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Molecular Biology Test Preparation - 2018 Verified Questions

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Molecular Biology Test Preparation

Course Introduction

Molecular Biology explores the molecular underpinnings of cellular processes, focusing on the structure and function of nucleic acids and proteins. The course examines the mechanisms of DNA replication, transcription, and translation, as well as gene expression regulation and genetic engineering techniques. Through an integration of theory and laboratory methodologies, students gain insights into the molecular basis of heredity, mutation, and cellular function, preparing them for advanced study or careers in biotechnology, medicine, and related fields.

Recommended Textbook Principles of Biochemistry 5th Edition by Moran Horton

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22 Chapters

2018 Verified Questions

2018 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Biochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diffusion is an adequate means of distributing nutrients in prokaryotic cytoplasm because they have more surface area than volume compared to most eukaryotes.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The tendency of a metabolic reaction to proceed is due to the free energy of both the reactants and products as well as the change in randomness of that reaction.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The conformation of a protein enzyme determines whether it is functional or not.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) The mitotic spindles are formed from microtubule proteins. A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Water

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hydrogen bonds in the interior of a protein or other macromolecule are stronger than those on the exterior.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Micelles are stabilized in water by interactions of nonpolar molecules with each other.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) The pKa of lactic acid is 3.9.A lactate buffer will be useful from pH values

A)3.5 through 4.4.

B)3.0 through 4.5.

C)2.9 through 4.9.

D)3.8 through 4.0.

Answer: C

Q4) In the detergent sodium dodecyl sulfate,the sulfate groups are very hydrophobic.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and the Primary Structures of Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hydropathy is an important determination of protein-chain folding because

A)it predicts accurately where charged amino acids will appear in a protein.

B)it describes a specific type of folding.

C)it distinguishes enzymes from structural proteins.

D)hydrophobic R groups tend to cluster in the interior of proteins.

Answer: D

Q2) The pKa's of isoleucine's -Carboxyl group and -Amino group are 2.3 and 9.8,respectively.Calculate the isoelectric point.

A)2.3

B)6.0

C)9.8

D)The isoelectric point cannot be calculated without the pKa value for the side chain.

Answer: B

Q3) Dialysis during protein purification is a process to

A)concentrate proteins.

B)remove high molecular weight substances.

C)dissolve insoluble proteins.

D)remove low molecular weight solutes such as salts.

Answer: D

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true about disulfide bonds and protein folding?

A)Disulfide bonds have no influence on protein folding since they only form after the protein adopts its native conformation.

B)Proteins occasionally adopt nonnative conformations and form improper disulfide bonds that can be reversed by the enzyme protein disulfide isomerase.

C)The folding of the native conformation is influenced more strongly by the formation of disulfide bonds than by the primary structure of a protein.

D)If a protein forms an improper disulfide bond it is irreversibly inactivated and must be targeted by the cell for degradation.

Q2) Cystine

A)Secondary

B)Tertiary

C)Quaternary

D)Primary

Q3) The subunits of a multisubunit proteins are always identical.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Properties of Enzymes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Reversible inhibitors can be separated from solutions of enzymes by dialysis.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which statement is false about the sequential theory?

A)It treats the concerted theory as a limiting simple case.

B)It allows for a distribution of high and low affinity subunits in the same protein.

C)It assumes more than one conformation of a particular subunit can have high affinity for the ligand.

D)It is also called the ligand-induced theory and is more general than the concerted theory.

Q3) When there are two substrates in a reaction,the reaction is said to be second order if ________.

A)the reaction is first order with respect to each substrate concentration

B)the maximum rate is independent of either substrate's concentration

C)the substrate concentrations are equal

D)it proceeds at twice the rate upon double the concentrations of both substrates

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Chapter 6: Mechanisms of Enzymes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The movement of ________ is key to understanding chemical and enzymatic reactions.

A)neutrons

B)electrons

C)nucleophiles

D)electrophiles

Q2) In the Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad in serine proteases,the serine residue serves as an acid-base catalyst,while the histidine residue serves as a covalent catalyst.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The reaction catalyzed by a certain phosphatase enzyme is found to follow ping-pong kinetics and involves the transfer of a phosphate group from substrate A to substrate B.Which mode of catalysis is likely for this reaction?

A)Sequential catalysis.

B)Acid-base catalysis.

C)Transfer catalysis.

D)Covalent catalysis.

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8

Chapter 7: Coenzymes and Vitamins

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which structure is not a part of folate?

A)Porphyrin ring.

B)P-aminobenzoic acid.

C)Pterin.

D)Glutamate residues.

Q2) Enzymes with vitamin B as the prosthetic group catalyze a variety of reactions involving A)lipids.

B)sugars.

C)amino acids.

D)other vitamins.

Q3) TPP is a(n)________ of yeast pyruvate decarboxylase.

A)cosubstrate

B)intrinsic factor

C)metalloenzyme

D)prosthetic group

Q4) Vitamin C is a coenzyme during the hydroxylation of collagen.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) Highly branched cores of amlyopectin that are resistant to hydrolysis are called

A)core saccharides

B)non-reducing saccharides

C)dextran

D)limit dextrins

Q2) The reaction between one molecule of alcohol and one molecule of aldehyde yields an acetal.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The main difference between structures of amylopectin and glycogen is the specific sugar subunit.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The large number of possible oligosaccharide structures in glycoproteins is limited in cells by the kinds of enzymes available for their synthesis.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Lipids and Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which would you expect for the fatty acyl chains of the membrane phospholipids of bacteria grown at low temperature?

A)Proportion of unsaturated fatty acyl groups increases.

B)Proportion of unsaturated fatty acyl groups decreases.

C)No change in the proportion of saturated versus unsaturated acyl groups.

D)More cholesterol is produced and is inserted between the fatty acyl chains of the membrane.

Q2) Which type of membrane protein might be dissociated from the membrane by changing the pH or the ionic strength?

A)Integral membrane protein.

B)Peripheral membrane protein.

C)Lipid-anchored membrane protein.

D)All of the above.

Q3) Symport and antiport proteins must be active transport proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All sphingolipids are derivatives of ceramide.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Introduction to Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) ATP has the highest phosphoryl-group-transfer potential in cells.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Intermediary metabolism is the term applied to reactions that ________.

A)degrade molecules

B)synthesize large molecules such as proteins

C)convert glucose to pyruvate

D)involve low molecular weight metabolites

Q3) The synthesis of acetyl CoA shows that another important role for ATP in cells is to provide its nucleotidyl group for transfer in metabolism.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What function group leads to ATP being an "energy-rich" compound?

A)Phosphate ester.

B)Carbonyl.

C)Ether.

D)Amido.

Q5) Phosphatases catalyze the hydrolytic removal of phosphate groups.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Glycolysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a metabolically irreversible enzymatic reaction of glycolysis?

A)Pyruvate kinase reaction.

B)PFK-1 reaction.

C)Hexokinase/Glucokinase reaction.

D)None of the above.

Q2) Compared to pyruvate,the carbon atoms in lactate ________.

A)are more reduced

B)are more oxidized

C)are equally as oxidized

D)carry more charge

Q3) In the presence of arsenate poisoning

A)ATP production proceeds via a reaction that involves 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.

B)glycolysis is interrupted.

C)a net production of 2 molecules of ATP occurs.

D)All of the above.

E)None of the above.

Q4) Triose phosphate isomerase is diffusion controlled.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Gluconeogenesis, the Pentose Phosphate

Pathway, and Glycogen Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Gluconeogenesis is the ________.

A)result of amylase activity

B)formation of glycogen

C)formation of starches

D)formation of glucose from simple two and three-carbon precursors

E)formation of glucose from other carbohydrates

Q2) Gluconeogenesis shares some,but not all,enzymes with the glycolytic pathway.It would appear to be more efficient if both pathways used all of the same enzymes since the pathways are essentially the reverses of each other.Why don't both pathways use all of the same enzymes?

A)The reactions where enzymes differ occur in different parts of the cell for glycolysis versus gluconeogenesis.

B)Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only in one direction,so naturally the two pathways have some enzymes that differ.

C)In tissues where gluconeogenesis occurs,the glycolytic enzymes are present at extremely low concentrations.

D)Three of the reaction steps in gluconeogenesis would have prohibitively large,positive free energies if they used glycolytic enzymes for their catalysis.

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Chapter 13: The Citric Acid Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) The citric acid cycle produces a nucleotide triphosphate directly by substrate level phosphorylation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which carbon atom(s)of pyruvate is(are)first converted to carbon dioxide by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A)The carboxylate carbon (#1).

B)The carbonyl carbon (#2).

C)The methyl carbon (#3).

D)Both carbons #1 and #3 in equal amounts.

Q3) Each of the following leads to a biosynthetic pathway except A)a-ketoglutarate.

B)succinyl CoA.

C)oxaloacetate.

D)citrate.

E)None of the above.

Q4) The overall goal of the citric acid cycle is to oxidize acetate,form reduced coenzymes,and produce ATP.

A)True

B)False

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Electron Transport and Atp Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement is true about two reactions that are coupled?

A)One reaction will normally not occur without the other.

B)One is always exergonic and the other is always endergonic.

C)Only oxidation-reduction reactions can be coupled.

D)Coupled reactions are always driven by the ATP to ADP conversion.

Q2) Which statement is false about complex IV?

A)A binuclear center that contains an iron ion and heme-a3 is the site of the reduction of molecular oxygen to water.

B)Bacterial and eukaryotic forms of complex IV have very similar structures and number of subunits per functional unit.

C)The core structure of the cytochrome c oxidase in complex IV has three conserved subunits.

D)Copper ions shift from a +2 oxidation state to a +1 oxidation state as electrons are passed through the complex.

Q3) The presence of superoxide dismutase (SOD)in mammalian cells can be harmful or beneficial,depending on the location.

A)True

B)False

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The compound 2-carboxyarabinitol 1-phosphate is present in plants only at night and is a strong activator of rubisco.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The light reactions of photosynthesis form carbohydrates from ATP,NADPH,H+ and CO<sub>2</sub>

A)True

B)False

Q3) The site of light-dependent reactions in the chloroplast is

A)the stroma.

B)the thylakoids.

C)the outer membrane.

D)the lumen.

E)All of the above.

Q4) Plants may lose green color as they mature if enzymes that degrade chlorophyll are activated.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Lipid Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) CoA derivatives are the active thioesters in fatty acid oxidation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which dietary lipid usually contains no ester bonds?

A)Cholesterol.

B)Triacylglycerides.

C)Glycerophospholipidsh

D)None of the above,all dietary lipids are esterified.

Q3) All of the following occur during synthesis of ether lipids except

A)esterification of an acyl group from fatty acyl CoA to dihydroxyacetone phosphate.

B)displacement of the fatty acid of 1-acyldihydroxyacetone phosphate by a fatty alcohol.

C)oxidation of the keto group of 1-acyldihydroxyacetone by NADPH.

D)esterification of 1-alkylglycero-3-phosphate to produce 1-alkyl-2-acylglycero-3-phosphate.

Q4) In adult mammals fatty acid synthesis largely occurs in the cytosol of liver cells and adipocytes.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Amino Acid Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nitric oxide is formed from arginine.It is a messenger molecule with several functions that include all below except

A)macrophage activation.

B)reacting with superoxide anions to form more toxic substances.

C)constricting red blood cells.

D)neurotransmitter in the brain.

Q2) Which of the following is/are true concerning transanimation reactions?

A)They can convert -keto acids to -amino acids.

B)All require the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.

C)The catalyzed reactions are near-equilibrium.

D)All of the above.

Q3) In animals glutamate synthase is essential for the production of glutamate.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Only growing and reproducing cells require a continuous supply of amino acids for the synthesis of new protein molecules.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Nucleotide Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome,a result of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency,there is a(n)________.

A)accumulation of hypoxanthine

B)accumulation of GMP

C)complete breakdown of purine biosynthesis

D)excess of degradation of IMP and GMP

E)accumulation of IMP

Q2) About 3% of all deoxycytidylate residues in mammalian DNA are methylated after DNA is synthesized.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the reactions catalyzed by xanthine oxidase,electrons are transferred to ________ to form ________.

A)O<sub>2</sub>;H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>

B)H O<sub>2</sub>;O<sub>2</sub>

C)H O;O<sub>2</sub>

D)O<sub>2</sub>;H O

Q4) Virtually all organisms and tissues can synthesize nucleotides.

A)True

B)False

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Nucleic Acids

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Sample Questions

Q1) In DNA,phosphodiester bonds form with hydroxyl groups of carbons number ________ and ________ of each deoxyribose sugar.

A)2';3'

B)2';4'

C)3';4'

D)3';5'

E)4';5'

Q2) According to Chargaff's observations of nucleotide composition of DNA samples

A)% of (G + C)+ % of (A + T)= 100%.

B)A = T.

C)G = C.

D)%A + %G + %C + %T = 100%.

E)All of the above.

Q3) "Five prime to three prime" description of a DNA strand refers to

A)the phosphorylated 5' carbon at one end,the 3' at the other end.

B)the location of the hydroxyl groups.

C)the phosphodiester backbone of DNA.

D)the phosphorylated 5' carbon on one sugar and the 3' carbon on the next sugar.

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Chapter 20: DNA Replication, repair, and Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) At one point during DNA recombination in E.coli there is formation of a triple-stranded DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What distinguishes direct repair from other DNA repair mechanisms?

A)Direct repair does not require the breaking of any bonds in the DNA phosphodiester backbone.

B)Direct repair proteins do not require activation by light or other chemicals.

C)Direct repair systems activate the proofreading activity of DNA polymerase.

D)Direct repair systems remove and replace single defective nucleotides.

Q3) There are more replication forks during replication of eukaryotic DNA than prokaryotic DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In E.coli the helicase ________ is one of the subunits of the ________ in the replisome.

A)gyrase;primosome

B)gyrase; -clamp

C)DnaB;primosome

D)DnaB; -clamp

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Transcription and RNA Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) RNA polymerase has a higher error rate (one mutation for every 1 million nucleotides incorporated)than DNA polymerase because RNA polymerase does not have exonuclease proofreading activity but DNA polymerase does.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is/are true concerning TAFs and TBP?

A)They are subunits of TFIIB and TFIID,respectively.

B)TBP is required to initiate transcription of class I and class III genes.

C)They are not associated with RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III.

D)All of the above.

Q3) The sequence CCA must occur ________.

A)at the 3' end of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic tRNA

B)immediately upstream from the TATA box

C)at the 5' end of an intron

D)at the origin of replication in E.coli

Q4) An operon is ________.

A)a set of genes whose transcription is controlled by a single promoter

B)the site of repressor binding

C)a protein that activates the transcription of a whole class of genes

D)a multisubunit complex responsible for the splicing of exons

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Protein Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ carries the anticodon.

A)rRNA

B)mRNA

C)tRNA

D)DNA

Q2) In eukaryotes the initiation codon is the first AUG triplet from the 5' end of mRNA.

A)True

B)False

Q3) After the action of peptidyl transferase,the peptidyl-tRNA is located at the A)P site.

B)A site.

C)E site.

D)partly in the A site and partly in the P site.

Q4) Peptidyl transferase catalyzes peptide bond formation,and the activity is contained within the protein portion of the large ribosomal subunit.

A)True

B)False

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