Course Introduction
Molecular Biology Practice Questions
Molecular Biology explores the structure and function of biological macromolecules essential to life, such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. This course delves into the molecular mechanisms underlying genetic information flow, gene expression, and regulation, emphasizing current experimental techniques and research developments. Students will gain an understanding of DNA replication, transcription, translation, and the control of gene activity, as well as applications in biotechnology and medicine. Through lectures, laboratory work, and analysis of scientific literature, the course prepares students to interpret molecular data and critically evaluate advances in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was a result of the eugenics movement in the United States?
A) Individuals thought to be unfit were sterilized.
B) Immigration from Itally was curtailed.
C) Individuals with desirable traits were encouraged to have large families.
D) Contests were held to determine the most fit families.
E) All of these were a result of the eugenics movement in the United States.
Answer: E
Q2) The decline of the eugenics movement in the U.S. in the early 20th century resulted from ____.
A) its misuse for social and political purposes by the Nazis
B) the lack of knowledge of the cell theory
C) the lack of understanding of natural selection
D) the idea that most human traits are controlled by single genes
E) all of these
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) In meiosis, when do cells become haploid?
A) After telophase I
B) After telophase II
C) During anaphase I
D) During anaphase II
E) After prophase II
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following genetic diseases involve defects in DNA repair, which affects cell division?
A) Gaucher disease and Werner syndrome
B) Kearns-Sayre syndrome and progeria
C) Progeria and Werner syndrome
D) Gaucher disease and cystic fibrosis
E) Progeria and Werner syndrome.
Answer: E
Q3) There are 92 chromosomes in a normal human cell undergoing mitosis at the anaphase stage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cross involving incomplete dominance _____.
A) the dominant phenotype is expressed in the F1
B) the recessive phenotype is expressed in the F1
C) Mendelian inheritance does not apply
D) the phenotypic ratio and genotypic ratio in the F2 are identical
E) heterozygotes have a phenotype like one of the parents
Answer: D
Q2) In a cross between a true-breeding plant bearing smooth, yellow seeds and a true-breeding plant with wrinkled, green seeds, the offspring were all smooth and yellow. What is the genotype of the F plants?
A) SSYY
B) ssyy
C) SsYy
D) ssYY
E) SSyy
Answer: C
Q3) In pedigrees, a male individual is symbolized as a ____________________.
Answer: square
Q4) The genetic recombination event discovered by Mendel is _______ .
Answer: independent assortment
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Valeria has a serious disorder called fragile X syndrome and her brother does not have the disorder. Her mother does not have the disorder but her father does. What is the most likely inheritance pattern for fragile X syndrome?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive
E) Y-linked recessive
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT usually a symptom of cystic fibrosis?
A) Low fertility or infertility
B) Frequent respiratory infections
C) Difficulty breathing
D) Loss of pancreatic function
E) Problems with hearing and vision
Q3) When affected males produce all affected daughters and no affected sons, the genetic disease is likely to be ____________________.
Q4) Adults who have children who have died from lethal recessive disorders are most likely ____________________.
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6
Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of nutrition in the improvement of spina bifida is an example of a _____ effect.
A) cumulative
B) polygenic
C) epigenetic
D) penetrative
E) phenotypic
Q2) Using a large poster board, construct a Punnet Square involving three genes for skin color. One of the parents is completely dominant for all three genes and the other parent is completely recessive for all three genes. Then construct a graph of the number of offspring (y-axis) versus phenotype (skin color from lightest to darkest on the x-axis).
Q3) The multifactorial threshold model is helpful in genetic counseling to predict recurrence risks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All multifactorial traits are polygenic but the reverse is not true.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the factors responsible for regression to the mean.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the chromosomal constitution of the four cells of meiosis if a nondisjunction event occurred in Anaphase II.
Q2) Amniocentesis is typically not perfomed on mothers over the age of 35.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pattern of G-bands on each member of a homologous pair of chromosomes is usually different.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Show how the frequencies of many chromosome abnormalities are different in newborns than they are in fetuses.
Q5) Characterize the frequency of changes in chromosome number in humans.
A) Close to half of all conceptions are aneuploid.
B) They are a major cause of reproductive failure.
C) The frequency is significantly higher than it is in closely-related animals.
D) All of these.
E) None of these.
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Q6) In general, how do sex chromosome aneuploidies differ from autosomal aneuploidies?
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sex ratio of humans at conception is different from the sex ratio at birth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Guidelines for the assignment of sex for an individual include
A) karyotype results.
B) the presence of ovaries or testes.
C) the presence of penis or clitoris.
D) karyotype results and the presence of ovaries or testes.
E) the presence of ovaries or testes and the presence of a penis or clitoris.
Q3) It would be possible for a Klinefelter (XXY) cat to have tortoise shell color.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The leading preventable cause of birth defects is exposure of the fetus to:
A) X-rays.
B) cigarette smoke.
C) alcohol.
D) the herpes virus.
E) mercury.
Q5) Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is the result of ____________________.
Page 9
Q6) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism.
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication occurs during cytokinesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytosine and thymine are the two types of bases found in DNA known as ______________________.
Q3) RNA differs from DNA in
A) its single-stranded nature.
B) the type of sugar found in the nucleotide.
C) the types of pyrimidine bases.
D) the type of sugar found in the nucleotide, the types of pyrimidine bases, and its single-stranded nature.
E) the types of pyrimidine bases and its single-stranded nature only.
Q4) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
Q5) After replication of a DNA molecule is completed, two molecules are present: the original DNA and a newly synthesized DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the chemical composition and structure of DNA.
Q7) DNA is made up of a linear array of ____________________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetracyclines interfere with the process of ____________.
A) DNA replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) protein folding
E) transformation
Q2) Prions cause disease by changing the way proteins ____________________.
Q3) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by an error in ____________.
A) DNA replication
B) translation
C) transcription
D) protein folding
E) the genetic code
Q4) After RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence and causes the adjacent double-strand DNA to unwind, only one strand can be used as the template for RNA formation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happens to human mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?
Q6) In a normal prion, most of the folding pattern is ____________.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Results from the study of globin variants indicate that
A) all amino acid substitutions cause severe phenotypic effects.
B) the alteration of one amino acid can cause a genetic disease.
C) extended chains do not function to carry oxygen.
D) all mutations in globin are caused by changes in amino acids.
E) none of these is indicated.
Q2) Paraoxonase converts the insecticide ____________________ into a toxic substance called paraoxon.
Q3) Garrod called enzyme defects ____________________.
Q4) Show how the environment, extrauterine and intrauterine factors can influence the expression of PKU.
Q5) There are no mandatory screening programs for genetic defects such as PKU and galactosemia in newborns.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Some success has been achieved in efforts to treat sickle cell disease by the process of ____________________.
Q7) The drug used to treat sickle cell anemia that causes elevated levels of fetal hemoglobin is ____________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis may have different levels of severity of the disease.
Q2) Genomic imprinting is caused by epigenetic changes to DNA
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fragile-X syndrome is an example of a genetic condition caused by a frameshift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three ways that DNA mutations can alter the protein product.
Q5) For the average person in the U.S., the largest source of radiation exposure is A) background radiation.
B) medical X-rays.
C) irradiated food.
D) consumer products.
E) remote-controlled devices.
Q6) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a cell stops dividing by mitosis, at which stage of the cell cycle does it stop?
A) G1
B) S
C) G2
D) Mitosis
E) Cytokinesis
Q2) Individuals have different ____________________ to environmental agents that cause cancer.
Q3) The discovery of the nature of the Philadelphia chromosome in myelogenous leukemia represents
A) a chromosome aberration that is secondary to the cancer.
B) an aberration that is caused by the development of cancer.
C) a translocation that is a chance event.
D) a specific chromosome aberration accompanying a specific cancer.
E) evidence of exposure to chemical carcinogens.
Q4) The genetic model of colon cancer states that development of colo-rectal cancer requires only one key mutation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In gel electrophoresis, what causes the DNA fragments to migrate?
A) Gravity
B) Vibrations
C) Electrical charge
D) Magnetic attraction
E) Centrifugal force
Q2) In the DNA sequencing procedure, each of the four nucleotides is distinguished from the others by
A) its molecular size.
B) its position on a gel.
C) its chemical properties.
D) the color of a fluorescent dye attached to it.
E) how much of it is present.
Q3) In recombinant DNA techniques, primers and DNA fragments are linked together by
A) restriction enzymes
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) DNA replicase
E) reverse transcriptase
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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53 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is
Q2) DNA tests on remains thought to be those of Czar Nicholas Romanov II of Russia proved the remains were his.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common use of DNA evidence in legal proceedings is ____________________.
Q4) Mutations at the cutting site of restriction enzymes always lead to shorter fragments. A)True
B)False
Q5) Once a gene has been cloned, it can be used for A) disease diagnosis.
B) detecting heterozygotes in the population.
C) making biosynthetic products for commercial use.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
Q6) Why might plants or animals, rather than bacteria, be chosen to produce human gene products?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is some of the important or useful information that can be gained from proteomics that is not available from genomics?
Q2) The Human Genome Project was responsible for discovery of a new class of mutation, the ____________________.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a role of proteomics in research?
A) Understanding gene function.
B) Identifying proteins that are markers for disease.
C) Understanding how genes function in development and aging.
D) Finding proteins that are targets for drugs to treat diseases.
E) Mapping the location of genes on chromosomes.
Q4) The term open reading frame (ORF) corresponds to the parts of genes called ____________________.
Q5) A method used to link genetic markers with specific genes on chromosomes is called _____________.
Q6) How has information technology and computing become indispensable for genomics?
Q7) It has long been noted that organisms such as humans, considered among the most complex of all organisms, have fewer genes and less DNA than some "simpler" organisms. Explain how a species can be more complex than another even though it possesses fewer genes.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most specific and sensitive method for detecting genetic defects in an embryo is
A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) PGD
D) karytotyping
E) recombinant DNA techniques
Q2) About what portion of all couples are affected by infertility?
A) Fewer than 1 percent
B) About 3 percent
C) About 8 percent
D) About 13 percent
E) Over 20 percent
Q3) It is argued that genetic testing can be used to hold down costs for insurance and in employee liability. Should mandatory genetic testing be used as a condition for employment or insurance? Why or why not?
Q4) The most common reason for infertility in women that can be overcome by IVF is
Q5) Explain why PKU is a model disease for newborn screening programs.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juvenile diabetes results when insulin producing cells in the pancreas are destroyed by the patient's own immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In humans, the immune system is relatively undeveloped at birth, and immunocompetence (ability to mount an immune response) develops thereafter, yet newborns have circulating antibodies. Where do these come from? Is the post-natal development of the immune system an advantage or disadvantage? Why or why not?
Q3) Which of the following blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) All of these blood types are safe to transfuse to O blood types
Q4) How can hemolytic disease of the newborn be prevented?
Q5) A person with blood group A has both A and B type antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) T cells become mature, programmed cells in the _______________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lesions in the brains of people with Alzheimer disease are caused by a protein fragment called ___________________.
Q2) Studies of CNVs (copy number variations) reveal that schizophrenia and autism may be ______________.
A) the same disorder
B) opposite faces of the same disorder
C) always inherited together
D) linked to bipolar disorder
E) X-linked dominant disorders
Q3) Give evidence that might prove that human personality could be partially inherited.
Q4) Which of the following conditions is best described by a polygenic model?
A) Huntington disease
B) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C) Schizophrenia
D) Fragile-X syndrome
E) More than one of these
Q5) All behavioral traits have an early onset.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying the Hardy-Weinberg law to a gene with dominant and recessive alleles, calculation of the allele frequencies always begins by writing the frequency of the ____________________ phenotype, then taking the ____________________ of that to obtain the frequency of the recessive allele.
Q2) In areas where malaria is endemic, sickle cell disease heterozygote carriers are less fit than individuals homozygous for the normal allele.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Outline the assumptions made in establishing the Hardy-Weinberg law.
Q4) Genetic drift is a random process that can change the genetic structure of a population.
A)True B)False
Q5) In a large population on a Pacific island, a few individuals had a mutation that caused them to have different colored eyes. After a hurricane, the population was reduced to only a few individuals, but some of those individuals had the rare eye color mutation. Now, after many generations, almost half of the population on this island has different colored eyes. This is an example of _____________.
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