

Molecular
Biology Question Bank
Course Introduction
Molecular Biology is the study of the molecular foundations of biological activity within and between cells, focusing on the structure, function, and interactions of biomolecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. This course covers key processes including DNA replication, transcription, translation, gene regulation, and the molecular mechanisms underlying cellular function and genetic inheritance. Students will gain an understanding of experimental techniques and tools used in molecular biology research, along with an exploration of current advances and applications in biotechnology, medicine, and genomics.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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26 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3802

Page 2

Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes that are specialized for energy production are called .
A)nuclei
B)lysosomes
C)Golgi complexes
D)mitochondria
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are eukaryotes,except . A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q3) According to the binomial naming system,the first word in the scientific name is the A)species
B)genus
C)domain
D)phylum
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sister chromatids occur following .
A)gamete fusion
B)cell division
C)transcription
D)replication
Answer: D
Q2) Gametes are and somatic cells are .
A)diploid;haploid
B)haploid;diploid
C)haploid;haploid
D)diploid;diploid
Answer: B
Q3) Sex-linked genes only affect male carriers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4

Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following are pyrimidines except .
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)cytosine
D)uracil
Answer: B
Q3) Given the following sequence,which of the following is the complementary DNA strand?
5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
A)5'-CCTAGAAACTG-3'
B)5'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
C)3'-GGATCTTTGAC-5'
D)3'-CAGTTTCTAGG-3'
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alu elements represent of the human genome.
A)less than 1%
B)4-5%
C)6-8%
D)more than 10%
Q2) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Q4) Topoisomerases .
A)are antibiotics that kill bacterial cells
B)bend DNA
C)change the level of supercoiling in DNA
D)repair DNA
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which wavelength do the bases of DNA and RNA nucleotides absorb the most light?
A)200 nm
B)260 nm
C)280 nm
D)300 nm
Q2) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q3) Which type of blotting uses antibodies to detect proteins on a membrane?
A)Southern blot
B)Northern blot
C)Western blot
D)South-Western blot
Q4) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must DNA be denatured during PCR?
A)DNA polymerases work best at higher temperatures.
B)Denaturing DNA separates the strands of DNA and allows primers to bind to complementary sequences.
C)The degraded DNA nucleotides are recycled during the synthesis step of PCR.
D)DNA does not need to be denatured for PCR to work.
Q2) Why is Escherichia coli DNA polymerase not very useful for PCR?
A)E.coli DNA polymerase cannot proofread during replication.
B)E.coli DNA polymerase only amplifies circular DNA.
C)E.coli DNA polymerase is heat labile.
D)E.coli DNA polymerase is too slow.
Q3) What is the function of the RNA primer during DNA synthesis?
A)DNA polymerase requires a 3' hydroxyl to initiate synthesis.
B)The primer helps the replication machinery find the origin of replication.
C)The primer is required for cleavage of the DNA to generate a loose end.
D)The primer signals DNA polymerase to terminate synthesis.
Q4) RNA can be synthesized in PCR if RNA polymerase and RNA nucleotides are used in place of DNA polymerase and DNA nucleotides,respectively.
A)True
B)False

Page 8
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase generates cDNA from a template.
A)DNA
B)transfer RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)cDNA
Q2) Why must a shuttle vector possess two origins of replication instead of one?
A)Shuttle vectors must replicate in multiple hosts with each host requiring a different origin.
B)Shuttle vectors must be able to replicate from two different origins of replication depending upon the specific growth conditions.
C)Shuttle vectors only have one origin of replication,not two.
D)Shuttle vectors use one origin for replication and the other origin for shuttling recombinant DNA into new hosts.
Q3) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
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9

Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q2) DNA moves across nanopore detectors because .
A)an electrical charge is applied
B)there is a high concentration of salt on one side of the channel
C)there is a difference in pH across the membrane
D)it is physically pulled across by enzymes
Q3) Which of the following is a method for detecting the addition of nucleotides in a sequencing reaction?
A)luminescence
B)fluorescence
C)changes in pH
D)all of the above
Q4) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eukaryotic cell lines,usually rodents,that contain chromosomal fragments from other eukaryotic species are called .
A)transfected hybrids
B)artificial chromosomes
C)radiation hybrids
D)STS/EST cell lines
Q2) The exon trapping method for determining eukaryotic coding sequences relies on A)flanking splice recognition sites,which are used during RNA processing B)complementary DNA that is produced prior to exon trapping C)both the promoter and polyA)tail recognition sequences
D)the presences of restriction enzyme recognition sequences
Q3) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
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11

Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many origins are replication are typical of bacterial circular chromosomes?
A)None.Bacterial chromosomes replicate by binary fission
B)1
C)2
D)Many.
Q2) Origins are replication are .
A)GC-rich
B)AT-rich
C)runs of adenine residues
D)heavily methylated
Q3) Replication is initiated at .
A)telomeres
B)centromeres
C)the origins are replication
D)the start of every gene
Q4) The process of does not use mitosis.
A)gamete formation
B)embryogenesis
C)asexual reproduction
D)tissue repair/wound healing
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase binds to the . A)-10 and -35 sites
B)enhancer
C)RNA
D)+1
Q2) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q3) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which modified nucleotide base is part of the 5' cap on eukaryotic mRNAs?
A)cytosine
B)guanine
C)adenine
D)uracil
Q2) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Primary transcripts are in the final form for translation into protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Multiple messenger RNAs can be generated from the same gene by selecting A)an alternative promoter when available
B)a different location for the addition of the polyA)tail
C)and splicing different exon cassettes
D)all of the above
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of RNA are never translated?
A)tRNA and rRNA
B)mRNA only
C)tRNA and mRNA
D)all types of RNA are translated
Q2) The enzyme that links the appropriate amino acid to the acceptor stem of specific tRNAs is called .
A)aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B)ribosomes
C)ribozymes
D)ribonuclease P
Q3) How many different types of amino acids are there in proteins?
A)1
B)3
C)20
D)50
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polar amino acids are hydrophilic and would be located on the exterior of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When a single polypeptide chain is coiled and held together by hydrogen bonds,this is called aan) and occurs in the structure of proteins.
A)beta sheet;secondary
B)alpha helix;secondary
C)beta sheet;tertiary
D)alpha helix;tertiary
Q3) The tertiary structure of proteins is primarily maintained by . A)hydrogen bonds
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrophobic interactions
D)disulfide bonds
Q4) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are appropriate methods for investigating protein-protein interactions except .
A)mass spectrometry
B)two hybrid analysis
C)electrophoretic mobility shift assays
D)co-immunoprecipitation
Q2) What is the proteome?
A)The total set of proteins in the cell at any given point.
B)The number of genes that are expressed in a specific growth condition.
C)The total set of proteins encoded by the organism's genome.
D)The number of expressed genes.
Q3) Proteins microarrays .
A)are used to investigate protein-protein interactions
B)are used to determine enzymatic activity
C)help determine the binding of DNA or RNA to protein
D)all of the above
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of negative regulation?
A)A gene is switched on in the presence of an activator.
B)A gene is de-repressed.
C)A gene is induced.
D)A gene is switched off by a repressor protein.
Q2) Transcriptional elements that bind to a DNA molecule where the gene they regulate is located are .
A)trans-acting elements
B)cis-acting elements
C)positive regulators
D)negative regulators
Q3) All of the following are examples of transcriptional regulation in prokaryotes except
A)binding of a repressor to an operator
B)premature termination of RNA polymerase during transcription elongation
C)binding of cAMP-CRP complex to the lac operon of Escherichia coli
D)over-riding termination by anti-terminator proteins
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is commonly used as a control point in eukaryotic transcription?
A)initiation
B)elongation
C)termination
D)RNA processing
Q2) Housekeeping genes are always .
A)off until needed
B)on
C)induced
D)repressed
Q3) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacteria, the system destroys incoming viral DNA and RNA.
A)RISC
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)CRISPR
Q2) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called .
A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q3) RNA interference occurs in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which nuclease is responsible for generating siRNA?
A)Ribonuclease P
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)RISC
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
Q2) A specific mRNA may be detected using hybridization.
A)Southern
B)Western
C)Northern
D)Southwestern
Q3) Which of the following techniques would not be useful for determining the number of mRNA copies present in a cell?
A)SAGE
B)DNA microarrays
C)Quantitative PCR
D)Primer extension
Q4) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q4) Which of the following might be plasmid-encoded?
A)toxins
B)antibiotic resistance
C)plant hormones
D)all of the above
Q5) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The early genes of viruses are transcribed by .
A)host RNA polymerase
B)viral RNA polymerase
C)DNA polymerase
D)rolling circle replication
Q2) Enveloped viruses only infect .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)yeast
Q3) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
Q4) Viral protein coats are called .
A)capsomeres
B)envelopes
C)capsids
D)cloaks
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Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any DNA or RNA molecule that has an origin of replication is called a A)mobile element
B)transposon
C)replicon
D)integron
Q2) All transposons have all of the following characteristics except .
A)the gene for transposase
B)inverted repeats
C)resolvase
D)antibiotic resistance genes
Q3) Defective copies of transposable elements that are found in genomes are called A)junk DNA
B)transposable elements
C)retrotransposons
D)introns
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24
Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonsense mutations occur when is introduced into the coding sequence of
A)a start codon
B)a stop codon
C)a deletion
D)an insertion
Q2) Terotogenic agents .
A)generate reversions
B)always causes mutations
C)are always carcinogenic
D)have known effects on developing embryos
Q3) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
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25

Chapter 24: Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following proteins is required for lambda integration in the genome of Escherichia coli?
A)transposase
B)resolvase
C)Int protein
D)Xis protein
Q2) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q3) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Homologous recombination is .
A)the exchange of DNA between similar sequences
B)the exchange of DNA between dissimilar sequences
C)the formation of a heteroduplex
D)the removal of a holiday junction
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uptake of naked DNA from the environment is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q2) Hfr strains have an integrated .
A)F plasmid
B)R plasmid
C)prophage
D)lysogen
Q3) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
Q4) In order for cells to take up naked DNA,they must be .
A)dead
B)actively replicating
C)competent
D)weak

Page 27
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q2) Life likely evolved under .
A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
Q3) The African Eve hypothesis is based on .
A)Y chromosome analysis
B)identification of junk DNA sequences
C)mitochondrial DNA sequences
D)ribosomal RNA sequencing
Q4) Recent evolutionary changes are easier to identify from .
A)DNA with slow mutation rates
B)DNA with high mutation rates
C)ribosomal RNA sequences
D)Y chromosomes

28
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