Course Introduction
Molecular Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that govern cellular processes, focusing on the structure and function of nucleic acids and proteins. The course covers DNA replication, transcription, translation, gene regulation, and the technologies used to manipulate genetic material, such as PCR, cloning, and CRISPR. Students will also examine how molecular biology concepts are applied in research, medicine, and biotechnology to address real-world challenges. Foundational skills in experimental design, data analysis, and critical evaluation of scientific literature are emphasized throughout the course.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding structural complementarity is correct?
A)It produces strong irreversible interactions.
B)It is the interaction of a biological macromolecule and its ligand.
C)It is the basis of a select few biological functions.
D)It is the means of ceasing bimolecular interactions.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following activities does NOT require the presence of ATP or NADPH?
A)protease degradation
B)biosynthesis
C)movement of muscles
D)light emission
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following regarding the nature of the hydrogen bond is correct?
A)The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
B)The more linear the bond,the stronger the interaction.
C)The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
D)A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is reason for the ionization of water?
A)The smaller electronegative oxygen atom strips the electron from one of its hydrogen atoms,leaving the proton to dissociate.
B)The larger electronegative oxygen atom strips the electron from one of its hydrogen atoms,leaving the proton to dissociate.
C)The smaller electropositive oxygen atom strips the electron from one of its hydrogen atoms,leaving the proton to dissociate.
D)The larger electropositive oxygen atom strips the electron from one of its hydrogen atoms,leaving the proton to dissociate.
Answer: B
Q2) The pK s of phosphoric acid are 2.1,7.2,and 12.4.Which of the following values is the resulting pH if equal amounts of Na HPO and NaH PO are mixed in water?
A)2.1
B)4.65
C)7.2
D)9.8
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Q1) What defines entropy change, S?
A)the sum of heat absorbed and work
B)equal to the heat transferred at constant pressure and volume
C)a measure of disorder in a system
D)pressure change at a constant temperature
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these values is a widely used "consensus value" for G°' of ATP hydrolysis in biological systems?
A)-2-30.5 kJ/mol
B)-2-21 kJ/mol
C)3 kJ/mol
D)21 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Q3) Which equation defines a system at equilibrium?
A) G > 0
B) G° = G
C) G = 0
D) G° = 0
E) G = RT ln ([products]/[reactants])
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) What type of thermodynamic reaction must be coupled to peptide bond formation in biological systems?
A)adverse
B)compatible
C)reverse
D)favourable
Q2) Which of the following amino acids has a free -carboxyl group but no free a-amino group?
A)aspartic acid
B)proline
C)asparagine
D)lysine
Q3) The amino and carboxyl groups of amino acids react in a head-to-tail fashion and forming a covalent linkage.What is this linkage typically referred to as?
A)an aromatic bond
B)a phosphoanhydride bond
C)a peptide bond
D)a hydrogen bond
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6
Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological
Functions
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Q1) When sequencing a protein,which of the following is an advantage of treating separate samples of the protein with 2 or more enzymes?
A)The products are homogeneous.
B)The products are sequenceable without further chromatography.
C)The products are fragments with the same N- and C-terminal amino acids.
D)The products are fragments with sequence overlaps.
Q2) Which of the following treatments is NOT a useful method for dissociating a heteromultimeric protein during sequencing?
A)high salt concentrations
B)6 N HCl at 110°C for 24 hours
C)8 M urea
D)6 M guanidinium chloride
Q3) Which of the following proteases can be used to identify the C-terminal residue of a polypeptide?
A)chymotrypsin
B)carboxypeptidase
C)trypsin
D)elastase
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Q1) Which combination of atoms forms the resonance structure within the "amide plane"?
A)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO-C-C<sub> </sub>H
B)C<sub> </sub>H-NH-CO
C)C<sub> </sub>-NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
D)NH-CO-C<sub> </sub>
Q2) Which of the following does the tertiary structure of proteins NOT depend on?
A)Protein structure depends on primary structure.
B)Secondary structures form whenever possible.
C)Proteins are stable as a single-layer structure.
D)Peptide segments between secondary structures are short.
Q3) How are the hydrophobic residues typically arranged in antiparallel -sheets?
A)on both sides of the sheet
B)in the plane of the sheet
C)on one side of the sheet
D)unevenly distributed on either side of the sheet
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Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Q1) Which form of D-glucose does NOT exist as a result of mutarotation?
A)L-glucopyranose
B)b-anomer
C)free aldehyde
D)a-anomer
Q2) ?-D-Glucopyranose in the chair form is the most widely occurring form of glucose in nature.Which of the following is one of its characteristics?
A)The anomeric carbon has a hydroxyl that is below the plane of the chair.
B)It forms a 5-membered ring.
C)Carbon 6 is below the plane of the chair.
D)All the -OH groups are equatorial.
Q3) Which of the following compounds is typical of the oligosaccharide components found in beans,etc.,that are not digested in the stomach,but are digested by bacteria in the intestines,causing flatulence?
A)dextrantriose
B)melezitose
C)maltose
D)stachyose
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Chapter 8: Lipids
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a designation for a fatty acid with 18 carbons and 1 double bond?
A)linoleic acid
B)cis-9-octadecenoic acid
C)oleic acid
D)elaidic acid
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of glycerophospholipids?
A)They are essential components of cell membranes
B)They also called sphingolipids.
C)They are made up of 1,2-diacylglycerol and two phosphate groups.
D)They are members of the steroid family.
Q3) Which of the following products are generated when triacylglycerols undergo saponification?
A)fatty acid and glycerol
B)fatty alcohols and fatty acids
C)salts of fatty acids and fatty alcohols
D)salts of fatty acids and glycerol
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Q1) What is the major circulatory complex for cholesterol and cholesterol esters ("bad cholesterol")?
A)chylomicron
B)HDL
C)LDL
D)VLDL
Q2) Which of the following compounds is correctly paired with its effect upon fatty acid synthesis?
A)palmitoyl CoA: activates
B)glucagon: activates
C)insulin: inhibits
D)citrate: activates
Q3) Which of these statements regarding phosphorylation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase is correct?
A)Phosphorylation causes activation only in the presence of palmitoyl-CoA.
B)Phosphorylation is a result of insulin binding to its receptor.
C)High [citrate] inhibits the phosphorylated form.
D)Phosphorylation causes separation of the polymeric form of the enzyme to inactive protomers.
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Ionophore antibiotics are small-molecule toxins produced by microorganisms to facilitate ion transport across membranes.Which of the following antibiotics is NOT an ionophore?
A)actinomycin
B)valinomycin
C)nonactin
D)monensin
Q2) Flippases are enzymes that flip cellular components.Which of the following best describes their mechanism of action?
A)flipping fatty acids from one position on glycerol to another position
B)flipping glucose from a- to b-glucose
C)flipping amino acids from one position to another in a protein
D)flipping phospholipids across to the other side of a membrane
Q3) How do micelles differ from lipid bilayers?
A)They are self-limiting structures.
B)They form spontaneously.
C)They are stable in aqueous solution.
D)They often transform into vesicles.
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Q1) A muscarinic receptor is a subclass of acetylcholine receptor.Which of the following molecules inhibits the receptor?
A)muscarine
B)acetylcholine
C)GABA
D)atropine
Q2) Which of the following explains how extracellular hormone binding activates intracellular tyrosine kinase activity?
A)by conformational change-induced active site activation
B)by conformational change-induced oligomeric association and phosphorylation
C)by induced mRNA synthesis
D)by activation of specific phospholipases
Q3) Which of the following molecule(s)is increased in the brain as a result of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor acting as an antidepressant?
A)insulin
B)tricyclics
C)catecholamine
D)tubulin
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the relationships between [S],K<sub>m</sub>,and V<sub>m </sub>?
A)As the [S] is increased,v approaches the limiting value,Vmax.
B)K<sub>m</sub> = V<sub>max</sub>/2.
C)The rate of the reaction,v,follows a first-order rate equation: v = K'[A] and K' = V<sub>max</sub>/K<sub>m</sub>.
D)The rate of product formed,v,is at V<sub>max</sub> when [S] >> K<sub>m</sub>.
Q2) How do catalysts work to accelerate a chemical reaction?
A)They raise the average energy of the reactants.
B)They raise the overall free energy change of the reaction
C)They lower the energy of activation.
D)They lower the overall free energy change of the reaction.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding non-competitive inhibition?
A)Non-competitive inhibitors interact with the enzyme as well as the enzyme-substrate complex.
B)Increasing the concentration of [S] can overcome the inhibition.
C)The V<sub>max</sub> value does not remain the same as for a reaction that is not inhibited.
D)The inhibitor can cause a conformational change in the enzyme.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid side chains is often involved in general acid-base catalysis because its pK is near 7?
A)cysteine
B)aspartate
C)histidine
D)lysine
Q2) Which of the following pairs below forms a low-barrier hydrogen bond?
A)Asp<sup>102 </sup>and Ser<sup>195</sup>
B)Asp<sup>102</sup> and His<sup>57</sup>
C)His<sup>57</sup> and Ser<sup>195</sup>
D)Ser<sup>195</sup> and carbonyl oxygen in the peptide bond
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of metal ion catalysis?
A)increased acidity of a nucleophile with an ionizable proton
B)metal ion requirement to maintain the stable,native state of the enzyme
C)strongly metal binding,perhaps not only during the catalytic cycle
D)electrophilic catalysis,stabilizing the increased electron density or negative charge that can develop during a reaction
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Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of regulatory enzymes?
A)Pathway end products may act as allosteric inhibitors.
B)v versus [S] plots are sigmoid shaped or S shaped.
C)They may be stimulated by allosteric activators.
D)They are monomeric enzymes with a single regulated active site.
Q2) Which of the following conditions causes cell sickling in sickle cell anemia?
A)interaction of oxyHb S with the cell membrane
B)precipitation of deoxyHb S into long,chain-like fibres
C)formation of oxyHb S complexes and subsequent cell disruption
D)precipitation of Hb S-Hb A hybrid molecules
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of allosteric enzymes?
A)Effectors may show stimulatory or inhibitory activity.
B)They have multiple subunits.
C)They obey Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
D)Binding of 1 subunit impacts binding of substrate to other subunits.
Q4) Which of the following regarding enzyme regulation is correct?
A)The activity of an enzyme is covalently affected by allosteric regulators.
B)Enzymes can be activated by the products they produce.
C)Enzymes can only be inactivated by the addition of a functional group.
D)Coenzyme and substrate availability can regulate enzyme reaction rate.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following troponin subunits is responsible for inhibiting actin-myosin binding?
A)troponin C
B)troponin M
C)troponin G
D)troponin I
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the bands observed by electron microscopy of myofibrils?
A)I bands show a hexagonal array of thick filaments.
B)Thin filaments are composed mainly of actin,troponin,and tropomyosin.
C)H zones contain an array of thick filaments that are composed mainly of myosin.
D)Thick filaments are joined by cross-bridges.
Q3) Which of the following features is a similarity between Rep helicase of E.coli and kinesin?
A)the capacity to move organelles
B)ring-like structures that encircle the substrate
C)2 subunits,1 of which is always bound to the polymer at any moment
D)tubulin binding heads that hydrolyze ATP
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements defines an amphibolic pathway?
A)a pathway found in animals living in both land and water
B)a pathway that is carried out in both water and organic solvents
C)a pathway found on both sides of the mitochondrial membrane
D)a pathway that is both anabolic and catabolic in nature
Q2) What of the following arenutritional benefit(s)provided by foods high in fibre?
A)increased speed of digestion
B)stimulation of regular functions of the colon and slowing the rate of absorption of certain foods
C)growth of microorganisms that utilize fibre
D)increased vitamin release from complexes with fibre
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a coenzyme with an adenine nucleotide portion?
A)ATP
B)NADH
C)FMNH
D)FADH
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18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzed reaction?
A)endergonic
B)"priming reaction"
C)"valve" controlling the rate of glycolysis
D)commits the cell to metabolize glucose
Q2) Which of the following is the first intermediate of glycolysis with free energy of hydrolysis more negative than that of ATP?
A)glucose-6-phosphate
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
C)dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D)1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
Q3) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reversible reaction that is an equilibrium-controlled step of glycolysis?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)aldolase
C)phosphofructokinase-1
D)glucokinase
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Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct for pyruvate carboxylase?
A)It carries out an anaplerotic reaction.
B)It resides in mitochondria of plants,but not animals.
C)It contains covalently bound biotin.
D)It has an absolute allosteric requirement for acetyl-CoA.
Q2) Which molecule is generated between succinyl-CoA and ATP in mammals to "preserve" the energy of the thioester bond?
A)a-ketoglutarate
B)phosphohistidine
C)citrate
D)acetyl-CoA
Q3) Which of these enzymes catalyzes the reaction CO + PEP + GDP OAA + GTP?
A)PEP carboxylase
B)PEP carboxykinase
C)malic enzyme
D)pyruvate carboxylase
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is a property of ATP synthase?
A)The F<sub>1</sub> subunit is attached to the peripheral membrane protein F<sub>0</sub>.
B)The ring of c subunits forms a rotor with respect to the alpha subunits.
C)The F<sub>0</sub> subunit is hydrophilic.
D)Alpha-subunits have the catalytic site for ATP synthesis.
Q2) Which of the following molecules is the electron donor to Complex III?
A)cytochrome c
B)UQH
C)NADH
D)FADH
Q3) How many electrons are required for the complete reduction of 1 molecule of oxygen gas?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is the product of cyclic photophosphorylation?
A)NADPH
B)molecular oxygen
C)ATP
D)electron gradient
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a feature of cyclic photophosphorylation?
A)Oxygen is evolved.
B)It utilizes cyt b<sub>6 </sub>of cyt f / cyt b<sub>6</sub> complex.
C)It does not utilize ferredoxin.
D)PS I is involved.
Q3) Which of the following structures is formed in chloroplasts when the thylakoid membrane is organized into paired folds?
A)stroma
B)lamellae
C)porin
D)calcium channel
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Chapter
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Q1) Which of the following is absolutely essential for the activation of pyruvate carboxylase?
A)high concentrations of acetyl-CoA
B)high levels of oxaloacetate
C)high levels of TCA cycle intermediates
D)high levels of citrate
Q2) Which tandem enzyme controls the cellular levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
F-2,6-BP?
A)fructokinase and F-2,6-BPase
B)F-2,6-BPase and PFK-2
C)PFK-1 and F-2,6-BPase
D)PFK-2 and fructokinase
Q3) Glucose-6-phosphatase is located in the endoplasmic reticulum.What does the enzyme produce in vesicles that diffuse to the plasma membrane,releasing their contents into the blood stream?
A)lactate
B)glucose-6-phosphate
C)sucrose
D)glucose
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following TCA cycle intermediates is propionyl-CoA ultimately converted to?
A)citrate
B)isocitrate
C)succinyl-CoA
D)succinate
Q2) Which of the following regarding methylmalonyl-CoA mutase is correct?
A)does hemolytic cleavage of C-C bond
B)is vitamin B -dependent
C)has classic B -enzyme catalyzed rearrangement
D)produces succinyl-CoA
Q3) How are ketone bodies transported to the tissues for utilization?
A)complexed to serum albumin
B)incorporated into VLDLs
C)complexed to fatty acid-binding protein
D)freely dissolved in serum
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Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following describes how control over nitrogenase activity accomplished?
A)NH prevents expression of the genes that encode nitrogenase.
B)ATP serves as an allosteric activator.
C)AMP serves as an allosteric inhibitor.
D)Phosphorylation prevents activity.
Q2) Herbicides (e.g.,"Roundup")inhibit biosynthesis of "essential" amino acids.Which of the following explains why these herbicides,however,relatively safe for animal exposure?
A)They lack the enzymes for photosynthesis.
B)They lack the enzymes for the glyoxylate cycle.
C)They lack the enzymes for the glutamine synthesis pathway .
D)They lack the enzymes for the Phe,Val,Leu,Ile,and His biosynthetic pathways.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a part of the degradation pathway of valine,isoleucine,and methionine leading to succinyl-CoA?
A)biotin and ATP
B)acetyl-CoA
C)methylmalonyl-CoA
D)propionyl-CoA
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Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is/are released upon complete hydrolysis of nucleic acids?
A)ribose from DNA
B)amino acids
C)2-deoxyribose from RNA
D)phosphoric acid
Q2) Which of the following best describes cAMP and cGMP?
A)inhibitors
B)phosphomonoesters
C)phosphodiesters
D)nucleosides
Q3) What type of bond links the nitrogenous base to the nucleotide sugar?
A) -anhydride
B) -N-amide
C) -N-acetyl (glycosidic)
D) -N-hemiacetal
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following major interactions assist in folding components of the secondary structure of tRNA together and bending the cloverleaf into a stable L-shaped tertiary form?
A)van der Waals
B)ionic
C)base-pairing
D)electrostatic interactions
Q2) The hyperchromic shift occurs when dsDNA is denatured.At what wavelength is there an increase in the absorption as a result of this shift?
A)200 nm
B)220 nm
C)240 nm
D)260 nm
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA polymerase?
A)copies the sequence of nucleotides of one strand in a complementary fashion
B)requires a primer with a free 5'-OH end,but the 3'-end may be phosphorylated
C)copies the sequence of nucleotides of one strand to form two new strands
D)synthesizes new strands by adding successive nucleotides in the 3'?5' direction
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Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following is a result of high ATP levels with respect to the regulation of ribonucleotide reductase?
A)an increase in the concentration of dADP
B)decreased dTTP concentration
C)oxidation of UDP and CDP to dUDP and dCDP
D)a rise in dGTP levels
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic characteristic of xanthine oxidase?
A)present in small amounts in liver,intestinal mucosa,and milk
B)uses H O to produce molecular oxygen
C)possesses an electron-transport chain with FAD,Fe-S cluster,and molybdenum cofactor
D)involved in production of urea
Q3) Which of the following is the mechanism of action of 5-fluorouracil?
A)competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase
B)competitive inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase
C)suicide substrate for thymidylate synthase
D)non-competitive inhibitor of thioredoxin reductase
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a strategy for human gene therapy?
A)use of transcription factors
B)incorporation into expression vectors
C)transfer into patient cells
D)introduction of transformed stem cells
Q2) Which of the following is the best procedure in order to position a gene in an expression vector downstream from a promoter (i.e.,perform directional cloning)?
A)Use a vector with 2 sites for the same restriction endonuclease.
B)Treat the gene with DNase I.
C)Restrict both the gene and the plasmid with 1 restriction endonuclease,and then screen all colonies for those that express the gene.
D)Restrict each end of the DNA fragment (gene)with a different restriction endonuclease,and do likewise for the plasmid.
Q3) What is PCR-based mutagenesis used to create?
A)specifically altered proteins
B)generally modified plasmid vectors
C)mutant bacterial strains
D)mutant DNA libraries
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Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Q1) UV light promotes the formation of covalent bonds between nearby thymine residues in a DNA strand.Which of the following structures is created as a result of this?
A)a cyclobutyl ring called a thymidine trimer
B)a cyclohexyl ring called a thymidine trimer
C)a cyclobutyl ring called a thymidine dimer
D)a cyclohexyl ring called a thymidine dimer
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a part of the prereplication complex (pre-RC)in the initiation of replication in yeast?
A)MCM complex
B)CDKs
C)Cdc6p
D)ORC
Q3) Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in dsDNA where a 3'-OH and 5'-phosphate are juxtapositioned?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA gyrase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)DNA ligase
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Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor or subunit contained within the E.coli RNA polymerase holoenzyme in prokaryotic organisms?
A) (rho)
B) (alpha)
C) (beta)
D) <sup> '</sup> (beta prime)
Q2) Which of the following terms for gene expression is often responsive to small molecules that increase synthesis of enzymes for metabolism of a certain substrate?
A)autoregulation
B)co-induction
C)induction
D)repression
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of rho ( )factor?
A)It winds transcript and template to free nascent RNA.
B)It recognizes and binds U-rich regions of RNA transcripts.
C)Its binding regions must be ribosome free.
D)It advances in the 3' 5' direction to the transcription bubble.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which amino acid residue is used at the beginning of protein synthesis in bacterial cells?
A)methionine
B)formylmethionine
C)cysteine
D)phosphoserine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a dominant mechanism for control of eukaryotic peptide chain initiation?
A)allosteric regulation
B)cofactor availability control
C)phosphorylation/dephosphorylation
D)competitive inhibition
Q3) Which of the following is a protein synthesis inhibitor that catalytically inactivates 28S rRNA and is very toxic in eukaryotic cells?
A)ricin
B)puromycin
C)cycloheximide
D)tetracycline
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT stored in P-bodies?
A)CCR4-NOT
B)DCP1/DCP2
C)repressed mRNAs
D)AREs
Q2) Which of the following techniques is used to determine the steady-state level of a particular mRNA at any given time?
A)Southern blot analysis
B)Northern blot analysis
C)SDS-PAGE
D)column chromatography
Q3) Which of the following carriers of siRNA is NOT correctly paired with its mechanism of delivery?
A)chemically synthesized siRNA: transfection protocol
B)lentivirus: transfection only into dividing cells
C)adenovirus: transient expression with DNA integration
D)retrovirus: high transfection efficiency
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Page 33
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of HtrA proteases?
A)chaperones at low temperatures
B)ATP-dependent
C)proteases at low temperatures
D)bind folded proteins
Q2) In which of the following macromolecular structures is protein degradation compartmentalized?
A)ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum
B)ribosomes and Golgi
C)proteasomes and mitochondria
D)proteasomes and lysosomes
Q3) Which of the following is the proper sequence for transport of inner mitochondrial membrane proteins?
A)TOM;TIM23
B)SAM;TOM;TIM22
C)TOM;TIM22
D)SAM;TOM;TIM23
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT paired with their preferred substrate?
A)brain: glucose
B)heart: fatty acids
C)resting skeletal muscle: glucose
D)adipose tissue: fatty acids
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic associated with "brown fat"?
A)high levels of mitochondria rich in cytochromes
B)absence of uncoupler protein-1,thermogenin,in the mitochondrial inner membrane
C)energy from oxidation converted to heat
D)found in newborns and hibernating animals
Q3) In which area is glucose NOT pivotal to adipocyte metabolism?
A)formation of DHAP for reduction and esterification of fatty acids
B)provision of glucose-6-phosphate for generating NADPH from the pentose phosphate pathway
C)synthesis of ketone bodies
D)conversion of glucose to fatty acids for storage and export
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