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Molecular Biology is an in-depth course that explores the molecular mechanisms underpinning the structure, function, and regulation of genetic material in living organisms. Topics covered include the structure and replication of DNA, transcription and translation of RNA, gene regulation, recombinant DNA technology, and the molecular basis of genetic diseases. Students will also examine current research techniques, such as PCR, DNA sequencing, and gene editing, gaining insights into how molecular biology drives innovation in genetics, medicine, and biotechnology. Through lectures, readings, and laboratory work, students develop a comprehensive understanding of the molecular foundations of life.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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Q1) All of the following protein-protein interactions are involved in activation of naive helper T cells by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) EXCEPT binding of:
A) Peptide-MHC complexes on the APC to the TCR on the T cell
B) CD4 on the T cell to nonpolymorphic regions of class II MHC molecules on the APC
C) Integrins on the T cell with adhesion ligands on the APC
D) B7-2 on the APC with CD28 on the T cell
E) CD40L on the T cell with CD40 on the APC
Answer: E
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Q1) A region of an antibody molecule that permits bivalent binding of antibodies to pairs of surface epitopes varying in distance from one another
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: D
Q2) The isotype found predominantly in mucosal secretions
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: A
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Q1) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) perform which of the following functions in adaptive immune responses?
A) Display major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-associated peptides on their cell surfaces for surveillance by B lymphocytes
B) Initiate T cell responses by specifically recognizing and responding to foreign protein antigens
C) Display MHC-associated peptides on their cell surfaces for surveillance by T lymphocytes
D) Display polysaccharide antigens on their cell surfaces for surveillance by B lymphocytes
E) Secrete peptides derived from protein antigens for binding to T cell antigen receptors
Answer: C
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Q1) Complementarity-determining regions
Q2) z protein
Q3) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q4) CD3 protein
Q5) CD2
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q6) Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM)
Q7) Constant Ig domain
Q8) Antigen-binding region
Q9) Variable Ig domain Page 6
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about humoral immune responses is true?
A) Naive B cells are required for initiation of primary responses and memory B cells are required for initiation of secondary responses.
B) Antibody responses to bacterial polysaccharide antigens require CD4+ helper T cells.
C) Heavy chain isotype switching typically occurs in response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens.
D) Affinity maturation does not require helper T cells.
E) Antibody-secreting cells generated during a humoral immune response live for only a few hours.
Q2) Unclear functional role
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
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Q1) This intracellular signaling molecule and transcription factor is required for differentiation of TH2 cells and for responses of other cells to TH2 cells.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
Q2) This intracellular signaling molecule and transcription factor is activated by IL-12.
A)Interferon-
B)Interleukin (IL)-10
C)IL-12
D)CD40L
E)CD40
F)STAT6
G)STAT4
H)IL-5
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Q1) Plasma protein that serves as a soluble pattern recognition receptor binding to microbial cells but not to mammalian cells
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
Q2) The signaling pathways triggered by Toll-like receptors typically result in activation of which of the following pairs of transcription factors?
A) NFAT and T-bet
B) AP-1 and GATA-3
C) Fos and STAT-6
D) NFkB and AP-1
E) Lck and Jun
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Q1) Early gene product; required for elongation of viral transcripts
A)env
B)gag
C)nef
D)pol
E)rev
F)tat
G)vif
Q2) Defect in lymphocyte activation due to mutations in the gene encoding the SAP adapter protein required for inhibition of signaling by the SLAM molecule. Lack of SAP results in uncontrolled B cell proliferation, hypogammaglobulinemia, and B cell lymphoma in the setting of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection.
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
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Q1) Expressed as a membrane molecule on the surface of activated T cells, it binds to a receptor found on many cell types, including T cells, and induces apoptosis.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Stimulates growth and activation of eosinophils
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
Q3) Stimulates expression of class II MHC on various cell types
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with increased relative risk of developing systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) Female gender
B) Deficiency in complement protein C2
C) African-American ethnicity
D) Presence of HLA-DR3
E) Defect in B cell maturation
Q2) Which of the following statements about immune complex-mediated diseases is NOT true?
A) Immune complexes may contain antibodies bound to either self or foreign antigens.
B) Immune complex-mediated diseases generally show systemic manifestations.
C) Pathologic features of immune complex diseases are determined by the cellular source of the antigen.
D) Small complexes are deposited in vessels more than large complexes, which are usually efficiently phagocytosed.
E) Complexes containing cationic antigens are more likely to produce severe, long-lasting injury by depositing in blood vessels and renal glomeruli.
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Q1) Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cytolytic T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Helper T lymphocytes
Q2) The two major functional classes of effector T lymphocytes are:
A) Helper T lymphocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B) Natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C) Memory T cells and effector T cells
D) Helper cells and antigen-presenting cells
E) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and target cells
Q3) Which of the following is a unique property of the adaptive immune system?
A) Highly diverse repertoire of specificities for antigens
B) Self-nonself discrimination
C) Recognition of microbial structures by both cell-associated and soluble receptors
D) Protection against viral infections
E) Responses that have the same kinetics and magnitude on repeated exposure to the same microbe
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Q1) CD8-binding site
Q2) Human class I MHC allele
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q3) Mouse major histocompatibility complex
A)HLA- 1
, -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q4) Polymorphic region
Q5) 2-Microglobulin
Q6) Peptide-binding groove

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Q1) This complement fragment is a component of the membrane attack complex.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) Which of the following anatomic regions is normally protected from pathogens only by humoral immune responses and not by cell-mediated immune responses?
A) Skin
B) Intestinal lumen
C) Intestinal epithelium
D) Central nervous system
E) Spleen
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Q1) Protein constituent of granules that contributes to tissue damage in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) Membrane phospholipid derivative that causes bronchoconstriction, retraction of endothelial cells, and relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
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Q1) This molecule binds SLC and ELC and is involved in naive T cell migration into interfollicular zones of lymph nodes.
A)Peripheral lymph node addressin
B)Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1)
C)Very late activation antigen-4 (VLA-4)
D)E-selectin
E)P-selectin ligand
F)CCR7
G)CXCR5
H)MadCAM-1
I)Vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1)
Q2) Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Lymph node
D) Thymus
E) Tonsil
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Q1) Tolerance-sensitive stage of B cell maturation
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
Q2) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
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Q1) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q2) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a property of the V(D)J recombinase?
A) Recognizes specific DNA sequences flanking gene segments in the antigen receptor gene loci
B) Introduces double-stranded nicks in the DNA between recombination signal sequences and the adjacent V, D, or J coding sequences
C) Promotes joining V-to-J, D-to-J, and V-to-D
D) Repairs double-stranded DNA breaks
E) Splices out intronic sequences from primary RNA transcripts
Q4) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a required step in B and T lymphocyte maturation?
A) Proliferative expansion of precursor cells
B) Cell surface expression of complete antigen receptor complexes
C) Positive selection
D) Activation of precursors by foreign antigens
E) Pre-antigen receptor expression
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Q1) Good induction of mucosal immunity but risk of developing a viral disease, especially in immunocompromised hosts
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
Q2) Composed of antigens purified from microbes or inactivated toxins, such as the tetanus toxoid vaccine
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
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Q1) Can induce anergy in T cells through inhibition of costimulatory signaling
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
Q2) Inhibits macrophage cytokine secretion
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
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Q1) Mutations in both allelic copies of this gene are required for malignant transformation
A)AFP
B)Bcr/Abl
C)CA-125
D)CD20
E)CEA
F)EBNA
G)MAGE
H)p53
I)PSA
J)Ras
Q2) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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