
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that underlie the structure and function of living organisms. The course covers the central dogma of genetics, detailing DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene regulation. Students will examine the roles of nucleic acids and proteins in the cell, as well as how molecular techniques such as PCR, gel electrophoresis, and gene editing technologies like CRISPR are used in research and biotechnology. Emphasis is placed on the experimental methods used to elucidate molecular processes and the impact of molecular discoveries on medicine, agriculture, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Biochemistry 5th Edition by Moran Horton
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Q1) Which elements account for more than 97% of the weight of most organisms?
A)C,H,N,Mg,O,S
B)C,H,N,O,P,S
C)C,H,N
D)Fe,C,H,O,P
E)Ca²+,K+,Na+,Mg²+,Cl-
Answer: B
Q2) The mitochondria and Golgi apparatus are two organelles which originated from bacteria and were incorporated into eukaryotic cells via symbiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which statement is true?
A)If DG is negative,then the rate of the reaction will be fast.
B)If DG is positive,then the rate of the reaction will be fast.
C)If DG is negative,then the rate of the reaction will be slow.
D)If DG is positive,then the rate of the reaction will be slow.
E)The reaction rate is independent of DG.
Answer: E
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Q1) Which statement explains the cleaning action of soap on greasy dishes?
A)The soap changes the water-solubility of the grease so that it is easily dissolved by the water.
B)The grease is trapped inside the hydrophobic interior of micelles made of soap molecules.
C)The soap chemically breaks down the grease into smaller,more water-soluble molecules.
D)The soap hydrates the grease with its polar head groups and holds it in suspension.
Answer: B
Q2) The ion-product constant for water,Kw,is
A)1 × 10- M².
B)1 × 10- M.
C)1 × 10-14 M².
D)1 × 10-14 M.
Answer: C
Q3) When acid is added to pure water,Kw,the ion-product constant of water,changes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) All amino acids have mirror-image pairs designated D and L.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which amino acids are linked in phenylalanylglycine?
A)Phenyline,alanine and glycine.
B)Phenol,alanine and glycine.
C)Phenylalanine and glycine.
D)Phenol,adenine and glycine.
Answer: C
Q3) Gel-filtration chromatography separates a mixture of proteins on the basis of ________.
A)charge
B)size
C)affinity for ligands in the column matrix
D)density
Answer: B
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Q1) The association of hydrophobic side chains in the interior of proteins helps to stabilize helices and pleated sheet domains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In oligomeric proteins all the subunits are always identical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A tetrameric protein contains
A)four different subunits.
B)four identical subunits.
C)three subunits and one prosthetic group.
D)A or B only.
E)A,B or C.
Q4) How many monomers are there in an oligomeric protein designated 2 2?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)Not given.
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Q1) A noncompetitive inhibitor can bind to either the enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Polypeptide + H O Amino acids
A)oxidoreductase
B)lyase
C)isomerase
D)transferase
E)hydrolase
F)ligase
Q3) The most common enzyme inhibitors are competitive inhibitors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Very few catalytic proficiency values are known because many nonenzymatic reaction rates are so slow that they are difficult to measure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Replacement of the amino acid ________ at or near an active site of an enzyme is more likely to change enzyme activity than the replacement of ________ at or near the active site.
A)histidine;leucine
B)leucine;histidine
C)leucine;isoleucine
D)histidine;aspartate
Q2) A detailed description of a chemical reaction in terms of the molecular,atomic or subatomic events is called the reaction ________.
A)mechanism
B)pathway
C)primary sequence
D)motif
Q3) Weak substrate binding is an important feature to help describe enzyme catalysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Zymogens are often active only in the environment in which they are functional.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Protein catalysts rely exclusively on the amino acid residues for reactivity at the sites of action.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thiamine (B1)
A)Pernicious anemia
B)anemia
C)Dermititis in humans
D)scurvy
E)beriberi
Q3) Structures of several dehydrogenases indicate that many possess one or more similar NAD or NADP-binding structures consisting of babab units in Rossman folds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is little risk in taking megadoses of vitamin A since excess will tend to simply be excreted in the urine.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a sugar polymer is analyzed and found to have equal portions of reducing and non-reducing ends,it is likely that
A)it shows directionality.
B)it is linear.
C)it is branched.
D)it is branched,but not very highly.
E)some of the internal glycosidic bonds are in equilibrium with open chain forms.
Q2) Both nucleotides and nucleosides are glycosides.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cellulose is not highly branched because it
A)does not have a polysaccharide backbone.
B)does not have (1 6)linkages.
C)does not have (1 4)linkages.
D)is insoluble in water.
Q4) Enzymes that hydrolyze cellulose cannot hydrolyze amylopectin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ are the simplest lipids but they may be a part of or a source of many complex lipids.
A)Triglycerols
B)Carbohydrates
C)Terpenes
D)Fatty acids
E)Waxes
Q2) Aspirin can alleviate clinical symptoms because it inhibits the synthesis of certain eicosanoids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is not true about G proteins?
A)They are integral membrane proteins.
B)They are multisubunit proteins consisting of , and subunits.
C)They are slowly inactivated by their own GTPase activity.
D)They act as transducers for hormones.
Q4) The distribution of peripheral membrane proteins is generally identical on both sides of a given membrane.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Consider the synthesis of a biopolymer in which the addition of successive monomers occurs by the same kind of reaction(s).The synthesis of the polymer is a ________ pathway.
A)linear
B)cyclic
C)spiral
D)branched
Q2) Although the CoA thioester is less stable than oxygen esters,it is stable in cells,resisting nonenzymatic hydrolysis at neutral pH values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compartmentation of enzymes
A)helps prevent loss by diffusion.
B)keeps separate pools of metabolites in cells.
C)can help control metabolic pathways.
D)All of the above.
Q4) All metabolic reactions occur in the cytosol of cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate is ________.
A)lactate reductase
B)pyruvate kinase
C)lactoenolpyruvate
D)lactate dehydrogenase
Q2) A cell that has been fed glucose containing carbon - radioactive with carbon 14 in carbon #1 will have ________ percent of the radioactivity in each mole of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)100%
Q3) Compared to pyruvate,the carbon atoms in lactate ________.
A)are more reduced
B)are more oxidized
C)are equally as oxidized
D)carry more charge
Q4) Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which statement is false about glucagon?
A)It forms a protein scaffold for glycogen.
B)It is a hormone that contains 29 amino acids.
C)Elevated levels are associated with a fasting state.
D)It is produced in the pancreas.
Q2) Gluconeogenesis generates ________.
A)2 ATP and 2 NADH
B)1 ATP and 1 NADH
C)1 ATP and 0 NADH
D)0 ATP and 0 NADH
Q3) Under starvation conditions,about how long does it take in humans for the body to deplete the glycogen store in the liver?
A)10 minutes
B)4 hours
C)24 hours
D)1 week
Q4) The enzyme transketolase transfers 2-carbon units from ketose phosphates to aldose phosphates.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) NAD-dependent malate dehydrogenase
A)catalyzes the oxidation of malate to regenerate oxaloacetate.
B)catalyzes the conversion of fumarase to malate.
C)catalyzes a reaction which results in the formation of an NADH molecule.
D)All of the above.
E)A and C only.
Q2) The succinate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes
A)the formation of a single hydrogen bond in the oxidation of succinate to fumarate.
B)the formation of a double bond in the oxidation of succinate to fumarate.
C)Both A and B.
D)None of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is not a fate of a citric acid cycle intermediate?
A)A-ketoglutarate reversibly converting to glutamate.
B)The biosynthesis of porphyrins from succinyl CoA's interaction with glycine.
C)Oxaloacetate as a carbohydrate precursor.
D)None of the above.
Q4) All members of the aconitase family of proteins contain an iron sulfur cluster.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In bacteria,oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Complex I contains a porin protein subunit that transports H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the difference in pH across a membrane is 0.60 and the membrane potential is -0.10 V,about what percent of the Gibbs free energy change, G,is from the pH difference at 37 oC? (R = 8.315 J K-1 mol-1;F = 96,485 J V-1 mol-1)
A)15%
B)27%
C)73%
D)85%
Q4) The human mitochondrial genome contains genes for all of the complexes necessary for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is not an intermediate in the biosynthesis of sucrose in plants?
A)ADP-glucose.
B)Glucose 6-phosphate.
C)Fructose 6-phosphate.
D)Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
Q2) Both the C and CAM carbon-assimilation pathways use bicarbonate ions to convert phosphoenolpyruvate to oxaloacetate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The source of electrons for green sulfur bacteria is ________,and the source of electrons for cyanobacteria is ________.
A)NADPH;NAD+
B)H S;H O
C)H O;H S
D)cytochrome c;cytochrome bf
Q4) The round(R)and wrinkled(r)peas studied by Gregor Mendel differ in the gene for starch branching enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How many cycles of -oxidation are required to completely process a saturated C18 fatty acid?
A)6
B)8
C)9
D)18
Q2) During starvation ketone bodies can take the place of glucose as a fuel for brain cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) CoA derivatives are the active thioesters in fatty acid oxidation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chylomicrons are found in high concentrations in the blood only during fasting when lipids from adipose tissue are mobilized.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The long chain fatty acid arachidonate is the precursor for many eicosanoids. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Aspartate is the precursor for which of the following amino acids?
A)Lysine.
B)Threonine.
C)Methionine.
D)All of the above.
Q2) In animals glutamate synthase is essential for the production of glutamate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is false about protein turnover?
A)The turnover rate is directly proportional to the stability of the protein's tertiary structure.
B)Rapid turnover ensures that some regulatory proteins are degraded so that the cell can respond to changing conditions.
C)The half-life of a given protein is similar in different organs and species.
D)Turnover rates vary to give half-lives from a few minutes to several weeks.
Q4) -ketoglutarate is a precursor for each of the following,except A)glutamine.
B)arginine.
C)proline.
D)glycine.

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Q1) In prokaryotes,carbamoyl phosphate is an intermediate in the de novo biosynthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first step in the de novo biosynthesis of IMP is a reaction between glutamine and PRPP.Which statement is not true about this reaction?
A)An amine group is attached to the anomeric carbon atom of the ribose ring.
B)The configuration of the anomeric carbon atom is inverted from to .
C)A pyrophosphate is lost from PRPP.
D)The reaction is catalyzed by glutamine-PRPP aminotransferase.
Q3) Which is not a direct precursor of pyrimidines in their de novo biosynthesis?
A)HCO<sub>3</sub>-.
B)Glutamine.
C)Glycine.
D)Aspartate.
Q4) Virtually all organisms and tissues can synthesize nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The abbreviation dGp indicates
A)5' deoxyguanylate.
B)3' deoxyguanylate.
C)3',5' deoxyguanylate.
D)5',3'deoxyguanylate.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Prokaryotic DNA is organized into protein-DNA structures called nucleoids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When stretched,strands of poly (dT)give no resistance until it is in the fully extended form because it is wound in a tight helical form.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is not a difference between RNA and DNA?
A)The sugar ring of RNA is more oxidized than that in DNA.
B)RNA contains uracil;DNA usually does not.
C)RNA cannot form helices.
D)RNA is usually single-stranded;DNA is double-stranded.
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Q1) In the Sanger method for DNA sequencing,the gels are read from bottom to top,since the smallest fragments travel farthest in the sequencing gel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both strands of double-stranded DNA are copied so that each daughter molecule consists of one parental strand and one newly synthesized strand.This is called ________ replication.
A)bidirectional
B)conservative
C)semiconservative
D)duplicative
Q3) What is a reasonable length for an RNA primer in E.coli?
A)About 20 nucleotides.
B)50 nucleotides.
C)100 nucleotides.
D)1000 nucleotides.
Q4) DNA is the only cell macromolecule that can be repaired.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When a repressor protein is ________ (bound,unbound)to a promoter region transcription is allowed;when an activator protein is ________ (bound,unbound)to a promoter transcription is stimulated.
A)bound;unbound
B)unbound;bound
C)bound;bound
D)unbound;unbound
Q2) Pause sites contain more GC base pairs than AT base pairs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genes that encode proteins are transcribed by RNA polymerase ________. A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q4) Which is not generally associated with RNA processing?
A)Addition of nucleotides.
B)Removal of nucleotides.
C)Covalent modification of bases.
D)Phosphorylation at the 3' end.
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Q1) Which is not true about the genetic code?
A)Some amino acids share the same codon.
B)The first two nucleotides of a codon are often enough to specify a given amino acid.
C)Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
D)Nearly all organisms use the same genetic code.
Q2) Shifting of the reading frame by one nucleotide results in ________.
A)the production of a completely different protein that is likely non-functional
B)a substitution only at the first amino acid
C)the generation of homologous proteins
D)a protein that has one less or one more amino acid
Q3) Proteins processed through the Golgi apparatus and usually destined for export from the cell are modified by glycosylation only.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ordering of amino acids to form the sequence of a protein represents a significant gain of entropy.
A)True
B)False
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