Course Introduction
Molecular Cell Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Molecular Cell Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that underlie the structure and function of cells, the fundamental units of life. This course covers topics such as the organization and dynamics of cellular components, gene expression and regulation, signal transduction pathways, the cell cycle, and cellular communication. Students will examine how molecular techniques are used to investigate cellular processes and gain insights into how dysfunction at the molecular level can lead to disease. Emphasis is placed on integrating knowledge of biochemistry, genetics, and cell biology to understand the complexity and diversity of eukaryotic cells.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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26 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that do not have a nucleus are .
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)not alive
D)animal cells
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following cellular organelles does not contain DNA?
A)nucleus
B)chloroplast
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)mitochondria
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gametes are and somatic cells are .
A)diploid;haploid
B)haploid;diploid
C)haploid;haploid
D)diploid;diploid
Answer: B
Q2) A allele determines the phenotype even when only one copy is present.
A)dominant
B)recessive
C)codominant
D)homozygous
Answer: A
Q3) Humans have chromosomes in the gametes.
A)2
B)12
C)24
D)48
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following sequence,which of the following is the complementary DNA strand?
5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
A)5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
B)5'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
C)3'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
D)3'-CAGTTTCTAGG-3'
Answer: C
Q2) How many hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following are found in DNA except .
A)guanine
B)thymine
C)uracil
D)adenine
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type II topoisomerases .
A)break both strands of DNA
B)include DNA gyrase,for example
C)change the linking number in steps of two
D)are all of the above
Q2) Topoisomerases .
A)are antibiotics that kill bacterial cells
B)bend DNA
C)change the level of supercoiling in DNA
D)repair DNA
Q3) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The melting temperature of DNA is the temperature at which .
A)half of the two strands are separated.
B)the two DNA strands are completely separated.
C)the DNA is completely degraded.
D)half of the DNA is degraded.
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) GC base pairs absorb more ultraviolet light than AT base pairs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An A260/A280 ratio of less than 1.8 indicates .
A)pure DNA
B)pure RNA
C)protein contamination of DNA
D)RNA contamination of DNA
Q3) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
Q4) At which wavelength do the bases of DNA and RNA nucleotides absorb the most light?
A)200 nm
B)260 nm
C)280 nm
D)300 nm
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the RNA primer during DNA synthesis?
A)DNA polymerase requires a 3' hydroxyl to initiate synthesis.
B)The primer helps the replication machinery find the origin of replication.
C)The primer is required for cleavage of the DNA to generate a loose end.
D)The primer signals DNA polymerase to terminate synthesis.
Q2) Why must DNA be denatured during PCR?
A)DNA polymerases work best at higher temperatures.
B)Denaturing DNA separates the strands of DNA and allows primers to bind to complementary sequences.
C)The degraded DNA nucleotides are recycled during the synthesis step of PCR.
D)DNA does not need to be denatured for PCR to work.
Q3) During which step in PCR does synthesis occur?
A)Denaturation
B)Annealing
C)Elongation
D)Termination
Q4) RNA can be synthesized in PCR if RNA polymerase and RNA nucleotides are used in place of DNA polymerase and DNA nucleotides,respectively.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cloning vectors carries the largest insert relative to the others in the answer choices?
A)BACs
B)cosmids
C)PACs
D)plasmids
Q2) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
Q3) Reverse transcriptase generates cDNA from a template.
A)DNA
B)transfer RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)cDNA
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Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA moves across nanopore detectors because .
A)an electrical charge is applied
B)there is a high concentration of salt on one side of the channel
C)there is a difference in pH across the membrane
D)it is physically pulled across by enzymes
Q2) Dideoxy nucleotides are missing a 3' hydroxyl.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are second generation sequencing methods except .
A)454 sequencing
B)Illumina/Solexa sequencing
C)SOLiD/Applied Biosystems method
D)Pyrosequencing
Q4) Nanopore detectors contain pores that only allow to pass through.
A)hydrogen ions
B)single-stranded DNA
C)double-stranded DNA
D)dideoxy nucleotides
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequence tagged sites are needed when genomes .
A)contain mostly coding sequence
B)contain mostly non-coding sequence
C)are very tiny
D)have many repetitive sequences
Q2) Genes in the family are of particular interest due to their pharmaceuticals.
A)cytochrome P450
B)CYP2D6
C)Glutathione S-transferease
D)SNP
Q3) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many origins are replication are typical of bacterial circular chromosomes?
A)None.Bacterial chromosomes replicate by binary fission
B)1
C)2
D)Many.
Q2) During replicating,incoming nucleotides are always added to the free preceding nucleotide.
A)3' phosphate
B)5' phosphate
C)3' hydroxyl
D)5' hydroxyl
Q3) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q4) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q2) Transcribe the following sequence of DNA located on the coding strand:
5'-ACGGTACATT-3'
A)5'-ACGGUACAUU-3'
B)3'-ACGGUACAUU-5'
C)5'-UGCCAUGUAA-3'
D)3'-UGCCAUGUAA-5'
Q3) The Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase binds to the . A)-10 and -35 sites
B)enhancer
C)RNA
D)+1
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Self-splicing introns,ribosomes,and RNase P are examples of .
A)ribozymes
B)proteins
C)RNA processing enzymes
D)structural RNAs
Q3) Primary transcripts are in the final form for translation into protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that links the appropriate amino acid to the acceptor stem of specific tRNAs is called .
A)aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B)ribosomes
C)ribozymes
D)ribonuclease P
Q2) Which of the following is not a stop codon?
A)AUG
B)UAA
C)UAG
D)UGA
Q3) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The RNA type that brings amino acids to the protein synthesis machinery is
A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)snRNA
D)tRNA
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) The binding of a regulatory molecule to an allosteric site on a protein that results in the inhibition of the protein is an example of .
A)non-competitive inhibition
B)allosteric activation
C)competitive inhibition
D)positive regulation
Q2) Enzymes the activation energy of the reaction.
A)lower
B)raise
C)inhibit
D)stabilize
Q3) Quarternary structure results when a single polypeptide chain folds into multiple domains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Polar amino acids are hydrophilic and would be located on the exterior of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
Q2) Inteins .
A)are protein self-splicing sequences
B)are portions of mRNA that are spliced out of the primary transcript
C)are never translated
D)are protein sequences that are part of functional proteins
Q3) Why might proteins be tagged?
A)purification
B)identification
C)anchoring
D)all of the above
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17
Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gratuitous inducers .
A)are metabolized like the natural inducer
B)are not broken down
C)are nutrient sources
D)are competitive inhibitors
Q2) Global regulators .
A)control large numbers of genes in response to a broad,general signals
B)control large numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
C)control small numbers of genes in response to broad,general signals
D)control small numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
Q3) Which of the following is an example of negative regulation?
A)A gene is switched on in the presence of an activator.
B)A gene is de-repressed.
C)A gene is induced.
D)A gene is switched off by a repressor protein.
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Housekeeping genes are always .
A)off until needed
B)on
C)induced
D)repressed
Q2) Specific transcription factors .
A)modulate gene expression in response to a specific stimulus
B)are not able to enter the nucleus of eukaryotes and instead help regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level
C)bind to target mRNAs prior to translation
D)prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to the DNA
Q3) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) Riboswitches .
A)can bind small molecules
B)are useful in translational control
C)are found on the 5' end of the mRNA
D)are all of the above
Q2) Which nuclease is responsible for generating siRNA?
A)Ribonuclease P
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)RISC
Q3) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called .
A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q4) In bacteria, the system destroys incoming viral DNA and RNA.
A)RISC
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)CRISPR
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Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Q1) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q3) Deletion analysis allows a researcher to examine the effects of regulatory proteins on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) Which of the following might be plasmid-encoded?
A)toxins
B)antibiotic resistance
C)plant hormones
D)all of the above
Q2) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following organisms does not have plasmids?
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)yeast
D)archaea
Q4) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) Bacteriophage infect .
A)other viruses
B)only bacteria
C)animals
D)all cell types
Q2) The next step of viral propagation following attachment and entry is
A)genome replication
B)assembly
C)viral protein manufacture
D)release of new virions
Q3) Viral protein coats are called .
A)capsomeres
B)envelopes
C)capsids
D)cloaks
Q4) Viruses hijack host cell replication machinery to produce more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) Internal resolution sites of complex transposons are recognized by .
A)Dicer
B)cointegrase
C)recombinase
D)resolvase
Q2) Where might mobile DNA elements be found?
A)plasmids
B)chromosomes
C)viral genomes
D)all of the above
Q3) The of Tn21 family of transposons acts as a gene acquisition and expression and has been implicated in the spread of antibiotic resistance.
A)IRS
B)integron
C)replicon
D)inverted repeats
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24
Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) A mutation that changes the orientation of a segment of DNA is called aan)
A)inversion
B)tranversion
C)reversion
D)frameshift
Q2) Terotogenic agents .
A)generate reversions
B)always causes mutations
C)are always carcinogenic
D)have known effects on developing embryos
Q3) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nonsense mutations occur when is introduced into the coding sequence
A)a start codon
B)a stop codon
C)a deletion
D)an insertion
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q2) Mutations in RAD genes cause .
A)recombination to occur randomly
B)radiation sensitivity
C)excessive recombination events during meiosis
D)a decline in gamete production
Q3) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
Q4) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) DNA transfer that occurs via a virus is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q2) The mechanism of transfer of the F-plasmid in conjugation involves
A)viruses
B)donor cell death
C)bidirectional replication
D)rolling circle replication
Q3) The uptake of naked DNA from the environment is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q4) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q2) Gene families are .
A)groups of genes with similar function that were generated from duplication events
B)entire genomes
C)always in operons
D)have no role in evolution
Q3) The transfer of genetic information from one species to another species is called A)recombination
B)vertical gene transfer
C)horizontal gene transfer
D)conjugation
Q4) Gene duplication generates new genes with novel roles.
A)True
B)False
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