Course Introduction
Molecular Biology
Final Exam Questions
Molecular Biology is an in-depth exploration of the molecular mechanisms that govern the structure, function, and regulation of genetic material within living organisms. This course covers key topics including the structure and function of nucleic acids and proteins, DNA replication, transcription, translation, gene expression, and regulation. Students will examine foundational experiments, modern laboratory techniques, and current advances in the field, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how molecular-level processes impact cellular function, heredity, and the overall biology of organisms.
Recommended Textbook
Genetic Analysis An Integrative Approach 1st Edition by Mark F. Sanders
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Molecular Basis of Heredity, Variation, and Evolution
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Q1) Genetic experiments have revealed the relationship between the observable traits of an organism,or ________,and the genetic constitution of an organism,or ________.
Answer: phenotype;genotype
Q2) What kind of bond is formed between complementary base pairs to join the two DNA strands into a double helix?
A)ionic bond
B)phosphodiester bond
C)hydrogen bond
D)disulfide bond
E)peptide bond
Answer: C
Q3) Sexual reproduction uses meiosis to generate
A)two identical haploid gametes.
B)two identical diploid gametes.
C)four identical haploid gametes.
D)four unique diploid gametes.
E)four unique haploid gametes.
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Transmission Genetics
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Q1) Geneticists must be able to compare the outcomes they obtain in their experiments to the outcomes that might be expected to occur.Which test would they use to confirm that the difference between observed and expected can be attributed to chance?
Answer: chi-square test
Q2) Why did Mendel cut off the nascent anthers during the process of artificial cross-fertilization?
Answer: to prevent self-fertilization or to prevent uncontrolled crosses
Q3) Crosses in which F plants heterozygous for a given allele are crossed to generate a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the F generation are known as A)replicate crosses.
B)reciprocal crosses.
C)test crosses.
D)monohybrid crosses.
E)dihybrid crosses.
Answer: D
Q4) In a test cross,a pure-breeding plant is crossed with a plant suspected to be heterozygous (Aa).What is the genotype of the pure-breeding plant?
Answer: aa
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Division and Chromosome Heredity
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Q1) Bridges showed that sex determination in Drosophila meant that
A)females were XX or XXX,and males were XY or XXY.
B)females were XX,and males were XY.
C)females were XX,and males were XY or XO.
D)females were XX or XXX,and males were XY or XO.
E)females were XX or XO,and males were XY or XXY.
Answer: D
Q2) According to Bridges's proposal,exceptional phenotypes and unusual karyotypes were the result of rare mistakes in meiosis caused by the failure of X chromosomes to separate properly in either the first or second meiotic division in females.What term is used in referring to this phenomenon?
Answer: nondisjunction
Q3) The separation of sister chromatids during anaphase I of mitosis is known as chromosome
A)cytokinesis.
B)karyokinesis.
C)crossing over.
D)synapsis.
E)disjunction.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Gene Interaction
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Q1) The allele responsible for the Siamese coat-color pattern produces an unstable tyrosinase enzyme.This type of gene product is an example of what type of allele?
Q2) What are the three categories of loss-of-function mutations?
Q3) What are the two categories of gain-of-function mutations?
Q4) Which mode of inheritance produces heterozygotes with phenotypes that differ from either homozygote but more closely resembles one homozygous phenotype than the other?
A)complete dominance
B)incomplete dominance
C)codominance
D)epistasis
E)incomplete penetrance
Q5) The four different human blood types are caused by how many alleles?
Q6) What is the genotype for individuals with blood type O?
E)either I or I
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Chapter 5: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) How is Newton Morton's statistical method helpful for calculating the overall probability of genetic linkage when allelic phase is unknown?
Q2) What is the Lod score?
Q3) What unit of physical distance between genes on a chromosome provides a convenient way to link the recombination frequencies for linked genes with their positions and order along a chromosome?
Q4) Does recombination frequency between linked genes increase as the distance between genes gets larger or smaller?
Q5) What is observed when syntenic genes are so close to one another that they are unable to assort independently?
Q6) Describe why allelic phase is a major obstacle in mapping human genes.
Q7) What organism exhibits complete genetic linkage,meaning there is no recombination between homologous chromosomes?
Q8) Morgan realized that Bateson and Punnett had detected genetic linkage but couldn't explain their results because they performed the wrong cross.What type of cross did Morgan use for the analysis of genetic linkage of autosomal genes in Drosophila?
Q9) Describe the three types of tetrads.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophage
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Q1) What is the difference between F and F bacteria?
Q2) Explain when,why,and how recombination in bacteria is like crossing over in diploid cells.
Q3) Why does conjugation with an Hfr donor result in a much higher rate of gene transfer than conjugation with an F donor?
A)An F donor makes fewer pili.
B)An F donor's T strand is slow to reach the pilus.
C)The Hfr donor transfers genes from the chromosome and not the plasmid.
D)The Hfr donor segment must undergo recombination in the recipient.
E)The F donor segment must undergo recombination in the recipient.
Q4) What role does the blender play in the experiment?
A)serves as a culture container only
B)acts as a mechanism to bring cells into contact
C)speeds up molecular movement of DNA
D)shears the sex pili of conjugants
E)hastens conjugation events
Q5) When a soil bacterium infects a plant root and introduces its Ti plasmid,how does this affect both the infectious bacterium and the plant?
Q6) What is meant by a mutation that Benzer referred to as nonrevertible?
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) DNA helicase inhibitors are well studied as potential drug targets.What would you expect to see if DNA helicase activity is inhibited?
A)The replisome complex would not assemble on the oriC region.
B)The DNA cannot bend,so hydrogen bonds in the 13-mer region of oriC remain intact.
C)Helicase catalyzes ATP hydrolysis and DNA strands separation,so the helix cannot be unwound and strands will not separate.
D)Helicase carries the SSB protein to the open region of DNA,so hydrolysis and strand separation will not occur.
E)Helicase prevents reannealing of the separated strands,so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA replication cannot proceed.
Q2) The major and minor grooves of DNA are features of the helix that can be attributed to this process,which involves tight packing of DNA bases in a duplex.
Q3) Briefly describe the Meselson and Stahl experiment that indicated that DNA replication is semiconservative.How would their results have differed if DNA replication was actually conservative in nature?
Q4) What is the overall direction of DNA strand elongation?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Molecular Biology and Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) Processing of the 30S pre-RNA transcript in humans produces what three rRNAs after enzymatic cleavage?
Q2) You want to design a drug that prevents transcription of mRNAs but does not affect transcription of other RNAs.What enzyme would you target?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)ribozyme
E)methyl transferase
Q3) Nucleoli contain many tandem repeat copies of which genes,transcribed by RNA polymerase I?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)siRNA
E)all of the above
Q4) The 5S rRNA and tRNA genes have internal promoters located downstream of the transcription start site,called ________.
Q5) What molecule is required for activation of rho protein?
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Chapter 9: The Molecular Biology of Translation
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Q1) What method can be used to separate ribosomal protein subunits?
A)polymerase chain reaction
B)gel electrophoresis
C)two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
D)CsCl gradient ultracentrifugation
E)cryo-EM
Q2) Elongation factors translocate the ribosome in the 3 direction by a distance of A)one codon.
B)one nucleotide.
C)two nucleotides.
D)two codons.
E)three codons.
Q3) Polypeptides must be sorted after translation.Does protein sorting occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Describe the process of protein sorting and explain how the signal sequence is involved.What would you expect to see if the signal sequence has been mutated or deleted?
Q4) Sidney Brenner proved that the triplet code is,in fact,nonoverlapping.Assuming a nonoverlapping code,how many complete codons would the following sequence encode before encountering a stop codon? 5 - AUGCGAUUAUAGUGC - 3
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Chapter 10: The Integration of Genetic Approaches: Understanding Sickle Cell Disease
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Q1) The and alleles can be distinguished on the basis of A)variations in the length of their DNA restriction fragments.
B)variations in the length of the amino acid sequence.
C)different electrophoretic mobilities caused by a single amino acid substitution.
D)variations in the length of both the DNA restriction fragments and the amino acid sequence.
E)variations in the DNA restriction fragments and different electrophoretic mobilities of the protein products due to a single amino acid substitution.
Q2) The bone marrow must continuously generate new red blood cells because the life span of a typical red blood cell is only ________.The life span is even shorter in individuals with sickle-cell trait,which accounts for the protective effects against malaria.
Q3) As part of the maturation process,red blood cells lose their nucleus.What is the consequence for cell division in these cells?
Q4) Before transferring DNA from a gel to the membrane in Southern blotting,the DNA must be denatured (usually by soaking the gel in NaOH).Why is this step necessary?
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Chapter 11: Chromosome Structure
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Q1) You have isolated DNA for PCR and accidentally added topoisomerase instead of polymerase to your sample.What would you expect if you ran this DNA sample on a gel?
A)The DNA would show increased supercoiling and have a lower electrophoretic mobility.
B)The DNA would show decreased supercoiling and have a higher electrophoretic mobility.
C)The DNA would show increased supercoiling and have a higher electrophoretic mobility.
D)The DNA would show decreased supercoiling and have a lower electrophoretic mobility.
E)The DNA would show decreased supercoiling,but electrophoretic mobility will be unaffected.
Q2) If you want to prevent chromatin loops from being anchored to the chromosome scaffold,which regions of the DNA would you target?
Q3) Each nucleus in a human somatic cell contains ________ chromosomes.
Q4) What is the purpose of DNA supercoiling?
Q5) If you block histone deacetylase,what effect would you expect to see on transcriptional activity?
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation, DNA Repair, and Homologous
Recombination
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Q1) Given the DNA sequence 5 -TAC AAA ATA CAG CGG-3 ,which of these sequences represents a nonsense mutation?
A)5 -TAG AAA ATA CAG CGG-3
B)5 -TAC AAA TAC AGC GGG-3
C)5 -TAC AAG ATA CAG CGG-3
D)5 -TAC AAA ATA CAC CGG-3
E)5 -TAC AAA ATA CAG AGG-3
Q2) Which process is carried out by specialized bypass DNA that can replicate across the gaps induced during replication by UV damage?
Q3) What is the human cancer syndrome associated with inherited p53 mutations?
Q4) Which mechanism can be used to repair UV damage in Drosophila but not in humans?
Q5) The Ames test is designed to identify the rate of ________ that restore the ability of bacteria to synthesize their own histidine,thus eliminating the need for histidine supplementation of the growth medium.
Q6) If you have screened 100,000 pollen grains and identified 5 mutants,what is the mutation frequency?
Q7) Which enzyme is the product of the phr gene in E.coli?
Q8) DNA glycosylase inhibitors are used to study which DNA repair mechanism? Page 14
Q9) What are the two basic types of base-pair substitutions?
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Chromosome Aberrations and Transposition
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Q1) Which enzyme(s)is/are responsible for excising and copying transposable genetic elements from chromosomes and inserting them into new locations?
Q2) Pseudodominance is used to map genes by using what method?
Q3) Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes are caused by which type of chromosomal mutations,both in connection with chromosome 15?
A)monosomy
B)trisomy
C)mosaicism
D)uniparental disomy
E)random X-inactivation
Q4) What does the model of hybrid dysgenesis predict for the F and F generations when a P-cytotype male is crossed to an M-cytotype female?
Q5) Heterozygous carriers of chromosome inversions or translocations
A)will be viable and completely fertile because no genes were deleted.
B)may or may not exhibit phenotypic abnormalities.
C)may be infertile due to complications during meiosis.
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
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Chapter 14: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophage
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Q1) Which protein in the arabinose operon is responsible for both positive and negative regulation of transcription?
Q2) Which part of the lac operon is cis-dominant?
Q3) Describe the difference between inducible and repressible operons.How does attenuation differ from inducible or repressible operons?
Which of the two inducible operons you've studied would be active if a cell has the following food sources?
a. only lactose
b. only glucose
c. only arabinose
d. lactose and glucose
e. glucose and arabinose
f. lactose and arabinose
Q4) Regulation of transcription of bacterial genes takes place at which two levels?
Q5) Antisense control of translation involves the regulation of which enzyme produced by bacterial insertion sequence IS10?
Q6) Which proteins facilitate RNA polymerase binding at promoters?
Page 17
Q7) In the trp operon,where is the attenuator region located?
Q8) Which molecule functions as the corepressor in the trp operon?
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Page 18
Chapter 15: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which enzyme cuts dsRNA into 21-25 bp fragments during RNAi?
Q2) In yeast,which gene would you expect to be activated during phosphate starvation?
Q3) In the GAL gene system,which protein acts as an activator protein through its transcription-initiating effect?
Q4) Which sequences would likely have both a nucleosome-depleted region (NDR)and a poly A/T tract to attract transcriptional activators to a transcription start sequence?
A)chromatin modifiers
B)enhancers
C)open promoters
D)closed promoters
E)insulators
Q5) In gal yeast,what is the product of the galactose utilization pathway?
Q6) What effect does methylation of CpG islands have on human promoters?
Q7) Which protein complex binds dsRNA fragments to generate ssRNAs for RNAi?
Q8) What are the protein-binding sequences that direct enhancers to interact with the intended promoter and that block communication between enhancers and other promoter?
Q9) In animals,the ________ enzyme cuts pri-mRNA to produce mi-RNA.
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Chapter 16: Forward Genetics and Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Which of the following would make a human disorder-causing allele or gene easiest to locate?
A)a genomic library for the chromosome on which the gene is located
B)a cDNA library for the chromosome on which the gene is located
C)a group of 10 known candidate genes
D)a transposon known to segregate with the gene
E)a single patient with a chromosomal translocation associated with the gene
Q2) Identifying an autosomal recessive mutation in a mutagenic screen in Drosophila requires identification of a mutant in the F generation.If testing for a sex-linked recessive lethal mutation (e.g.,cn l + using a balancer chromosome such as cnCyO),in which generation can lines with mutations be identified?
Q3) In a cDNA library,not all expressed genes will be represented.On what does this depend?
Q4) A genetic strategy that starts with knowing the DNA sequence and works toward identifying an associated phenotype is known as ________.
Q5) Would it be possible and/or appropriate to design a genetic screen to look for a gene(s)involved in homosexuality?
Page 20
Q6) Why is only a fraction of an organism's genes represented in any cDNA library?
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Chapter 17: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology and
Reverse Genetics
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Q1) In species X,the UUU codon for phenylalanine is used significantly more frequently than other phenylalanine codons,and knowing this allows the scientist to manipulate translation efficiency.This unequal frequency is known as ________.
Q2) In the 1990s,gene therapy was seen as a probable cure for many genetic diseases.List three or four reasons that it has so far been of limited success.
Q3) In producing an E.coli plasmid to be an expression vector,an experimenter includes genes for selectable markers,a promoter for the expression of the introduced genes.She uses a cDNA sequence to ensure the insert contains no introns.The gene inserted is transcribed,but not translated.What sequence did she omit from the plasmid?
Q4) When a transgene is used in mice to knock out a specific function,two problems that might occur are the unintended introduction of multiple copies,or abnormal gene expression.The second of these problems is related to
A)position effect.
B)homologous recombination.
C)vector insufficiency.
D)mitotic recombination.
E)unequal crossing over.
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Chapter 18: Genomics: Genetics From a Whole-Genome Perspective
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Q1) Interspecific genome studies show us conserved sequences,but intraspecific comparisons identify what?
Q2) In an experiment designed to analyze the mRNAs present in a cell at a given time in the life cycle,it was found that about 50% of the mRNAs are of one type,less than 20% represent 8 other mRNAs,and the rest consist of several thousand different mRNAs.What does this information indicate?
A)Only the mRNA expressed at the highest level is of any importance to this cell type.
B)The pattern of expression of the low-level mRNAs is what makes the cell type unique.
C)The low-level expressed genes are from organelles.
D)Those genes expressed at low level are likely to be "housekeeping" genes found in many cell types.
E)The genes most specific to this cell type and life stage are the 8 found at an intermediate level.
Q3) If an entire genome is fragmented and then a large number of pieces are sequenced,the approach is known as the ________ approach.
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Chapter 19: Cytoplasmic Inheritance and the Evolution of Organelle Genomes
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Q1) Mating in Chlamydomonas occurs between haploid mt and mt individuals.The mt chloroplast genome is selectively degraded 95% of the time.In one such mating,the mt genome is str and mt is str .Will offspring live or die if they are exposed to streptomycin?
Q2) Among current bacteria,those with the most in common with mitochondria are the Rickettsia (that cause typhus).What does this mean about Rickettsia's place in the evolution of endosymbiosis?
Q3) The human egg has about 2000 mtDNA,but somatic cells have a range of hundreds to thousands.Which of the following is most likely to account for the difference?
A)Heteroplastic cells can give rise to homoplastic cells.
B)Large mitochondria in oocytes can divide into many smaller mitochondria,and smaller mitochondria can fuse.
C)Specific tissue types replicate organelle DNA far more frequently than they do nuclear DNA.
D)Mutant mitochondria replicate at different frequencies than do wild type.
E)Haploid organelle genomes can replicate to form diploid or polyploidy genomes.
Q4) What name is given to the alteration of an RNA sequence after transcription?
Q5) The organelles involved in organelle heredity are ________ and ________.
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Chapter 20: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) In an organism such as a sea urchin,administration of actinomycin D prevents RNA synthesis.However,early development up to gastrula formation can take place in the presence of actinomycin D but gastrulation cannot.This implies that
A)development beyond gastrulation requires actD.
B)actD is part of the normal environment of a sea urchin and serves as a developmental signal molecule.
C)actD receptors begin to form only on cell surfaces of the gastrula.
D)maternal effect genes regulate development until gastrulation.
E)immature sea urchin embryos produce actD to regulate further development.
Q2) The Antennapedia complex and the bithorax complex of genes all encode transcription factors have a 180-bp DNA-binding domain.What is this domain called?
Q3) What characteristic of a cellular blastoderm in Drosophila embryogenesis distinguishes it from the syncytial blastoderm?
Q4) In some forms of cancer,the expression of certain homeotic genes has been altered.Is this more likely to be a cause or an effect of the cancer? Explain.
Q5) Coordinate genes in an organism such as Drosophila determine the ________ of the early embryo.
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Chapter 21: Genetic Analysis of Quantitative Traits
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Q1) A recent study investigated the heritability of lean body mass (LBM)that had been previously reported as between 52 and 84% but without known specific genes.The authors used a genome-wide association (GWA)scan to identify two SNPs: rs16892496 and rs7832552 within the thyrotropin-releasing hormone receptor gene that were significantly associated with LBM.Since the gene in question involves muscle metabolism,which of the following would you predict would be associated with LBM in a given population?
A)high LBM associated with higher risk of fracture in the elderly
B)high LBM associated with memory loss in the middle aged
C)low LBM associated with mobility limitation in the elderly
D)low LBM associated with the growth spurt of puberty
E)variation of LBM for members of different geographic populations
Q2) Sometimes the DNA marker allele and a QTL occur more frequently than would otherwise be expected,either because they interact or because of natural selection.What term describes this?
Q3) If the odds ratio for a particular QTL/DNA marker pair (e.g.,Q M )is 2.2,this indicates that the organism is how many times more likely to get Q M gametes?
Q4) Of mean,median,and modal,what value is the most common value in a given population?
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Chapter 22: Population Genetics and Evolution
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Q1) Cheetahs exhibit significant inbreeding and loss of heterozygosity due to overhunting and loss of habitat experienced at some point in their evolutionary history.Which genetic mechanism occurs when a large population is substantially reduced at random,acting independently of natural selection?
A)founder effect
B)mutation
C)gene flow
D)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
E)bottleneck effect
Q2) All Old Order Amish families from Lancaster County with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome can trace their genealogies to Mr.and Mrs.Samuel King,who immigrated to Lancaster County in 1744.This is an example of
A)founder effect.
B)mutation.
C)gene flow.
D)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
E)bottleneck effect.
Q3) When looking at the MN blood group with three alleles,how many degrees of freedom will be used to compare observed versus expected results?
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