Molecular Biology Exam Questions
Course
Introduction
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms underlying the structure and function of living organisms, focusing on the roles and interactions of DNA, RNA, and proteins. The course covers fundamental processes such as gene expression, replication, transcription, and translation, as well as regulatory pathways governing these events. Students gain an understanding of molecular techniques used in research and diagnostics, and learn how molecular biology principles contribute to advances in genetics, biotechnology, and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 4th Edition by Gary
C. Schoenwolf
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19 Chapters
247 Verified Questions
247 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is examined in utero by ultrasound,and a defect of its ventral body wall is noted.The location of the defect corresponds to which surface of the adult?
A) Superior
B) Anterior
C) Medial
D) Posterior
E) Lateral
F) Inferior
Answer: B
Q2) Which developmental signaling pathway is frequently mutated in patients with colon cancer?
A) FGF
B) WNT
C) SHH
D) BMP
E) PDGF
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn girl is suspected of having Turner syndrome.Which diagnostic procedure would be used to determine if this is indeed the case?
A) Karotyping
B) Spectral karotyping (SKY)
C) Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH)
D) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
Answer: A
Q2) A child with a large sacrococcygeal teratoma is delivered by cesarean section.The teratoma likely arose from which type of cells?
A) Neuroectodermal stem cells
B) Neural crest cells
C) Primitive streak cells
D) Primordial germ cells
E) Secondary oocyte cells
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
Q2) A young child is diagnosed with Angelman syndrome,a syndrome in which a deletion occurs in a portion of the long arm of chromosome 15.Both Angelman syndrome and another syndrome involve the same deletion,but the two syndromes differ depending on whether the defect was inherited from the mother or father.What is the related syndrome?
A) Prader-Willi syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Treacher Collins syndrome
D) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome
E) CHARGE syndrome
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Q1) A man with recurrent respiratory infections and infertility is diagnosed with Kartagener syndrome.Mutations in the gene encoding which protein cause this syndrome?
A) Dynein
B) Surfactant
C) FGF8
D) BMP2
E) Insulin
Q2) A boy is admitted to the hospital for an emergency appendectomy.During surgery it is noted that the inflamed appendix is located on the left side,rather than the right side,and that the patient has situs inversus viscerum totalis.Mutations in which gene are known to cause this condition in animal models?
A) Pitx2
B) Bmp4
C) Hoxd13
D) Chordin
E) Tbx3
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Q1) A researcher ablates (removes) the neural folds of an animal embryo prior to formation of neural crest cells.What structure might not develop depending on the exact level removed?
A) Notochord
B) Somite
C) Body wall
D) Parasympathetic ganglia
E) Primitive streak
Q2) A researcher inactivates a gene that affects the dorsal-ventral patterning of the neural tube.Which gene product is known to play such a role?
A) Notch
B) Neurogenin
C) Shh
D) Pdgf
E) Vegf
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Q1) Which vertebrate animal model is most useful for conducting forward genetic screens?
A) Chicken
B) Xenopus
C) Mouse
D) Zebrafish
E) Lamprey
Q2) A girl is born with the following facial features: microcephaly,short palpebral fissures,epicanthal folds,flat midface,and micrognathia.What might be the cause of this constellation of abnormal features?
A) In utero exposure to alcohol
B) In utero exposure to Accutane
C) In utero exposure to chicken pox
D) Oligohydramnios
E) Polyhydramnios
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Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As Patient
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Q1) A baby is born to an HIV-positive mother.What statement regarding treatment options is true?
A) HIV is spread only by sexual contact, so no treatment is required.
B) HIV does not cross the placenta either before or during parturition, so no treatment is required.
C) Treatment with antiretrovirus drugs should begin immediately and continue postnatally.
D) HIV cannot be transmitted in breast milk, so no treatment is required with breastfeeding.
E) The baby should receive a blood transfusion with non-HIV-positive blood.
Q2) A developing fetus is diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.What treatment would be appropriate for this condition?
A) Administer folic acid to the mother.
B) Administer propranolol to the mother.
C) Administer cyanocobalamin to the mother.
D) Do a fetal blood transfusion.
E) Administer dexamethasone to the mother.
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Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) During development,the keratinocytes of the various skin layers express different keratins and other intracellular proteins involved in the maturation of the skin.Transglutaminase 1 is one such protein.What is the human syndrome that can be caused by mutations in Transglutaminase 1?
A) Dowling-Meara EBS
B) Junctional epidermolysis bullosa
C) Bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma
D) Lamellar ichthyosis
E) Incontinentia pigmenti
F) Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Q2) During embryonic development,both primary and secondary teeth develop,but the secondary teeth arrest their development.Growth and further development of the secondary teeth is later reinitiated during childhood.At what stage of tooth development are the secondary teeth arrested?
A) Bud stage
B) Cap stage
C) Bell stage
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Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is diagnosed with mutations in the gene encoding the growth factor
GDF5.Which region of the body would show developmental abnormalities?
A) Cranial vault
B) Vertebrae
C) Ribs
D) Limbs
E) Face
Q2) The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc arises from which structure?
A) Sclerotome
B) Notochord
C) Myotome
D) Dermomyotome
E) Lateral plate mesoderm
Q3) The vertebrae are patterned by the Hox complex of transcription factors,which are expressed in nested domains along the cranial-caudal axis.How would gain of Hox function be expected to affect the developing vertebrae?
A) Cranialize them.
B) Caudalize them.
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Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old man develops Bell's palsy in which function of the facial (VII) cranial nerve is compromised.What specific level of the central nervous system does the facial nerve connect to?
A) Telencephalon
B) Diencephalon
C) Mesencephalon
D) Metencephalon
E) Myelencephalon
F) Spinal cord
Q2) A 3-year-old boy with spina bifida develops hydrocephalus.What is the likely cause of this?
A) Blockage of the subarachnoid space
B) Enlargement of the choroid plexus
C) Constriction of the foramen magnum
D) Blockage of the median or lateral apertures
E) Degeneration of the choroid plexus
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Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) A researcher labels the second epibranchial placodes.Cells of what structure(s) will be labeled later in development?
A) Olfactory nerve
B) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Superior ganglion
D) Petrosal ganglion
E) Enteric ganglia
Q2) Hereditary peripheral neuropathies,such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth hereditary neuropathy,involve nerve demyelination.What cell type myelinates peripheral nerves during development?
A) Schwann cells
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Astrocytes
D) Chromaffin cells
E) Endothelial cells
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13
Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Sample Questions
Q1) In tissue recombination experiments in culture it has been shown that branching morphogenesis of the lung involves epithelial-mesenchymal interactions.What is the source of the lung epithelium?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Somitic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Q2) Branching of the Drosophila tracheal system involves three genes,Branchless,Breathless,and Sprouty,and orthologs of these genes play similar roles in vertebrate lung development.What would be the expected outcome if Sprouty is inactivated during Drosophila development?
A) The tracheal system fails to form.
B) Extra branching of the tracheal system occurs.
C) Less branching of the tracheal system occurs.
D) The tracheal system is converted into a nervous system.
E) The tracheal system is converted into muscle.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher places a slice of the developing heart tube into culture.In a series of experiments,different areas are labeled to tract cells.Which cells when labeled will be shown to be the primary progenitors for cushion cells within the atrioventricular septum?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Cells of the proepicardial organ
C) Myocardial cells
D) Endocardial cells
Q2) Mutations in the Nkx2.5 gene can be found associated with what cardiovascular anomaly (anomalies)?
A) An aberrant cardiac conducting system
B) Atrial septal defects
C) Ventricular septal defects
D) Abnormal cardiac looping
E) All the above
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15
Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Q1) In the gross anatomy lab,you find that your cadaver has an extremely large left internal thoracic artery and large intercostal arteries as well.What possible congenital anomaly might you find in this cadaver that could explain this?
A) Presence of a double aortic arch
B) Abnormal origin of the subclavian artery
C) Presence of a postductal coarctation of the aorta
D) Presence of a preductal coarctation of the aorta
E) Interrupted aortic arch
Q2) In the fetus,oxygenated blood coming from the placenta mixes with fetal systemic blood in all of the following places EXCEPT:
A) Between the junction of the ductus venosum and inferior vena cava
B) Within the right atrium
C) Within the ductus arteriosus
D) In the left atrium
E) At the junction between the dorsal aorta and umbilical artery
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16
Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these organs remains retroperitoneal throughout its development?
A) Transverse colon
B) Pancreas
C) Kidney
D) Stomach
E) Sigmoid colon
Q2) Based on hospital records,a 3-day-old newborn has not had a bowel movement.Upon re-examination,you notice the baby's abdomen appears bloated and the infant is beginning to run a fever.Soon after feeding,the baby also exhibits severe vomiting and can't keep anything down.As a physician,you request abdominal x-rays,and you find that the jejunum is drastically dilated,with the remainder of the lower small large intestines appearing smaller in diameter than expected.What is the likely cause?
A) An umbilical hernia
B) Pyloric atresia
C) Meckel's diverticulum
D) Hirschsprung's disease
E) An annular pancreas
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urogenital System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for male pseudohermaphrodism?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 F.-REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q2) The collecting tubules of the definitive kidney are derived from what tissue (cells)?
A) Metanephric blastema
B) Ureteric buds
C) Uriniferous tubules
D) Renal corpuscles
Q3) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both cleft lip and palate have a genetic component,which results in differences in the frequency of cleft lip and palate in females and males.Does cleft lip occur more often in females or males?
A) Males
B) Females
Q2) Neural crest cells migrate from the hindbrain in distinct streams.How many neural crest cells streams are there in the hindbrain?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 7
Q3) At birth what is the approximate ratio of the facial skeleton to the cranial vault?
A) 1:3
B) 1:5
C) 1:7
D) 2:1
E) 2:3
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Chapter 18: Development of the Ears and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) During retinal differentiation,the various cell types differentiate in sequence.Which cell type is the last to be born?
A) Müller
B) Ganglion
C) Amacrine
D) Bipolar
E) Rod
F) Cone
Q2) Development of the sensory regions of the inner ear involves the formation of hair cells and supporting cells by the process of lateral inhibition controlled by Notch signaling.How would overexpression of the transcription factors Hes1 and 5,which are modulated by Notch signaling,be expected to affect the number of hair cells or supporting cells?
A) The overall number of supporting cells would increase.
B) The overall number of supporting cells would decrease.
C) The overall number of hair cells would increase.
D) The overall number of hair cells would decrease.
E) No change would occur in the number of hair cells or supporting cells.
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20
Chapter 19: Development of the Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dispatched 1 is essential for diffusion of Shh.In the Dispatched mouse mutant,which digit does not develop?
A) Digit 1, the most anterior (cranial) digit
B) Digit 2
C) Digit 3
D) Digit 4
E) Digit 5, the most posterior (caudal) digit
Q2) Which region of the developing limb specifies the cranial-caudal axis of the developing limb bud?
A) AER
B) ZPA
C) Dorsal ectoderm
Q3) Gli3 is essential for normal limb development.In mice,mutation of Gli3 results in which limb defect?
A) Amelia
B) Meromelia
C) Syndactyly
D) Polydactyly
E) Split hand/foot
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Page 21