major regions.
A) Ideograms
B) Chromatograms
C) Polygrams
D) Anagrams
E) DNA sequence charts
Q2) The satellite regions that distinguish chromosomes 13,14,15,21 and 22 are
A) primarily euchromatin.
B) proteins that stabilize the chromosomes.
C) located near the centromere.
D) repeated genes that encode ribosomal RNAs and proteins.
E) unique sequence genes that are essential for chromosome integrity.
Q3) The centromere of human chromosome 15 creates a long arm and a very short arm.Therefore,this chromosome is
A) telocentric.
B) acrocentric.
C) submetacentric.
D) metacentric.
E) nanocentric.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,frequency of a dominant allele is A) p.
B) p<sup>2</sup>.
C) 2pq.
D) q.
E) 100%.
Q2) CODIS is
A) a fifteen-base DNA sequence used in DNA profiling.
B) a type of mutation used in forensic applications.
C) a system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles.
D) the last name of the person who invented DNA profiling.
E) a technology used to amplify DNA found at crime scenes.
Q3) In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,the frequency of recessive alleles will _______ over time.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) remain the same
D) increase and then decrease
E) decrease and then increase
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ in the human population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.
A) Natural selection
B) Mutation
C) Migration
D) Nonrandom mating
E) Genetic drift
Q2) _______ maintains deleterious alleles in a population.
A) Mutation
B) Migration
C) Random mating
D) Natural selection
E) Evolution
Q3) Clines are created when
A) emigrants remove alleles and immigrants introduce alleles.
B) immigrants remove alleles and emigrants introduce alleles.
C) different genes mutate in different geographical regions.
D) uncles have children with nieces as part of the culture.
E) being a heterozygote for a particular gene protects against an infectious disease.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolutionary tree diagrams compare
A) anatomical similarities revealed in fossil evidence for several related species.
B) the sizes and shapes of body part in related species.
C) conserved DNA sequences for which the rate of base substitution mutation is known.
D) data derived from radioactive dating of fossils, with the half-life used to estimate time.
E) the time of origin of various species, based on differences between fossils and modern organisms.
Q2) Contemporary humans probably arose from which of these?
A) Neanderthals
B) Shanidars
C) Aegytopithecus sapiens
D) Cro-Magnons
E) Aegytopithecus
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a less severe form of combined immune deficiency,the individual
A) has normal numbers of T and B cells.
B) makes antibodies that attack the body's own tissues.
C) has no white blood cells.
D) has some T cells but lacks B cells.
E) lacks both T and A B cells.
Q2) The human immune system consists of
A) about 10,000 cells that increase rapidly to trillions when an infection takes hold.
B) the heart and blood vessels and the blood cells within the vessels.
C) about 2 trillion cells, their secretions, and the organs where they are produced and stored.
D) all of the bacteria and viruses that are normally present in our bodies plus our blood cells.
E) the thyroid and thymus glands and their cells and secretions.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that normally prevent cell division are
A) tumor suppressors.
B) transcription factors.
C) proto-oncogenes.
D) growth factors.
E) oncogenes.
Q2) In Wilms' tumor,
A) heart cells divide as frequently as do cells in the skin.
B) being exposed to cigarette smoke in the uterus causes lung cancer in the infant.
C) cells in a child's kidney divide as frequently as if they were still in a fetus.
D) deletion of the retinoblastoma gene causes an eye tumor.
E) cancer develops in the breast when cells have too many growth factor receptors.
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Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique uses tiny needles to deliver DNA into animal cells?
A) electrophoresis
B) microinjection
C) particle bombardment
D) electroporation
E) bacteriophage bombardment
Q2) Patent law as it pertains to biotechnology has had to change in recent years in response to
A) the changeable nature of the genetic code.
B) the number of people asking for genetic tests.
C) the increasing number of human genes.
D) the greatly accelerated speed of DNA sequencing.
E) the fact that not as many lawyers are going into patent law.
Q3) To create a transgenic organism,the researcher
A) introduces foreign DNA into a gamete or fertilized ovum.
B) injects a gene of interest into a somatic cell.
C) injects a gene of interest into several somatic cells.
D) introduces foreign DNA into somatic cells in culture and transplants them.
E) uses site directed mutagenesis on the adult.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) A test offered on the Web by a direct-to-consumer genetic testing company genotypes a gene for ability to taste bitter substances.This test is not regulated by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)because
A) the test is not expensive.
B) the test provides information, not a diagnosis.
C) the test is offered in a state of the U.S. not covered by these regulations.
D) the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act outlawed CLIA.
E) it is not accurate.
Q2) The species naturally affected by Leber's congenital amaurosis II that led to development of gene therapy is
A)E.coli bacteria.
B)mice.
C)pea plants.
D)a breed of horse.
E)a breed of dog
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22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to subfertility?
A) regular menstrual cycles
B) high sperm counts
C) being under 30 years of age
D) balanced hormones
E) oligospermia.
Q2) An ectopic pregnancy results when
A) more than one sperm fertilizes an oocyte.
B) an oocyte that has not been fertilized implants in the uterus.
C) more than one oocyte is fertilized.
D) a fertilized ovum begins to develop in the uterine tube.
E) a fertilized ovum begins to develop while attached to the cervix.
Q3) A procedure that places an oocyte and sperm in a culture dish,allows a few cell divisions,and then places the resulting very early embryo in the oocyte donor's uterus is A) IVF.
B) intrauterine insemination.
C) surrogate insemination.
D) GIFT.
E) ex vivo gene therapy.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) Once people began to have their genomes sequenced,it became clear that we vary more than had been thought.This is because the way that the genome was initially sequenced did not account for A) mutations.
B) copy number variants.
C) SNPs.
D) ethnic differences.
E) people who had undergone gene therapy.
Q2) The strategy that was ultimately the most successful in sequencing the human genome was
A) the clone-by-clone technique.
B) the recombinant DNA approach.
C) the epigenesis approach.
D) the whole genome shotgun approach.
E) the exome approach.
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