Molecular Biology
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Course Introduction
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that govern the structure, function, and regulation of genetic material in living organisms. This course covers the fundamental processes of DNA replication, transcription, and translation, as well as gene expression, regulation, and mutation. Students will also study molecular techniques, such as PCR and gel electrophoresis, and examine the role of proteins and nucleic acids in cellular processes. By integrating current advances in molecular genetics and biotechnology, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of the molecular basis of life and its applications in medicine, agriculture, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Q1) The study of which group of viruses led to the discovery of cellular genes that can promoter cancer in animal cells?
A) papillomaviruses
B) retroviruses
C) adneoviruses
D) polyomaviruses
E) picornaviruses
Answer: B
Q2) If the genome of a positive-strand RNA virus, which has been purified away from all of the virion proteins, was injected into the cytoplasm of an appropriate host cell, what would happen first?
A) The genome would be copied into complementary negative RNA.
B) The genome would be translated by cellular ribosome's.
C) The genome would be transcribed by a cellular RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase.
D) The genome would be transcribed by a viral RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerase.
E) None of the above.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) Which of the following is a description of a scaffolding protein?
A) A cellular protein that acts as a chaperone during assembly of a helical capsid.
B) A viral protein that is used on the outside of an icosahedral capsid during assembly.
C) A viral protein used on the inside of an icosahedral capsid during assembly and then removed.
D) A protease that trims the proteins during assembly of an icosahedral capsid.
E) A energy dependent motor used to package the genome into larger icosahedral capsids.
Answer: C
Q2) A scaffolding protein is important for assembly of an icosahedral capsid ..
A) but does not bind to the viral genome.
B) but does not become part of the final virion.
C) and helps to cut the genome into unit lengths.
D) and binds to the host cell receptor.
E) and assists the virion in exiting the host cell.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following virus families have the ability to synthesize reverse transcriptase?
A) Retroviruses
B) Caulimoviruses
C) Hepadnaviruses
D) None of the above are correct.
E) All of the above are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Viroids do not require a helper virus in order to replicate and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) According to the RNA World hypothesis, which of the following subcellular entities may have evolved first?
A) Retroviruses
B) RNA Viruses
C) Viroids
D) DNA Viruses
E) Bacteriophages
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) Which of the following organelles is used as a sorting and recycling station in the receptor mediated endocytosis pathway?
A) Early endosome.
B) Clatherin-coated vesicle.
C) Lysosome.
D) Golgi apparatus.
E) Caveolae
Q2) A soluble form of the CD4 protein was once investigated as a treatment for HIV infection.How would this protein work to block infection.
A) It would raise the pH of the endosome and prevent activation of the fusion protein.
B) It would bind to the cell membrane and prevent fusion of the HIV virion with the plasma membrane.
C) It would interact with the host cell receptor and prevent binding by the virion glycoproetin.
D) It would interact with the HIV envelope glycoprotein and block its interaction with the host cell receptor.
E) It would inhibit entry of the viral genome into the cell nucleus.
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) Which of the following genes from the ssRNA phage MS2 is translated immediately upon entry of the viral genome into the host cell?
A) Maturation protein gene
B) Lysis protein gene
C) Coat protein gene
D) Replicase gene
E) A1 gene
Q2) The translation of the maturation protein from a newly synthesized positive strand genome in the phage MS2 depends on delayed folding of the RNA into its final secondary structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Replication and translation can occur simultaneously on a single molecule of genomic RNA from the ssRNA phage MS2.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The RNA phages do not use a tail assembly to inject their genome through the cell wall of the host cell.How do they get their genome into the host cell?
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the first step in the replication cycle of the phage X174?
A) Conversion of ssDNA into dsDNA.
B) Translation of the viral genome into protein.
C) Transcription of the viral DNA by the cellular RNA polymerase.
D) Transcription of the viral DNA by the viral RNA polymerase.
E) Integration of the viral DNA into the host chromosome.
Q2) Microviruses are the only known non-satellite viruses requiring two separate scaffolding proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stage I DNA replication in the bacteriophage X174 is carried out entirely by host cell proteins.Why?
A) DNA replication is required for penetration of the viral genome into the host cell.
B) The bacteriophage X174 does not encode any of its own DNA replication proteins.
C) The phage genome has become integrated into the host genome.
D) Only the host cell proteins can replicate a ssDNA genome.
E) Stage I DNA replication occurs before any viral proteins are expressed.
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) The removal of the RNA primer leaves a gap in the newly synthesized viral genomic DNA.How does the bacteriophage T7 solve this problem?
Q2) How does the bacteriophage T7 inhibit the host cell RNA polymerase and why is this advantageous to the virus?
Q3) The bacteriophage T7 produces a protein with an array of acidic amino acids that acts as a DNA mimic.Which of the following describes the function of this protein?
A) It competitively inhibits the host restriction endonucleases.
B) It binds to the viral genome and helps to package it into the head.
C) It acts as a primer for DNA replication.
D) It assists the entry of the viral genome into the host cell.
E) It binds to the host cell RNA polymerase and directs it to transcribe viral genes.
Q4) The genome of the bacteriophage T7 has circularly permuted ends.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how the RNA polymerase from bacteriophage T7, along with specific DNA sequences taken from the late T7 genes, can be used to produce high levels of a foreign protein in a bacterial cell.
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Q1) The Q protein from phage activates expression of head and tail genes using which of the following mechanisms?
A) It causes anti-termination at the transcriptional terminator t<sub>L</sub>1
B) It activates transcription from P<sub>R</sub>'.
C) It causes anti-termination at the transcriptional terminator t<sub>R</sub>'.
D) It inhibits activity of the N protein.
E) It inhibits the activity of the cI repressor.
Q2) When bacterial cells that have an integrated prophage in their genomes are treated with UV light, it leads to cleavage of the cI repressor.Which of the following host cell proteins activates the autoprotease activity of the cI repressor?
A) DNA excision repair enzyme
B) LexA
C) RecA
D) GroES
E) Exonuclease III
Q3) CRISPR elements are places in the bacterial chromosome where phage genomes integrate during lysogeny.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Archaea are singled-celled microorganisms that share which of the following characteristics with eukaryotic cells?
A) Initiate translation of proteins with a methionine, not N-formyl-methionine.
B) Contain histone-like proteins to condense their genomic DNA.
C) Use a TATA-binding protein to initiate transcription of their genes.
D) Have similar enzymes involved in DNA replication .
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Even though many of the viruses that infect archaeal cells do not kill their host, they often do which of the following?
A) Shut down host protein synthesis
B) Increase the cell doubling time
C) Decrease the cell doubling time
D) Shut down genome replication
E) Inhibit synthesis of host cell membranes
Q3) Most archaea viruses resemble bacteriophages with an icosahedral head and a helical tail.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) Which of the following has been used as a system to study brome mosaic virus replication?
A) Bacterial cells
B) Yeast cells
C) Insect cells
D) Animal cells
E) Human cells
Q2) Which of the following statements about cucumber mosaic virus is FALSE?
A) It has an enveloped helical nucleocapsid.
B) It has a wide range of host species that it can infect.
C) Its genome is composed of positive-strand RNA.
D) It is transmitted by aphids.
E) It can cause asymptomatic infections in some plants.
Q3) The methyltransferase domain of the polymerase subunit 1a in the cucumber mosaic virus is responsible for doing with of the following?
A) Separating strands of the viral RNA during replication.
B) Replicating the viral genome.
C) Adding the 5' cap to the viral RNA genome segments.
D) Movement of the viral genome through the plasmodesmata.
E) Inhibiting host ribonucleases.
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Q1) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase from picornaviruses does not require a primer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Picornaviruses cause cytopathic effects in infected host cells by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Inhibiting cap-dependent translation of mRNAs.
B) Degrading cellular DNA.
C) Inhibiting intracellular transport from the ER to the Golgi.
D) Cleaving histone H3 protein.
E) Inhibiting host cell mRNA synthesis.
Q3) The VPg protein from picornaviruses has which of the following function?
A) It acts as a primer for RNA synthesis.
B) It is the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) It is the protease the cleaves the viral polyprotein.
D) It induces the formation of cellular membranes.
E) It packages the viral genome into capsids.
Q4) Poliovirus virions enter cells through a pH independent mechanism at the cell surface, which is an unusual pathway for a naked virion.Describe the entry mechanism and explain why this is this important for a virus that uses the oral-fecal transmission route?
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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the phenomenon of antibody-dependent enhancement?
A) Antibodies bound to a flavivirus particle allows entry into a cell via the Fc receptor.
B) Antibodies bound to the host cell receptor make it unable to bind a flavivirus particle.
C) Antibodies bound to infected cells cause the immune system to kill them.
D) Antibodies bound to a flavivirus particle allow it to be removed by the immune system.
E) The overproduction of antibodies during a flavivirus infection
Q2) Since flaviviruses replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they do not need to encode a methyltransferase enzyme to produce the 5' cap on the viral genomic RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once the West Nile Virus became endemic in the United States, 20% of the population has seroconverted to the virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) Infection of vertebrate cells with a togavirus does not cause cytopathic effects but leads to a persistent infection instead.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The togaviruses have their non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end of the viral genome while the picornaviruses and the flaviviruses have the non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end.Explain how this difference is important in the replication cycle of the togaviruses.
Q3) The subgenomic mRNA from togaviruses is synthesized from a subgenomic negative-strand RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following components of the togavirus virion bind to the host cell receptor?
A) Lipid envelope
B) Capsid protein
C) HA protein
D) E1 glycoprotein
E) E2 glycoprotein
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following coronavirus proteins is responsible for virus entry and is the primary determinant of host range?
A) Spike (S) protein
B) Envelope (E) protein
C) Membrane (M) protein
D) Hemagglutinin-Esterase (HE) protein
E) Nucleocapsid (N) protein
Q2) The complex RNA structure called a pseudoknot in the genome of coronaviruses is involved in which of the following processes?
A) Translation initiation of the nonstructural proteins.
B) Translation initiation of the structural proteins.
C) Replication of the positive strange genomes.
D) Packaging of the genome into the capsid.
E) Ribosomal frameshifting from ORF1a to ORF1b.
Q3) Coronaviruses have the longest RNA genome of any known virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about paramyxoviruses is FALSE?
A) The N protein can bind to a variable number of nucleotides in the genome.
B) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase is a virion protein.
C) Every protein coded for in the genome is packaged into the virion
D) The N protein protects the genome from ribonuclease digestion.
E) Naked genome-length RNA is never found within the cell.
Q2) Synthesis of mRNAs in paramyxoviruses occurs through a single-entry mechanism, which is where the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase can only start transcription from the 3' end of the genome.Which of the following is a consequence of this mechanism?
A) More negative-strand genomes are produced than positive-strand antigenomes.
B) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase binds to both end of the genome for genome replication
C) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase binds to both ends of the genome for transcription
D) More mRNA is produced from the coding regions at the 5' end of the genome.
E) More mRNA is produced from the coding regions at the 3' end of the genome.
Q3) Describe two major differences between transcription and genome replication in paramyxoviruses.
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) Budding of Ebola virus particles occurs at sites on the plasma membrane where which of the following is present?
A) Insertion of viral glycoproteins in the cell membrane.
B) Binding of the matrix protein with the cytoplasmic face of the cell membrane.
C) High concentrations of the host cell receptor.
D) Lower concentrations of phospholipids.
E) Where both glycoproteins and matrix protein are located.
Q2) Which of the following describes one of the important roles for the VP30 protein of Ebola virus?
A) Activation of mRNA synthesis.
B) Assembly of enveloped virions.
C) Packaging of the viral genomic RNA.
D) Binding to the host cell receptor.
Q3) All of the following describe a feature of the pathogenesis of the filoviruses EXCEPT ..
A) Induction of immunosuppression.
B) Infection of macrophages and monocytes.
C) Increased endothelial permeability.
D) Induction of cytokine release.
E) Problems with motor neurons and movement.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes an interesting feature of the envelope glycoproteins from bunyaviruses?
A) They are exported out to the plasma membrane of the cell.
B) They are retained in the Golgi membrane.
C) They are not glycosylated.
D) They are cleaved into three segments.
E) 80% of the proteins made are secreted out of the cell.
Q2) Synthesis of the positive-strand antigenome of bunyaviruses uses the same capped primer as the synthesis of the mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bunyavirus mRNAs can be translated while they are still being transcribed by the viral RNA polymerase.Why has this been shown to be important for this group of viruses?
A) Transcription prevents premature termination of translation.
B) Translation prevents premature termination of transcription.
C) It allows the virus to use attenuation as a regulatory mechanism.
D) The virus can translate the structural protein on the rough ER ribosomes.
E) It prevents cellular ribosomes from translating cellular mRNAs.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) Influenza is unusual for an RNA virus because it replicates in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What function does the neuraminidase protein of influenza virus carry out?
A) It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell.
B) It helps release virions from virus producing cells.
C) It is involved in the glycosylation process of the NA protein.
D) It cleaves the HA protein into two functional domains.
E) It helps the virus evade the immune system.
Q3) Which of the following describes a difference between transcription and genome replication in the influenza virus?
A) Transcription requires the PB2 protein while genome replication does not.
B) Transcription produces a shorter positive strand mRNA while replication produces a full-length antigenome.
C) Transcription produces a poly(A) tail at the 3' end of the viral mRNA while genome replication does not.
D) Transcription requires a primer derived from a cellular pre-mRNA while genome replication does not.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms explain how reovirus mRNAs acquire their poly(A)tail?
A) They do not have poly(A) tails but use other sequences to functionally substitute.
B) Cellular enzymes add the poly(A) tail
C) Viral enzymes in the virion core add the poly(A) tail.
D) The encode a poly(A) tail in each genome segment.
E) The RNA polymerase stutters at a poly(U) region at the end of each genome segment.
Q2) Reoviruses use double-strand RNA to encode their genome.Why is this a problem for a virus that infects mammalian cells and how does the virus prevent this problem?
Q3) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase of reoviruses is released into the cytoplasm along with the double-strand RNA segments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The human pathogenic virus, rotavirus, is a member of the reovirus family and causes severe diarrhea in children.Describe the adaptations that rotavirus virions have which allow them to survive the human gastrointestinal tract.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following viral proteins is responsible for the integration of the genome of the parvovirus adeno-associate virus into the host chromosome?
A) Rep40
B) Rep78
C) VP1
D) VP2
E) integrase
Q2) The problem with replicating the ends of linear DNA is due to which of the following?
A) That DNA polymerase does not require a pre-existing primer.
B) The removal of the primer from the 3' end of the new DNA strand.
C) The removal of the primer from the 5' end of the new DNA strand.
D) That the primer is composed of RNA rather than DNA.
E) That DNA polymerases can not synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3' direction.
Q3) The parvovirus genome must first be converted to double-stranded DNA before it can be transcribed into mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) Polyomaviruses are a major infectious cause of human cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nuclear localization signal on which of the following proteins directs the SV40 genome into the nucleus of the infected cell?
A) Importin
B) VP1
C) VP2
D) Histone 2A
E) Large T antigen
Q3) The large T antigen of SV40 is a highly multifunctional protein.Describe three of the most important functions that this protein has in regulating the infection of a host cell with SV40.
Q4) SV40 will only transform cells which are nonpermissive for productive viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) While SV40 can not cause tumors in monkeys or humans, it can transform rodent cells.Explain the molecular mechanisms that cause this to happen.
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Mutations in the p53 gene are seen in over 50% of human tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The currently available HPV vaccines contain virus-like particles composed of which of the following?
A) L1 protein alone
B) L1 protein and viral DNA
C) L1 and L2 proteins.
D) L1 and L2 proteins and viral DNA.
E) E6 and E7 proteins.
Q3) When the late promoter of papillomaviruses is activated, it increases production of the E1 and E2 proteins.Which of the following explains why an increase in these two proteins would contribute to vegetative replication of the virus?
A) They repress transcription for the early promoter.
B) They can cause the keratinocytes to become differentiated.
C) They initiate DNA replication of the viral genome.
D) They interact with the cellular protein pRb.
E) They interact with the cellular protein p53
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) Binding of histone deacetylases to the promoters of genes leads to activation of transcription from that promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adenovirus virions are composed of which of the following components?
A) Hexons composed of trimers of the hexon protein.
B) Penton bases composed of five copies of the penton protein.
C) Penton fibers composed of trimers of polypeptide IV.
D) Basic polypeptides bound to the viral DNA.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) A strain of adenovirus, called ONYX-015, that does not express the E1B 55K protein, is being studied as a treatment for cancer.Why does the lack of E1B 55K allows this virus to spread and kill cancer cells but not normal cells?
Q4) The unique 5' cap and 3' poly(A)tail in the late transcripts of adenovirus allow the ribosome to begin translation at the correct start codon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) The symptoms of mononucleosis, which include an enlarged spleen and fatigue, are caused by the expansion of infected B lymphocytes soon after primary infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following viral glycoproteins from herpes simplex virus are involved with fusion of the envelope with the cellular plasma membrane?
A) gH and gL
B) gB
C) gC
D) gD
E) All of the above.
Q3) What is unusual about the structure of the genome of herpes simplex virus?
A) It is a covalently closed circle.
B) It has two unique sequences flanked by inverted repeats
C) It has one long unique sequence flanked by terminal repeats.
D) It is linear with a terminal protein bound to each of the 5' ends.
E) It consists of two DNA segments.
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Treatment of baculovirus infected cells with the toxin a-amanitin, which inhibits RNA polymerase II, does not reduce levels of the viral late transcripts.Which of the following explains why?
A) Baculoviruses use the cellular RNA polymerase III to transcribe their late genes.
B) Baculoviruses produce their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) Baculoviruses produce their own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D) Baculoviruses produce such high levels of the late mRNAs that the inhibition does not matter.
E) Insect cells do not use RNA polymerase II to transcribe their genes.
Q2) You want to express large amounts of a foreign protein in insect cells.Describe how you would prepare a recombinant baculovirus that would be able to do this.Assume that you have the DNA encoding the foreign gene.
Q3) During evolution of baculoviruses they appear to have acquired several genes from the genomes of their cellular hosts via recombination.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) Poxviruses produced two distinct types of virions.Which of the following describes the primary role of the extracellular virus particle?
A) They regulate the host cell antiviral defenses.
B) They are transmitted via an insect vector.
C) They infect new cells and tissues within a single host.
D) They are transmitted between hosts.
E) They can survive harsh environmental conditions.
Q2) Which of the following describes the process of variolation, which was an early method to prevent smallpox infections?
A) Exposure of children to milkmaids infected with cowpox.
B) Quarantine of smallpox victims for 40 days.
C) Use of plant extracts to prevent smallpox infection.
D) Blowing powdered pock scabs into the nose.
E) Exposure of young children to people with an active smallpox infection.
Q3) Smallpox was named in 15 century France to distinguish it from "large pox" or syphilis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) Upon infection with a coccolithovirus, the microalgal host cell may switch from the usual diploid life stage to a haploid cell.Which of the following describes the advantage this has for the host cell?
A) The haploid cell can not replicate the viral genome, so no new viruses are produced.
B) The haploid cell produces a barrier that prevents virus particles from entering.
C) The haploid cell can swim away from virus infested waters.
D) The haploid cell can fuse with other haploid cells, producing virus resistant strains.
E) The haploid cell does not produce the host cell receptor for virus entry.
Q2) The famous white cliffs of Dover were formed by shells of a marine organism killed by coccolithoviruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genome of the giant mimivirus contains more non-coding and "junk" DNA than most other DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nontransforming retroviruses can cause an infected cell to become tumorigenic by doing which of the following?
A) The virus inactivates the cellular pRb protein.
B) Integrating into and disrupting a cellular oncogene.
C) Inducing the host cell to enter S phase and begin DNA replication.
D) Integrating into and disrupting a tumor suppressor gene.
E) Integrating the LTR adjacent to a proto-oncogene.
Q2) Which of the following describes the phenomenon of promoter occlusion seen in retroviruses?
A) Transcription from the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
B) Cellular RNA polymerase can only recognize the factors bound to the left-hand LTR.
C) The inability of the LTR to be transcribed because it has integrated into heterochromatin in the host cell genome.
D) Deletion of the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
E) Transcription from both LTRs can occur simultaneously.
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?
A) Sexual contact.
B) Breast milk.
C) Aerosoled particles.
D) Blood transfusions.
E) Contaminated needles.
Q2) The Vpu protein from HIV increases the release of newly synthesized virus particles from the surface of infected cells.Which of the following describes the mechanism by which Vpu does this?
A) It degrades the sialic acid residues on the surface of the cell, which the virions can bind to.
B) It induces the degradation of the protein tetherin, which keeps the virions attached to the cell surface.
C) It increases the number of CD4 proteins to be exported to the cell surface.
D) It causes the plasma membrane to become flexible and fold around the budding virion.
E) It increases the export of gp120 and gp41 to the cell surface.
Q3) Describe three unique aspects of HIV's biology that make it an extremely difficult virus for the human immune system to eliminate.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a likely purpose for the noninfectious particles produced by hepatitis B virus?
A) They bind to antibodies allowing the virus to evade the immune system.
B) They bind to the host cell receptor, improving entry of virus particles.
C) They stimulate cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) They bind to liver cells and stimulate them to replicate.
E) They are just packaging mistakes that occur in some cells and they serve no purpose.
Q2) The polymerase protein from hepatitis B virus binds to the epsiolog (e)stem-loop on the pregenomic mRNA, which is important for packaging of the genome into the capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The drug Lamivudine (3TC)has been shown to inhibit which step in the infectious cycle of hepatitis B virus?
A) Binding and entry into the host cell.
B) Reverse transcription of the viral genome.
C) Transcription of the viral genome.
D) Translation of the viral mRNAs.
E) Assembly of new virions.
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is used to produce the two different forms of the delta antigen from the hepatitis delta virus?
A) RNA editing by the insertion of an extra base into the mRNA.
B) RNA editing by deamination of a specific base in the genome.
C) Alternative mRNA splicing.
D) Translational readthrough of a stop codon.
E) Ribosomal frameshifting.
Q2) How do we differentiate between the positive and negative strands of a viroid genome?
A) The positive strand produces the viral protein.
B) The positive strand is transcribed to make the viral mRNA.
C) The positive strand is packaged into the viroid particle.
D) The positive strand is the only strand copied by a cellular RNA polymerase.
E) The positive strand is the most abundant RNA produced.
Q3) Viroids encode a single protein which is used to package the RNA for transmission between hosts.
A)True
B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prion hypothesis has been deemed too controversial to be eligible for a Nobel Prize.
A)True B)False
Q2) Sheep that are homozygous for a specific amino acid at codon 171 of the prion gene are completely resistant to infection with scrapie.
A)True B)False
Q3) All of the following describe the attributes that distinguish different strains of prions EXCEPT:
A) The amino acid sequence of the prion protein.
B) The size of the protease resistant portion of the prion protein.
C) The disease symptoms they cause.
D) The pattern of glycosylation on the prion protein.
E) The incubation time for the disease that they cause.
Q4) Describe how the prion hypothesis explains how there can be both an acquired and a genetic form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Q5) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate description of autophagy?
A) Engulfment of one cell by another cell.
B) Engulfment of an extracellular virus particle.
C) Degradation of cellular components in a phagosome.
D) Degradation of cellular DNA by nucleases.
E) Degradation of cellular proteins by proteases.
Q2) Toll-like receptors (TLRs)2 and 4 are found on the surface of host cells while TLR 3 and 9 are found on the endosomal membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following interferon induced proteins has the ability to hydrolyze GTP?
A) 2', 5'-oligo(A) snythetase
B) Jak-Stat
C) PKR
D) Mx
E) Ribonuclease A
Q4) Why is double-stranded RNA such a potent inducer of a cell's antiviral defenses?
Describe one antiviral defense system that requires double-stranded RNA in order to be activated.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to Virus Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is a situation where an NK cell can recognize a virally infected cell and kill it?
A) The plasma membrane contains viral glycoproteins.
B) The NK cell recognizes the MHC-I complex on the surface.
C) The infected cell displays peptides on MHC-I complexes on its surface
D) The infected cell has a reduced amount of MHC proteins on its surface.
E) The NK cell recognizes the virus host cell receptor on the surface of the cell.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune response system?
A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B) Complement system
C) Natural killer cells
D) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
E) Macrophages
Q3) Antigenic drift allows viruses to evade both humoral and cellular immune defenses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only live wild-type or attenuated vaccines can be delivered orally or nasally.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Passaging human viruses in non-human cells is one method used to produce an attenuated virus strain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Recombinant vaccines could consist of which of the following?
A) Recombinant vaccinia virus that can express a viral structural protein.
B) A recombinant adenovirus that contains a gene for a virus protein.
C) Naked DNA that expresses a viral protein.
D) A single viral structural protein that forms virus-like particles.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an example of a currently available vaccine type?
A) Chimeric virus
B) Plasmid DNA
C) Virus-like particles
D) Subunit vaccine
E) Whole inactivated virus
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anti-influenza drug amantadine blocks entry of the virion by raising the pH of the endosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many antiviral drugs, like AZT and acyclovir, belong to which of the following groups of compounds?
A) Nucleotide analogues
B) Nucleoside analogues
C) Nonnucleoside inhibitors
D) Neuraminidase inhibitors
E) Protease inhibitors
Q3) How does the antiviral drug maraviroc, which was developed to inhibit entry of HIV, function?
A) It binds to the gp120 protein on the surface of the HIV virion.
B) It binds to the gp41 protein in the envelope of HIV.
C) It binds to the host protein CCR5.
D) It binds to the host protein CD4.
E) It binds to the lipids in the envelope of HIV and prevents membrane fusion.
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) Which of the following is the primary reason why it is difficult to produce packaging cell lines for both retrovirus and adenovirus vectors?
A) The proteins are degraded by the proteasome in the cell.
B) It is difficult to express high levels of the proteins.
C) Many of the required viral proteins are toxic to the cell.
D) The immune system recognizes the proteins and kills the cell.
E) The proteins stimulate the RNAi defenses in the cell.
Q2) Retrovirus vectors have been used to treat children who have the genetic disease severe combined immunodeficiency, which results from a mutated T cell receptor gene.What is the advantage of using a retrovirus vector over an adenovirus vector in this situation? Some of the children got T leukemia years after their treatment.How did the treatment cause their cancer?
Q3) Which of the following viruses has been used to produce the best characterized and mostly commonly used virus vectors?
A) Lentivirus
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Adeno-associated virus
D) Adenovirus
E) Retrovirus
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Page 39