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Molecular Biology Question Bank - 931 Verified Questions

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Molecular

Biology Question Bank

Course Introduction

Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that underlie the structure, function, and regulation of the genetic material in living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts such as DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene regulation, alongside modern techniques in molecular genetics and biotechnology. Students will gain an understanding of how molecular processes govern cell function and heredity, as well as their applications in medical, environmental, and biotechnological contexts. Emphasis is placed on experimental approaches, model organisms, and the interpretation of data from molecular research.

Recommended Textbook

Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths

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20 Chapters

931 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution

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20 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following features make a species suitable as a model organism?

A)small organism

B)short generation time

C)small genome

D)produce large number of offspring

E)All of the answer options are correct.

Answer: E

Q2) How many different DNA molecules that are eight-nucleotide pairs long are theoretically possible?

A)24

B)32

C)64

D)256

E)65,536

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance

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50 Verified Questions

50 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A wild-type strain of haploid yeast is crossed to a mutant strain with phenotype

d.What phenotypic ratios will be observed in the progeny?

A)all wild type

B)75% wild type and 25% mutant (d)

C)50% wild type and 50% mutant (d)

D)25% wild type and 75% mutant (d)

E)all mutant (d)

Answer: C

Q2) A laboratory mouse homozygous for an RFLP marker is mated to a wild mouse that is heterozygous for that marker.One of the heterozygous individuals resulting from this cross is mated back to the wild parent.What proportion of the offspring will have the same RFLP pattern as the original laboratory mouse?

A)none of the offspring

B)1/4

C)1/2

D)3/4

E)all of the offspring

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mendel crossed Y/Y;R/R (yellow wrinkled)peas with y/y;r/r (green smooth)peas and selfed the F<sub>1</sub> to obtain an F<sub>2</sub>.What proportion of the F<sub>2</sub> individuals were pure-breeding?

A)1/9

B)3/16

C)1/4

D)3/4

E)9/16

Answer: C

Q2) In a species of Mexican mollies,fish with ragged fins and nonragged fins were found.When mollies of a true-breeding (i.e.,pure-breeding)ragged strain were crossed with nonragged fish,the F<sub>1</sub> all had ragged fins,and in the F<sub>2</sub>,three ragged appeared to one nonragged.Diagram this cross,letting R = ragged and r = nonragged,and give parental phenotypes,genotypes,and germ cells,as well as F<sub>2</sub> genotypes and phenotypes.

Answer: 11ea8898_f57b_a936_bb89_e95e75ec7846_TB3928_00_TB3928_00

The F<sub>2</sub> (from R/r intercrossed)is 1/4 R/R and 1/2 R/r (for a total of 3/4 ragged)and 1/4 r/r (nonragged).

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by

Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fungal cross a <sup>.</sup><sup> </sup>b<sup>+</sup> \(\times\)a<sup>+</sup><sup> </sup><sup>.</sup><sup> </sup>b yields 30 parental ditype,27 nonparental ditype,and 18 tetratype asci.The two genes,a and b,are:

A)linked,36 map units apart (the RF being 36%).

B)linked,45 map units apart (the RF being 45%).

C)unlinked,90 map units apart (the RF being 45%).

D)unlinked,96 map units apart (the RF being 48%).

E)unlinked,over 100 map units apart (the RF being 48%).

Q2) In a fungal cross \( a b * + + \) ,gene a is on chromosome 1 and gene b is on chromosome 6.It is known that the two loci are so closely linked to their centromeres that there is never any crossing over in either centromere to locus region.What proportion of linear tetrads will be:

a)M<sub>I</sub> M<sub>I</sub> PD?

b)M<sub>I</sub> M<sub>I</sub> NPD?

c)M<sub>I</sub> M<sub>II</sub> T?

d)M<sub>II</sub> M<sub>I</sub> T?

e)M<sub>II</sub> M<sub>II</sub> PD?

f)M<sub>II</sub> M<sub>II</sub> NPD?

g)M<sub>II</sub> M<sub>II</sub> T?

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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Auxotrophic mutations have been extremely useful to study a number of processes in E.coli.

a)Briefly define the term "auxotrophic."

b)Suppose you were given two unlabeled tubes,one that contains a methionine auxotroph and the other that contains a leucine auxotroph.Design an experiment to determine which auxotroph is found in each tube.

Q2) If two bacterial genes are very closely linked (less than one map unit apart),then their frequency of cotransduction will be:

A)less than 1%.

B)more than 1%,but no more than 25%.

C)between 25% and 50%.

D)between 50% and 75%.

E)very high,almost 100%.

Q3) The most commonly used phage characters in the study of phage inheritance are:

A)phage morphology and host morphology.

B)phage morphology and host range.

C)plaque morphology and host morphology.

D)plaque morphology and host range.

E)plaque morphology and phage morphology.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Gene Interaction

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Sample Questions

Q1) In sweet peas,the allele C is needed for color expression (c results in white).The precise color expressed is determined by the alleles R (red)and r (blue).A cross between certain red and blue plants resulted in progeny as follows: 3/8 red,3/8 blue,1/4 white.What were the genotypes of the plants crossed?

A)\ C/c;R/r \(\times\) C/C;R/R

B)C/c;R/r \(\times\) C/c;R/r

C)C/c;R/r \(\times\) C/c;r/r

D)C/c;R/r \(\times\) c/c;R/r

E)C/c;r/r \(\times\) C/C;R/r

Q2) In a certain breed of dog,the alleles B and b determine black and brown coats,respectively.However,the allele Q of an unlinked gene is epistatic to the B and b color alleles,resulting in a gray coat (q has no effect on color).If animals of genotype B/b;Q/q are intercrossed,what phenotypic ratio is expected in the progeny?

A)1 black,2 gray,1 brown

B)3 black,12,gray,1 brown

C)4 black,9 gray,3 brown

D)9 black,1 gray,6 brown

E)9 black,4 gray,3 brown

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Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spontaneous (though infrequent)change of a nitrogenous base to a slightly distinct form is called:

A)ketomerization.

B)tautomerization.

C)methylation.

D)mutagenesis.

E)proton exchange.

Q2) Chargaff's rules do NOT hold for which of the following genome types?

A)yeast

B)bacteria

C)single-stranded DNA virus

D)invertebrates

E)Archaeobacteria

Q3) Of the three key building blocks of DNA,which type(s)of building block is/are structurally different in RNA molecules?

A)phosphate

B)deoxyribose

C)nitrogenous bases

D)both deoxyribose and nitrogenous bases

E)All of the answer options are correct.

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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A key characteristic of bacterial RNAs that is not observed with eukaryotic RNAs is that:

A)transcription generates RNAs that contain both introns and exons.

B)transcription can occur in the same cellular region as translation.

C)a prerequisite for translation initiation is RNA processing.

D)the genetic code used by bacteria is different from other organisms.

E)bacterial RNAs are generated as double stranded.

Q2) Pulse-chase experiments were vital for showing that RNA acts as an information-transfer intermediary between DNA and protein.Describe the basic steps of a pulse-chase experiment,and explain in your own words how the results suggested that RNA is the intermediate.

Q3) The role of tRNA is to:

A)serve as an intermediate in the decoding of genes.

B)act as transporters bringing amino acids to the site of protein synthesis.

C)serve as general translational components of the ribosome.

D)facilitate splicing of pre-messenger RNAs.

E)facilitate protein trafficking in protein secretion.

Q4) What are the three major classes of functional RNAs? Briefly describe the role of each class of functional RNA.

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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The use of proflavin-induced mutations (like FCO)in the rII genome was found to experimentally support a three-nucleotide explanation for the genetic code because:

A)an insertion mutation could be suppressed by a deletion mutation.

B)the rII genes are easier to mutate than other genes.

C)proflavin was an inexpensive mutagenic compound.

D)a gene with three insertions or three deletions could sometimes provide a functional protein.

E)the rII gene encoded a protein with exactly the correct number of amino acids,as would be explained by a three nucleotide genetic code.

Q2) Macrolides are antibiotics that kill bacteria by:

A)inhibiting tRNA charging.

B)releasing the protein before translation is complete.

C)blocking the exit tunnel for "empty tRNAs."

D)competing for tRNA binding in the "A site."

E)causing tRNAs to be destroyed.

Q3) Draw the general formula for an amino acid.What is it that distinguishes the 20 amino acids known to exist in proteins?

Q4) Describe the types of RNAs participating in translation.

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Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bacterial artificial chromosomes are comprised of:

A)components of the bacterial F plasmid and can carry large inserts (200,000 bp).

B)fosmid DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.

C)viral lambda DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.

D)a bacterial chromosome,with some artificial components.

E)recombinant proteins isolated from specific phage viruses.

Q2) The cDNA for a eukaryotic gene B is 900 nucleotide pairs long.A cDNA clone is used to isolate a genomic clone of gene B,and the gene is sequenced.From start to stop codon,the gene is found to be 1800 nucleotide pairs long.The most probable reason for the discrepancy is that:

A)the mRNA broke during cDNA synthesis.

B)the gene is present as a tandem duplication.

C)the gene has 900 nucleotide pairs of introns.

D)the genomic clone is not really gene B,just a related gene.

E)there was a sequencing error.

Q3) Human insulin can be made purer,and at a lower cost,using recombinant DNA technology.What sort of DNA clone might be ligated into a bacterial expression plasmid to be used in this strategy?

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12

Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase binds to the:

A)repressor gene.

B)promoter.

C)operator.

D)permease gene.

E)sugar lactose.

Q2) Which of the following is/are NOT part of the lac operon?

A)lacZ

B)lacI

C)lacY

D)lacA

E)All (lacZ,lacI,lacY,and lacA)are part of the lac operon.

Q3) The lac operon is controlled by:

A)the Lac repressor.

B)attenuation.

C)catabolite activator protein (CAP).

D)the Lac repressor and catabolite activator protein (CAP).

E)the Lac repressor and attenuation.

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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Regions of a chromosome that are packaged in less-condensed chromatin are known as:

A)homochromatin.

B)heterochromatin.

C)euchromatin.

D)epichromatin.

E)hyperchromatin.

Q2) The GAL4 enhancers are located _____ of the genes they regulate and are known as ______.

A)downstream;downstream activation sequences (DAS)

B)downstream;downstream enhancer sequences (DES)

C)upstream;upstream activation sequences (UAS)

D)upstream;upstream enhancer elements (UES)

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q3) Epigenetic inheritance is defined as the inheritance of:

A)nuclear DNA from one cell generation to the next.

B)extra-chromosomal DNA from one cell generation to the next.

C)mRNA from one cell generation to the next.

D)chromatin states from one cell generation to the next.

E)None of the answer options are correct.

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Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) A Drosophila researcher recently isolated a number of mutant fruit flies.The phenotype of each mutant is described below (i-iv).For each mutant,describe the type of gene (maternal-effect gene,gap gene,segment-polarity gene,or homeotic gene)that was most likely the cause of the altered phenotype.

(i)Homozygous mutant females appear phenotypically normal but produce larvae that have two posterior ends.

(ii)The flies contain four wings rather than two.

(iii)The wings are oriented backward.

(iv)The flies are missing two pairs of legs due to a shortened thoracic region.

Q2) In homeotic mutants:

A)one body structure is missing.

B)one body structure has been changed into another.

C)one body structure has been duplicated.

D)one body structure has significantly increased in size.

E)the organism is infertile.

Q3) A scientist working in a Drosophila lab locates a mutation in an organism that caused antenna to be transformed into legs.He determines that this is a homeotic transformation.Do you agree?

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Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pyrosequencing determines the nucleotide sequence because:

A)dideoxy nucleotides are incorporated into a growing DNA strand.

B)dideoxy nucleotides terminate the growing DNA strand.

C)PPi is incorporated into the growing DNA strand.

D)PPi is released from the growing DNA strand.

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q2) The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called a:

A)homology.

B)orthology.

C)heterology.

D)phylogeny.

E)synteny.

Q3) Which of the following is the most sensible order of techniques for mapping a chromosome and then locating a specific disease gene?

A)contig alignment;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis;chromosomal walking

B)chromosomal walking;contig alignment;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis

C)restriction mapping;chromosomal walking;contig alignment;RFLP linkage analysis

D)chromosomal walking;restriction mapping;RFLP linkage analysis;contig alignment

E)restriction mapping;contig alignment;RFLP linkage analysis;chromosomal walking

Q4) Describe the information content of a genome.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transposable elements that transpose via an RNA intermediate is known as:

A)class 1 elements.

B)class 2 elements.

C)class 3 elements.

D)alpha elements.

E)D elements.

Q2) A corn plant is homozygous for a mutant allele that results in no pigment in the seed (i.e.,white).The mutant is caused by Ds insertion that often exits late in seed development,when there is an active Ac element in the genome.The seeds of this plant will be:

A)no pigment (i.e. ,white).

B)pigmented all over.

C)white with small spots of pigment.

D)white with large spots of pigment.

E)weakly pigmented.

Q3) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.

Q4) Compare and contrast IS elements,simple transposons,and composite transposons.Use diagrams to help in the comparison.

Q5) a)What is the C-value paradox?

b)What is the explanation for the C-value paradox?

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) A partial peptide sequence for the wild type and three mutant alleles of a gene,PET1,are shown below.Each mutant was caused by a single point mutation.

\(\text { Wild type:\quad met \quad ile \quad arg \quad met \quad asp \quad lys \quad trp... }\)

\(\text { Mutant 1:\quad met \quad ile \quad gln \quad asn \quad gly ... }\)

\(\text {Mutant 2:\quad met \quad ile \quad arg \quad met \quad gly \quad lys \quad trp...}\)

\(\text {Mutant 3: \quad met \quad ile \quad ser \quad met \quad asp \quad lys \quad trp...}\)

a)Using the amino acid sequence of the wild type and the three mutants,deduce the exact DNA sequence of the coding strand of the wild-type allele.

b)What type of mutation (transition vs.transversion vs.indel;missense vs.nonsense vs.frameshift)has occurred in each mutant?

c)What consequence will each of the above-mentioned DNA mutations have on protein function?

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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assume that x is a new mutant allele in corn.An x/x plant is crossed with a triple-10 individual (trisomic for chromosome 10)carrying only normal dominant alleles at the x locus.Trisomic progeny for chromosome 10 are recovered and crossed back to x/x.

a)What ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes is expected if the x locus is not in chromosome 10?

b)What ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes is expected if the x locus is in chromosome 10?

Q2) A wild-type chromosome can be represented as ABC[*]DEFGH,and from this a chromosomal aberration arises that can be represented ABC[*]DEGFH,where [*] represents the centromere.This aberration is known as a: A)deletion.

B)duplication.

C)paracentric inversion.

D)pericentric inversion.

E)translocation.

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Chapter 18: Population Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Red hair (autosomal recessive)is found in approximately 4 percent of the people in Norway.If we assume that the Norwegian population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to hair color:

a)what are the frequencies of the red hair (r)and non-red hair (R)alleles?

b)what is the frequency of heterozygotes?

c)what proportion of all marriages could potentially have a child with red hair?

Q2) Sequencing of a pine tree population reveals four variants of a particular SNP.Eighty percent (80%)of the trees have the G,15% the A,3% the T,and 2% the C variant.What is the genetic diversity of the pine tree population with respect to this SNP?

A)0.007%

B)2.0%

C)33.6%

D)66.4%

E)80%

Q3) A recessive X-linked character appears in 40 percent of males and 16 percent of females in a randomly interbreeding population.Assume only two alleles are present.What are the allele frequencies? How many females are heterozygotes? How many males are heterozygotes?

Q4) How is the genetic composition of a population defined?

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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) When all of the variation in a population is due to environmental sources and there is no genetic variation,broad sense heritability (H<sup>2</sup>):

A)is zero and all of the phenotypic variability is due to loci at other locations.

B)is zero and all of the phenotypic variability is due to environment.

C)is some negative value indicating the phenotypic variability is due to some recessive loci.

D)is some positive value indicating the phenotypic variability is due to some dominant loci.

Q2) A large number of genetically identical tomato plants are grown in a greenhouse.The mean height in this plant population is 84 cm,and the standard deviation is 2.5 cm.The variation in height within this population is most likely due to:

A)a correlation between genotype and environment.

B)the difference between the greenhouse population mean and the whole population mean.

C)differences in the plants' microenvironment.

D)random genetic differences within the population.

E)the use of a nonrepresentative sample to compute the mean.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most genetic variation for many human loci lies within local populations rather than between populations or races.What does this observation tell you about human genetic evolution?

Q2) In southwestern Arizona,the melanocortin 1 receptor mutation-bearing mice (dark hair)are commonly found in:

A)rocky lava outcrops.

B)stream beds.

C)sandy desert regions.

D)mixed rodent populations.

E)high mountain regions.

Q3) The neutral theory of evolution proposed that most genetic mutations are functionally neutral or nearly neutral.Neutral mutations would be fixed in a population by:

A)natural selection.

B)random genetic drift.

C)balancing selection.

D)asexual reproduction.

E)the invariance of DNA.

Q4) Define the molecular clock.

Q5) Describe the relationship between overall DNA change and functional change.

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