Molecular Biology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that underlie the structure and function of living cells. This course covers fundamental topics such as the structure and replication of DNA, transcription and translation processes, gene regulation, protein synthesis, and molecular techniques used in modern research laboratories. Students will gain insights into how molecular interactions govern cellular processes and will learn experimental approaches utilized in molecular biology studies, preparing them for advanced coursework or research in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution
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Q1) Mutations are often viewed as negative events,and they are nearly always bad for an organism.Paradoxically,without mutations there would be no evolution,and so they are essential.Explain how this is so.
Answer: Variation is introduced.So even though mutations are often viewed as negative events,all variation that we see around us originally came from mutations.
Q2) Which of the following is/are TRUE of the DNA structure solved by Watson and Crick?
A)It is a double-helical structure.
B)Sugar-phosphate backbone is always toward the outside of the DNA.
C)There are three hydrogen bonds between A and T and two hydrogen bonds between C and G.
D)All of the answer options are correct.
E)It is a double-helical structure with the sugar-phosphate backbone always toward the outside of the DNA.
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) A plant is heterozygous at three loci.How many different gamete genotypes can it theoretically produce with respect to these three loci?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)8
E)16
Answer: D
Q2) If a plant of genotype A/a is selfed,and numerous offspring are scored,what proportion of the progeny is expected to have homozygous genotypes?
A)0
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes
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Q1) What process occurring during meiosis ensures independent assortment?
A)the arrangement of homologous chromosomes on the metaphase plate
B)the fusion of male and female gametes
C)the pairing of homologous chromosomes in prophase
D)the replication of DNA and formation of sister chromatids
E)the "splitting apart" of sister chromatids in anaphase
Answer: A
Q2) If an individual has 10 gene pairs,how many different gametes can be formed if 5 of the gene pairs are homozygous and the remaining 5 gene pairs are heterozygous?
A)20
B)32
C)60
D)64
E)1024
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by
Recombination
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Q1) In a cross in which there is a mean crossover frequency of 0.9 between two marker loci,the recombinant frequency for those loci will be:
A)5%.
B)10%.
C)30%.
D)45%.
E)90%.
Q2) In one short chromosome arm the average frequency of crossovers per meiosis was measured to be 0.5.What proportion of meioses will have no crossovers at all in this region?
A)0.40
B)0.52
C)0.60
D)0.74
E)0.90
Q3) Draw a linkage map or maps consistent with the following recombination frequencies:
a)A-B 30%,A-C 50%,B-C 50%,B-D 50%,A-D 50%,C-D 15%
b)A-B 30%,A-C 50%,B-C 20%,B-D 35%,A-D 50%,C-D 15%
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extraterrestrial scientist is trying to obtain a genetic map of a newly discovered bacterium using standard techniques such as interrupted conjugation and Hfr mapping.She is particularly interested in three loci (ata,tic,and lan)encoding proteins that are required for the synthesis of atanine,ticovine,and lancytrine (three essential extraterrestrial amino acids),respectively.With the help of interrupted-conjugation experiments,the scientist determines that ata is the last marker to enter the recipient bacterium.
She now sets up a cross between a wild-type Hfr strain that is tertacycline sensitive and an ata<sup>-</sup>tic<sup>-</sup>lan<sup>-</sup> F<sup>-</sup> strain that is tetracycline resistant.5000 exconjugants are recovered on minimal medium plus tetracycline,ticovine,and lancytrine,and subsequently replicated onto a variety of media. The results are as follows:
- minimal medium and tetracycline: 4704 colonies grow;
- minimal medium plus lancytrine and tetracycline: 4708 colonies grow;
- minimal medium plus tetracycline and ticovine: 4900 colonies grow.
a)Draw a genetic map of these three loci (including all the map distances).
b)Why is the scientist using tetracycline on her plates (what is the purpose)?
c)Why is she recovering the exconjugants on plates that lack atanine?
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Chapter 6: Gene Interaction
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Q1) In Drosophila melanogaster,the dominant allele Cy results in curly wings.Interestingly,however,temperature also plays a significant role on the wing phenotype. \(\begin{array}{llc}
\text { Genotype } & \text { Temperature at } & \text { Proportion of individual } \\ &\text { which raised }&\text { with curly wings }\\
C y^{+} / C y^{+} \text {(wild type) } & 17^{\circ} \mathrm{C} & 0 \% \\
C y^{+} / C y^{+} \text {(wild type) } & 26^{\circ} \mathrm{C} & 0 \% \\
C y / C y^{+} \text {(mutant) } & 17^{\circ} \mathrm{C} & 15 \% \\
C y / C y^{+} \text {(mutant) } & 26^{\circ} \mathrm{C} & 100 \% \end{array}\)
Based on this information we can say that:
A)the expressivity and penetrance of the Cy allele are temperature-dependent.
B)the expressivity of the Cy allele is incomplete.
C)the expressivity of the Cy allele is temperature-dependent.
D)the penetrance of the Cy allele is incomplete.
E)the penetrance of the Cy allele is temperature-dependent.
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Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication
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Q1) Which statement below best describes the situation between nucleotides on opposite strands in a DNA molecule?
A)A-T and C-G bonding between opposite strands involves two hydrogen bonds for either pair.
B)A-T and C-G bonding between opposite strands involves three hydrogen bonds for either pair.
C)A-T bonding between opposite strands involves two hydrogen bonds,whereas G-C bonding between strands involves three hydrogen bonds.
D)A-T bonding between opposite strands involves three hydrogen bonds,whereas G-C bonding between strands involves two hydrogen bonds.
Q2) Telomeres regulate the replication of the ends of chromosomes in eukaryotes.Why is this structure implicated in human aging?
Q3) Imagine it is the early 1900s and the nature of genetic material is not yet known.You believe that proteins (polypeptides)are the most likely candidates for storing heritable information,rather than DNA (which you regard as some kind of macromolecule used to store hydrocarbons).Make an argument supporting this position.
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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing
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Q1) Which of the following statement/s about RNA pol II is/are FALSE?
A)RNA pol II transcribes protein-encoding genes.
B)General transcription factors (GTFs)help RNA pol II to position at the promoter start to initiate transcription.
C)RNA pol II adds new nucleotides to the 3 end of the transcript.
D)The CTD domain of RNA pol II coordinates cotranscriptional modifications.
E)RNA pol II reads the template DNA strand in a 5 -to-3 direction during transcription.
Q2) In eukaryotic species,three separate RNA polymerases transcribe different categories of genes.RNA polymerase III is known to primarily transcribe:
A)messenger RNAs.
B)protein-encoding genes.
C)most ribosomal RNAs.
D)transfer RNAs and small nuclear RNAs.
E)genes responsible for DNA replication.
Q3) What are the three major classes of functional RNAs? Briefly describe the role of each class of functional RNA.
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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis
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Q1) Degeneracy in the genetic code is best illustrated by:
A)stop codons.
B)threonine codons.
C)tryptophan codons.
D)methionine codons.
E)operator sequences.
Q2) Which could be an anticodon for the amino acid isoleucine?
A)UAA
B)UAG
C)UAU
D)UAA and UAG
E)UAA,UAG,and UAU
Q3) You believe you created a protein translation machine that operates outside of the cell.If you combine the "translation machine" with an mRNA and charged tRNAs,a protein product is generated.However,as you do additional experiments,you find that though the correct amino acids are joined together,the protein is nonfunctional.What might be missing in your system,causing these synthesized proteins to lack activity?
Q4) Distinguish between tRNAs and rRNAs.What does it mean for an RNA to be functional?
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Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation
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Q1) A wild-type Aspergillus strain is transformed with a plasmid carrying a hygromycin resistance allele,and cells are plated on hygromycin.One resistant colony showed an aberrant type of aerial hyphae.When crossed to wild type,the progeny were 1/2 normal hyphae,Hyg sensitive,and 1/2 aberrant hyphae,Hyg-resistant.The probable explanation is that:
A)the plasmid was inserted in a gene for normal hyphal development.
B)the plasmid interfered with hyphal development.
C)a mutation arose in a gene for hyphal development on the plasmid.
D)a mutation arose in a gene for hyphal development on a recipient chromosome.
E)the recipient was a heterokaryon carrying some mutant nuclei.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of a cDNA clone?
A)cDNAs are generally copies of mRNA from expressed genes.
B)Reverse transcriptase activity is required for cDNA cloning.
C)cDNA clones lack exons,as introns are spliced together before cloning.
D)cDNAs are typically smaller than the chromosomal sequence for a particular gene.
E)cDNAs can be fused to a promoter to enable expression of the encoded gene.
Q3) Human insulin can be made purer,and at a lower cost,using recombinant DNA technology.What sort of DNA clone might be ligated into a bacterial expression plasmid to be used in this strategy?
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) The trp operon is controlled by:
A)Trp repressor.
B)attenuation.
C)catabolite activator protein (CAP).
D)Trp repressor and catabolite activator protein (CAP).
E)Trp repressor and attenuation.
Q2) post-translational control of biosynthetic pathway
A)temporal control
B)positive control
C)negative control
D)inducible
E)noninducible
F)repressible
G)constitutive
H)operator
I)repressor
J)effector molecule
K)feedback inhibition
L)suppressor mutation
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In addition to yeast cells,Gal4 has been shown to activate transcription in:
A)insect cells.
B)mouse cells.
C)human cells.
D)insect,mouse,and human cells.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) What portion of a histone is typically modified by acetylation/de-acetylation?
A)acidic amino acid residues in the "head" region of the histone
B)basic amino acid residues in the "head" region of the histone
C)basic amino acid residues in the "tail" region of the histone
D)acidic amino acid residues in the "head" region and basic amino acid residues in the "tail" region
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) The ________________ is a cis-acting element that binds RNA polymerase II.
A)promoter
B)enhancer
C)promoter-proximal element
D)GC-rich box
E)All of the answer options are correct.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development
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Q1) The class of genes required that act at a double-segment periodicity is the:
A)maternal-effect genes.
B)gap genes.
C)pair-rule genes.
D)segment polarity genes.
E)Hox genes.
Q2) The early Drosophila embryo has multiple nuclei within a single cytoplasm and is considered a:
A)coenocyte.
B)hyphae.
C)syncytium.
D)chorion.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) The maternal-effect Bicoid gene codes for:
A)a signal protein.
B)a serine protease.
C)a DNA-binding transcription factor.
D)a cell-to-cell junction protein.
E)a transmembrane protein.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) Which of the following is/are FALSE concerning the comparisons between genetic,physical,and cytogenetic maps?
A)The distance between two linked markers is the same in genetic and physical maps because crossing over occurs with equal frequency along the entire length of the chromosome.
B)Restriction maps,contig maps,and STS maps are examples of physical maps.
C)In physical maps,the distances between markers are given in megabases (Mb)where 1 Mb is approximately equal to 1 cM.
D)The banding patterns of chromosomes created by different staining techniques are used in constructing cytogenetic maps.
E)In genetic maps,the distances between various markers (for example,genes or RFLPs)are given in map units or centiMorgans.
Q2) Deducing the protein encoding genes from genomic sequences involves:
A)ORF detection.
B)direct evidence from cDNA sequences.
C)predictions of binding site.
D)predictions based on codon bias.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements
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Q1) In D.melanogaster,when P cytotype (lab stock)females are crossed to M cytotype (wild)males,the resulting F<sub>1</sub> progeny are:
A)normal.
B)defective.
C)normal:defective in a 1:1 ratio.
D)normal:defective in a 1:2:1 ratio.
E)normal:defective in a 3:1 ratio.
Q2) Hybridization of single-stranded wild-type DNA with DNA from mutations caused by IS elements characteristically shows (through electron microscopy):
A)chi structures.
B)unpaired tails.
C)a single-stranded loop representing IS DNA.
D)a single-stranded loop representing wild-type DNA.
E)theta structures.
Q3) a)What is the C-value paradox?
b)What is the explanation for the C-value paradox?
Q4) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.
Q5) Compare and contrast IS elements,simple transposons,and composite transposons.Use diagrams to help in the comparison.
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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is/are MOST likely to be caused by excessive exposure to UV light?
A)Cockayne syndrome
B)Huntington disease
C)lung cancer
D)skin cancer
E)xeroderma pigmentosum
Q2) A mutation that changes the codon UAA to the codon UAG in a mammalian cell line is called a(n):
A)synonymous mutation.
B)suppressor mutation.
C)nonsense mutation.
D)missense mutation.
E)antisense mutation.
Q3) Both cytosines and 5' methyl-cytosines are susceptible to spontaneous deamination,which leads to GT to AT transitions.Do you expect cytosine nucleotides to be a "hot spot" for spontaneous mutations? Briefly explain your answer.
Q4) How do mutation and DNA damage differ?
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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes
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Q1) Suppose that in Guinea pigs ABO blood types are determined like in humans,where I<sup>A</sup> and I<sup>B</sup> are expressed codominantly and i (blood type O)is recessive to both.During a set of routine crosses you notice something unusual: Repeated matings between a certain female with blood type AB and a certain male with blood type A produces F<sub>1</sub> Guinea pigs of all four blood types in the following ratios: 5A : 2B : 4AB : 1O.The genotypes of the parents are most likely: A)I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>B</sup> for the female and I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>A</sup> for the male.
B)I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>B</sup> for the female and I<sup>A</sup>/i for the male. C)I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>B</sup>/i for the female and I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>A</sup> for the male.
D)I<sup>A</sup>/I<sup>B</sup>/i for the female and I<sup>A</sup>/i for the male.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q2) An allotetraploid plant with 2n = 30 is backcrossed to one of its progenitor species that has an n = 8.A sterile progeny is produced.How many chromosomes will this sterile individual possess,and what are the chromosome numbers of the two progenitor species?
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Population Genetics
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Q1) If two populations of birds with frequencies of an allele a of 0.2 and 0.3 are forced together by unusually high winds,the new frequency of the a allele in the combined population will be:
A)0.2.
B)0.25.
C)0.3.
D)0.5.
E)It is impossible to determine unless we know the population sizes.
Q2) After a thorough analysis of the DNA from 150 university students,a small region of the human X chromosome is found to have three SNP sites.Two of those sites have three different variants,while the third site has four.How many different haplotypes were present in each student's cells?
A)1 or 2
B)3 or 6
C)10 or 20
D)32 or 64
E)It is impossible to determine based on this information alone.
Q3) How is the genetic composition of a population defined?
Q4) What processes increase genetic variation in a given population?
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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) A population of beetles has a mean weight of 30 g.In a controlled,constant environment,individuals of 12 g are selected and allowed to interbreed,and their progeny have a mean weight of 21 g with a variance of 4.5 g<sup>2</sup>.What is the additive variance in this experiment?
A)0.50
B)0.57
C)0.70
D)1.75
E)2.25
Q2) The mean weight in a population of fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster)grown in identical conditions is 1.10 mg,and the standard deviation is 0.05.The heaviest fly in this population weighs 1.30 mg.The genetic deviation of this individual is:
A)0.05 mg.
B)0.15 mg.
C)0.20 mg.
D)0.84 mg.
E)It is impossible to determine based on these data.
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Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits
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Q1) What will determine the rate of a molecular clock for a gene that codes for a functional protein?
Q2) A strawberry breeder wants to increase the yield of strawberry plants.To do so,he selects the two highest-yielding plants from a segregating population and uses them as parents that he hopes will produce higher yielding offspring.How would you use Darwin's evolutionary theory to explain the following results?
a)The breeder was able to obtain a better-yielding offspring.
b)The breeder was unable to obtain a better-yielding offspring.
Q3) The fitness advantage of the "AS" allelic combination can be calculated by:
A)measuring O<sub>2</sub>-carrying capacity in the blood of "AS" individuals.
B)comparing the actual frequency of "AS" to the frequency predicted by the Hardy-Weinberg equation.
C)measuring the frequency of "AS" in the population.
D)infecting the blood of "AS" individuals with the parasite.
E)measuring the frequency of "AA" and subtracting that value from the frequency of "AS."
Q4) Describe the relationship between overall DNA change and functional change.
Q5) Define the molecular clock.
Q6) What is meant by the phrase,"The force of selection is myopic."?
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