Molecular Biology Review Questions
Course Introduction
Molecular Biology is the study of the molecular mechanisms that govern the structure, function, and regulation of the genetic material within living cells. This course explores the fundamental processes of DNA replication, transcription, RNA processing, translation, and gene expression. Students will examine the roles of proteins, nucleic acids, and other biomolecules in cellular activities, as well as cutting-edge techniques such as recombinant DNA technology, PCR, and molecular cloning. Emphasis is placed on understanding how molecular events contribute to biological function and the implications for biotechnology, medicine, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of bonds spontaneously form between two complementary strands of DNA?
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Covalent bonds
C) Phosphodiester bonds
D) Polar covalent bonds
Answer: A
Q2) Which DNA sequence is complementary to 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'?
A) 5'GATTCTCAAAGGACT3'
B) 3'GATTCTCAAAGGACT5'
C) 3'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA5'
D) 5'CTAAGAGTTTCCTGA3'
Answer: C
Q3) DNA replication is:
A) Conservative
B) Semiconservative
C) Nonconservative
D) Dispersive
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loop of transfer RNA that interacts with the codon on mRNA in translation is called the:
A) D loop
B) T\(\varPsi\) C loop
C) Variable loop
D) Anticodon loop
Answer: D
Q2) Synthesis of RNA guided by a DNA template is:
A) Translation
B) DNA replication
C) Transcription
D) Reverse transcription
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is involved in termination of transcription in eukaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Sigma
C) Rho
D) PolyA signal
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrolysis of the finished polypeptide from the final tRNA by release factors would occur at which of the following codons?
A) AUG
B) GUG
C) ACC
D) UGA
Answer: D
Q2) The enzyme that bonds two amino acids together in protein synthesis is:
A) Peptidyl transferase
B) Protein synthetase
C) Amino acid polymerase
D) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Answer: A
Q3) The chemical nature of alanine, leucine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan is described as:
A) Polar
B) Acidic
C) Basic
D) Nonpolar
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to optimize yield of nucleic acid by precipitation or column purification?
A) Carrier molecules
B) Detergent
C) Tris buffer
D) Isotonic saline
Q2) Which of the following is the first step in DNA isolation from cells in a clinical sample?
A) DNA precipitation
B) Precipitation of proteins
C) Lysis of cells
D) Eluting DNA from a spin column
Q3) DNA is isolated from a clinical sample. The absorbance at 260 nm is 0.489, and the absorbance at 280 nm is 0.257. Is this sample of sufficient quality for use in subsequent analyses?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Cannot be determined with the data given
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6
Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the density of a sample relative to the density of the buffer prior to loading the sample into a gel, which of the following is added to the sample?
A) Glycerol
B) Ethidium bromide
C) Formaldehyde
D) Tris acetate EDTA
Q2) To separate a mixture of oligonucleotides with a resolution between bands of 1 bp, which of the following methods should be used?
A) Contour-clamped homogeneous electric field
B) Rotating gel electrophoresis
C) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D) Traditional agarose gel electrophoresis
Q3) Which of the following molecules is added to an electrophoresis buffer for the purpose of denaturing DNA?
A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
B) Polyacrylamide
C) Formamide
D) Tris borate
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) A linear molecule with one restriction enzyme recognition site will yield how many fragments when digested by the restriction enzyme?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Which of the following methods is best suited for qualitative analysis of DNA, such as mutational analysis, where many samples are compared simultaneously?
A) Dot blot
B) Traditional Southern blot
C) Western blot
D) Northern blot
Q3) Which of the following solutions has the highest stringency?
A) 0% formamide
B) 10% formamide
C) high-salt buffer
D) 50% formamide
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following steps can be taken to minimize mis-priming in a PCR procedure?
A) Use high-quality deoxynucleotides, buffers, and enzymes.
B) Seclude the polymerase from the template and primers before amplification.
C) Load the samples carefully for gel electrophoresis of PCR products.
D) Keep the reaction mix at room temperature prior to amplification.
Q2) Starting with a single target, how many copies are produced in a PCR reaction of 30 cycles?
A) 30
B) 30<sup>2</sup>
C) 2<sup>30</sup>
D) 2 x 30
Q3) The specificity of the PCR reaction is determined by which of the following components?
A) Mg<sup>2+</sup> concentration
B) Deoxynucleotides
C) DNA polymerase
D) Primers
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In spectral karyotyping, each of the 23 chromosomes is distinguished by:
A) Size
B) Degree of staining
C) Fluorescent color
D) Position
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of interphase FISH as compared with metaphase FISH?
A) Examination of 20 spreads in interphase FISH has increased sensitivity.
B) One can identify mutations anywhere in the chromosome in interphase FISH.
C) Interphase FISH allows identification of all chromosomes.
D) Results are available faster in interphase FISH procedures than metaphase FISH procedures.
Q3) When chromosomes are stained with Giemsa, the resulting bands are called:
A) G bands
B) Q bands
C) R bands
D) C bands
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amino acid sequence DAILMNCST has an S8X mutation. Which of the following correctly describes this mutation?
A) Seven additional serine residues are inserted next to S.
B) The S is substituted with any amino acid at position 8.
C) There was a frameshift mutation at the S, producing a stop codon.
D) The S at position 8 is mutated to a nonsense codon.
Q2) Which of the following mutations is more likely to result in a phenotypic change?
A) Frameshift mutation at the beginning of the coding sequence
B) Nonconservative mutation at the end of the coding sequence
C) Silent mutation in the middle of the coding sequence
D) Conservative mutation at the end of the coding sequence
Q3) Mass spectrometry detects what type or particles?
A) Uncharged
B) Ions
C) Very large proteins
D) Hydrophobic
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dideoxycytidine is added to one of four sequencing reactions. All of the DNA fragments produced in that reaction end with which of the following nucleotides?
A) dG
B) ddC
C) dC
D) ddG
Q2) In Maxam-Gilbert sequencing, co-migrating bands that are present in lanes from the tube treated with hydrazine (T or C) and the tube treated with hydrazine plus salt (T) are read as which of the following nucleotides?
A) A
B) T
C) C
D) G
Q3) Which end of the sequenced DNA is found at the bottom of a sequencing gel?
A) 5'
B) 3'
C) 2'
D) 1'
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two sources of DNA are compared by STR analysis in a crime scene, how many differences between alleles will determine that the two sources are different?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Q2) DNA was isolated from a patient and cut with HaeIII. The resulting fragments were separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred to a membrane. The fragments were allowed to hybridize to a probe, and the resulting band pattern was compared with that seen in another sample of DNA. Which of the following methods is described?
A) RFLP by Southern blot
B) VNTR by PCR
C) SNP by sequencing
D) STR by PCR
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV genotyping is performed for which of the following reasons?
A) Monitor development of antiretroviral drug resistance
B) Confirm HIV infection
C) Quantify amount of HIV in the patient
D) Determine source of HIV
Q2) Which of the following molecular-based assays targets rRNA?
A) NASBA for hepatitis C virus
B) TMA for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Accuprobe for M. tuberculosis
D) Linear Array Genotyping for HPV
Q3) In a PCR assay of DNA isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab, amplification using primers to IS481 was positive and using primers to IS1001 was negative. All controls were acceptable. Which of the following organisms was present in this sample?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Bordetella parapertussis
C) Bordetella holmesii
D) Legionella pneumophila
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Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost all sex-linked disorders involve which of the following chromosomes?
A) X
B) Y
C) 1
D) 22
Q2) Li-Fraumeni syndrome, in which affected patients have an increased predisposition to cancer, is caused by a mutation in which of the following genes?
A) Hemoglobin beta
B) Dystrophin
C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
D) p53 tumor suppressor gene
Q3) Genetic analysis of four generations of a family reveals that about 50% of the males in the family are affected by a mutation and about 50% of the females are unaffected carriers of the mutation that affects the males. What type of inheritance pattern is seen in this family?
A) Autosomal-dominant
B) Autosomal-recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) Y-linked recessive
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is suspected of having follicular lymphoma, and his physician would like additional laboratory tests performed to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. Which of the following tests should be performed?
A) T-cell receptor gene rearrangement clonality
B) t(9;22) translocation
C) t(14;18) translocation
D) t(11;14) translocation
Q2) A PCR assay is performed on a patient with presumptive mantle cell lymphoma using primers against the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene and the cyclin D1 (CCND1) gene. Capillary gel electrophoresis was used for product detection, and the patient did not have a detectable PCR product. All controls were acceptable. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this result?
A) The patient is positive for a t(11;14).
B) The patient is negative for a t(11;14).
C) Mantle cell lymphoma is definitively ruled out.
D) The results are a false negative because inappropriate primers were used.
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Chapter 15: Dna-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) HLA is an abbreviation for what term?
A) Histocompatability locus array
B) Human leukocyte antibody
C) Human leukocyte antigen
D) Hepatic lipid antigen
Q2) Which of the following denotes a null allele in the HLA locus?
A) A*25:02Q
B) DR*10:04N
C) B*44:01:01X
D) B*16:12-B*16:14
Q3) HLA specificities were first defined in the laboratory based on which type of methodology?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism
B) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
C) Amino acid sequencing
D) Serology
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17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the proper way to handle raw data from a completed test run?
A) Submit the data to the ordering physician.
B) Discard the data immediately after the case is signed out.
C) Immediately shred the data to maintain patient privacy.
D) Retain the data with the final reports of the test run.
Q2) Which test method is best for a fixed tissue specimen?
A) Long-range PCR
B) Southern blot
C) Standard PCR
D) PFGE
Q3) The temperature in a refrigerator that is used to store patient specimens and reagents should be checked how often?
A) Hourly
B) Daily
C) Biweekly
D) Weekly
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