Molecular Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Molecular Biology explores the molecular mechanisms that govern the structure, function, and regulation of biological macromolecules, particularly DNA, RNA, and proteins. The course delves into the principles of gene expression, genetic replication, transcription, translation, and mutation. Emphasis is placed on experimental techniques such as PCR, electrophoresis, cloning, and sequencing, as well as current applications in biotechnology, medicine, and research. By integrating theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory skills, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how molecular processes underpin life and drive advancements in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Biochemistry Life at the Molecular Level 5th Edition by Donald Voet
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Lynn Margulis' Theory of Endosymbiosis is an explanation for the origin of
A)the endoplasmic reticulum.
B)the nucleus.
C)the mitochondria.
D)peroxisomes.
E)the Golgi apparatus.
Answer: C
Q2) Which group of organisms is not prokaryotic?
A)Fungi
B)Archaea
C)Purple bacteria
D)Cyanobacteria
E)Methanococcus
Answer: A
Q3) Carbohydrates,proteins,nucleotides,and nucleic acids are important groups of molecules found in living organisms.Which 6 elements do living organisms need to build these molecules?
Answer: C,H,O,N,S,P
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3
Chapter 2: Water
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Q1) The polarity of the O-H bond is caused by the ______ of oxygen relative to that of hydrogen.
A) hydrogen bond
B) rotational
C) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
D) H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup> </sup>
E) HPO<sub>4</sub> <sup>2 </sup>
F) disordered
G) positive entropy
H) negative entropy
I) higher electronegativity
J) insoluble
K) tetrahedral arrangement
L) acid
M) base
N) only partially ionized
Answer: I
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Chapter 3: Nucleotides, nucleic Acids, and Genetic Information
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Q1) 'AMP' is used to refer to A)adenosine.
B)adenylic acid.
C)adenomethyl purine.
D)adenine.
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Nucleoside triphosphates carry energy in the form of
A)glycosidic bonds
B)phosphoester bonds
C)phosphoanhydride bonds
D)hydrogen bonds
E)amide linkages
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Glutathione is a tripeptide containing a central ______ residue.
A) glutamate
B) uncharged
C) deprotonated
D) three
E) amino group
F) two
G) C-terminus
H) lysine
I) racemic mixture
J) cysteine
K) zero
L) protonated
M) isoleucine
N) tryptophan
O) phenylalanine
P) N-terminus
Q2) Glutamic acid is an amino acid (pK<sub>a</sub>s are 2.1,4.1 and 9.5).Calculate the isoelectric point of glutamic acid.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Proteins: Primary Structure
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Q1) In general,proteins are least soluble in water when the pH is close to the ______.
A) electrophoresis
B) hydrophobic interaction
C) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
D) three-dimensional shape
E) N-terminal amino acid
F) negative charge
G) nucleases
H) chromophore
I) foaming
J) high level expression
K) 2-mercaptoethanol
L) positive charge
M) cation exchange
N) pI
O) chymotrypsin
P) C-terminal amino acid
Q) Sodium dodecyl sulfate
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Chapter 6: Proteins: Three-Dimensional Structure
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Q1) The first step in the folding of disordered polypeptides into ordered functional protein is the formation of ______.
A)1<sup>o</sup> structure
B)2° structure
C)3° structure
D)4° structure
E)hydrogen bonds
Q2) Which of the following amino acids combinations have side chains with groups that have the greatest ability to stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein?
A)Lys and Arg
B)Cys and Glu
C)Glu and Lys
D)Gln and Glu
E)Pro and Asp
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Chapter 7: Protein Function Part I: Myoglobin and Hemoglobin
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Q1) Which of the statements about muscle contraction is not true?
A)During muscle contraction the sarcomere becomes shorter.
B)During muscle contraction the I band becomes shorter.
C)During muscle contraction the H zone becomes shorter.
D)During muscle contraction the A band becomes shorter
E)During muscle contraction the distance between the Z disk and the M disk becomes shorter.
Q2) ______of the world's human population carries an inherited variant hemoglobin gene.
A)5%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)90%
Q3) BPG stands for
A)biphenylglycine.
B)boronylphenylglutamate.
C)bisphosphoglycerate.
D)bisphenylglycerol.
E)betapropylglutamine.
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Chapter 8: Carbohydrates
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Q1) The transformation of a monosaccharide into its ______ occurs easily and does not require the assistance of a catalyst.
A)epimer
B)anomer
C)sugar alcohol
D)diastereomer
E)none of the above
Q2) Which two sugars shown in the figure above are epimers?
A)A and B
B)B and C
C)C and D
D)A and D
E)None of the above
Q3) The sialic acids
A)are important constituents of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
B)are N-acetyl glucosamine derivatives.
C)incorporate a succinic acid derivative.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 9: Lipids and Biological Membranes
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Q1) The protein that forms a transmembrane pore that allows growing polypeptides to pass through the RER membrane is called the ______.
A)signal recognition particle
B)signal peptide
C)docking protein
D)translocon
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is (are)NOT found as covalently attached anchors in lipid-linked proteins?
A)isoprenoid groups
B)fatty acids
C)cholesterol and other sterols
D)glycosylphosphatidyl inositol groups
E)All of the above are found as covalently attached anchors in lipid-linked proteins.
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11
Chapter 10: Membrane Transport
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Q1) Gap junctions
A)connect the cytoplasm to the extracellular solution thus allowing transfer of small molecules out of the cell into the extracellular solution.
B)are essential communication channels between the cell and the extracellular solution.
C)allow exchange of small molecules between cells within an organ.
D)allow intercellular exchange of macromolecules.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a passive-mediated transporter?
A)aquaporins
B)the Kv ion channel
C)GLUT1
D)lactose permease
E)none of the above
Q3) The Kv channel is transiently closed by ___________.
A)a spherical globular segment on the N-terminus
B)a C-terminal segment activated by proteolysis
C)proteoglycan residues
D)an ion larger than the selectivity filter blocking entry
E)tightly-bound Ca<sup>2+</sup>
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Enzyme Catalysis
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Q1) Which of the following would result in the greatest decrease in function of the catalytic triad found in serine proteases?
A)Mutation to Ser,Cys,Asp
B)Mutation to Ser,His,Asp
C)Mutation to Cys,His,Asp
D)Mutation to Ser,His,Glu
E)Mutation to Cys,His,Glu
Q2) Which of the following amino acid residues would not provide a side chain for acid-base catalysis at physiological pH? (Assume pK values of each amino acid are equal to the pK value for the free amino acid in solution. )
(I)leucine
(II)lysine
(III)aspartic acid
(IV)histidine
A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)I
D)II
E)I,III
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Chapter 12: Enzyme Kinetics, inhibition and Control
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Q1) A lead compound for a new drug should bind to its target protein with a very
A) isozymes
B) [A]
C) the rate constant
D) Ping Pong
E) bimolecular
F) ES complex
G) random ordered
H) competitive inhibition
I) unimolecular
J) [A]<sup>2</sup>
K) Competitive inhibition
L) phosphorylation
M) small K<sub>S</sub>
N) large K<sub>S</sub>
O) uncompetitive inhibition
P) [B]
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Biochemical Signaling
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Q1) Which of the following is (are)associated with cAMP binding to cAMP-dependent protein kinase A?
(I)cAMP binds to the regulatory subunits.
(II)Tetrameric regulatory subunits and catalytic subunits dissociate.
(III)Catalytic subunits phosphorylate multiple targets with specific serine and threonine residues.
(IV)cAMP is membrane bound via phosphoinositol attachment.
A)I,II,III,IV
B)I,II,III
C)I,II
D)II,III,IV
E)III,IV
Q2) Which of the following activities would lead to a decrease in the level of IP<sub>3</sub> in the cytosol?
A)increased activity of inositol polyphosphate 5-phosphatase
B)increased activity of phospholipase C
C)increased activation of protein kinase C
D)increased Ca<sup>2+</sup><sup> </sup>concentration
E)all of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) Organisms that can grow in either the presence or absence of oxygen are classified as
A)obligate aerobes
B)facultative anaerobes
C)autotrophs
D)heterotrophs
E)obligate anaerobes
Q2) Consider the following metabolic reaction: Succinyl-CoA + Acetoacetate \(\to\) Acetoacetyl-CoA + Succinate \(\Delta\)G°' = -1.25 kJ/mol
What is the K<sub>eq</sub> for this reaction at 25°C?
A)1)66
B)0)602
C)1)00
D)4)22 x 10<sup>2</sup>
E)3)21
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16
Chapter 15: Glucose Catabolism
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Q1) Glycolytic synthesis of ATP occurs via A)oxidation.
B)reduction.
C)substrate-level phosphorylation.
D)oxidative phosphorylation.
E)photophosphorylation.
Q2) If glucose labeled at the C-1 position with <sup>14</sup>C passes through glycolysis,on which carbon of pyruvate will the radiolabel be found?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)It will be released in CO<sub>2</sub> rather than present in pyruvate.
E)Not enough information is given to predict.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the control exhibited by phosphofructokinase (PFK)?
A)It is allosterically inhibited by ATP and citrate.
B)It is allosterically activated by F2,6P.
C)It is allosterically activated by ATP and citrate.
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
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Chapter 16: Glycogen Metabolism and Gluconeogenesis
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Q1) Which of the following will NOT activate glycogen phosphorylase in the liver?
A)epinephrine
B)glucagon
C)eating a high carbohydrate meal
D)cAMP
E)All of the above will activate glycogen phosphorylase.
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate?
A)glucose-1-isomerase
B)glucokinase
C)glucose-1-phosphatase
D)phosphoglucomutase
E)glycogen phosphorylase
Q3) Which of the following overall sequences is correct with regard to gluconeogenesis?
A)Oxaloacetate \(\to\) PEP \(\to\)G6P \(\to\) Glucose
B)Pyruvate \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) PEP \(\to\) Glucose
C)Lactate \(\to\) PEP \(\to\) Pyruvate \(\to\) G6P
D)Oxaloacetate \(\to\) F6P \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) Glucose
E)F6P \(\to\) FBP \(\to\) Glucose \(\to\) G6P
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The compound ______ is a structural analog and competitive inhibitor of the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase.
A) oxaloacetate
B) malate synthase
C) malate
D) malonate
E) Krebs
F) aconitase
G) succinyl-CoA synthetase
H) -ketoglutarate
I) carbon dioxide
J) malate dehydrogenase
K) isocitrate
L) succinate dehydrogenase
Q2) Which reaction below produces GTP in the citric acid cycle?
A)"isocitrate \(\to\) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate"
B)"\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate \(\to\) succinyl CoA"
C)"succinyl CoA \(\to\) succinate"
D)"fumarate \(\to\) malate"
E)"malate \(\to\) oxaloacetate"
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Phosphate (P<sub>i</sub>)is transported into the mitochondria from the cytosol by a phosphate carrier which is driven by the A)hydrolysis of ATP.
B)simultaneous transport of H<sup>+</sup> into the mitochondrion.
C)simultaneous transport of ADP into the mitochondrion.
D)simultaneous transport of H<sup>+</sup> out of the mitochondrion.
E)simultaneous transport of ATP out of the mitochondrion.
Q2) A typical eukaryotic cell contains up to ____ mitochondria each bound by a smooth outer membrane.
A)2
B)20
C)2000
D)20,000
E)200,000
Q3) All of the following inhibit electron transport EXCEPT
A)oxaloacetate
B)rotenone
C)anitimycin A
D)cyanide
E)All of the above inhibit electron transport,
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Synthesis of sucrose requires which of the following?
(I)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and/or dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(II)sucrose phosphate kinase
(III)sucrose phosphate phosphatase
(IV)UTP
A)I,II,III,IV
B)I,II,IV
C)I,III,IV
D)II,III
E)II,III,IV
Q2) Which of the following is(are)FALSE about photorespiration?
A)RuBP carboxylase oxygenates ribulose bisphosphate to form 2-phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate.
B)The reaction provides an additional mechanism to generate ATP and NADPH.
C)The C<sub>4</sub> cycle minimizes the need for photorespiration.
D)CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> compete for binding the RuBP carboxylase active site.
E)Photorespiration is thought to function as a protective mechanism to allow dissipation of unused energy.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The mechanism of the condensing enzyme (KS)of fatty acid synthase is best described as
A)base catalysis using a glu residue in the active site
B)acid catalysis using a glu residue in the active site
C)base catalysis using a cys residue in the active site
D)acid catalysis using a cys residue in the active site
E)covalent catalysis using a cys residue in the active site
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE regarding HMG-CoA reductase?
A)HMG-CoA reductase is highly regulated.
B)The active site is tightly bound by statins.
C)HMG-CoA reductase levels are increased as a result of high cholesterol concentrations in the ER
D)HMG-CoA reductase levels are decreased as a result of high cholesterol concentrations in the ER.
E)HMG-CoA reductase is levels are decreased by the same factor that down regulated production of the LDL receptors
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22
Chapter 21: Amino Acid Metabolism
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Q1) A number of compounds,including neurotransmitters,are synthesized from amino acids via decarboxylations.The enzymes catalyzing these steps usually use _______ as a cofactor.
A)pyridoxal-5 -phosphate
B)thiamine pyrophosphate
C)biotin
D)cobalt containing compounds [vitamin B<sub>12</sub>]
E)tetrahydrofolate
Q2) Which of the following is(are)advantages to the constant degradation and reformation of proteins?
A)Nutrients can be stored as proteins,which can be used during periods of metabolic need.
B)Damaged proteins are eliminated so they do not accumulate.
C)Metabolism can be efficiently regulated by the synthesis and degradation of enzymes.
D)All of the above are advantages.
E)None of the above is an advantage.
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Chapter 22: Mammalian Fuel Metabolism: Integration and Regulation
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Q1) The endocrine glands secrete ______ which result in numerous cellular responses.
A) -adrenergic receptor
B) -adrenergic receptor
C) Cori cycle
D) urea cycle
E) leptin
F) phosphatase
G) liver
H) hormones
I) acetyl CoA
J) ketone bodies
K) urea
L) kidney
M) brain
N) pancreas
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Chapter 23: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) John Buchanan began the elucidation of the synthesis of purine nucleotides by studying _______ excreted by pigeons fed isotopically labeled compounds.
A)"xanthine"
B)"hypoxanthine"
C)"uric acid"
D)"\(\beta\)-alanine"
E)"\(\beta\)-aminoisobutyrate"
Q2) The amino group added to the C2 position on IMP to form GMP is derived from A)"aspartate"
B)"aspargine"
C)"glutamine"
D)"\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate"
E)"arginine"
Q3) The first step in pyrimidine biosynthesis is the formation of A)carbamoyl phosphate.
B)carbamoyl aspartate.
C) -aminoisobutyrate.
D)dihydroorotate.
E)none of the above
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nucleic Acid Structure
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Q1) The chromosomes of some viruses and bacteria are ______ and often ______.
A)linear;single stranded
B)linear;supercoiled
C)circular;single stranded
D)circular;supercoiled
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the rotation of the bonds in DNA?
A)The vertex angles of the ribose rind are 108<sup>°</sup>.
B)The ribose ring always puckers at C3'.
C)Noncovalent interactions between the ribose ring and the phosphate group constrain rotation.
D)A and B
E)B and C
Q3) Heat-denatured DNA exhibits ______ UV absorbance,which is called the ______.
A)increased;hyperchromic effect
B)decreased;hyperchromic effect
C)increased;hypochromic effect
D)decreased;hypochromic effect
E)identical;renaturation effect
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Page 26
Chapter 25: DNA Replication, repair and Recombination
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Q1) Deamination of cytosine leads to the formation of A)thymine.
B)5-methylcytosine. C)uracil.
D)5-bromouracil.
E)5-methyluracil.
Q2) E.coli DNA repair enzymes act on the sequence.Which of the following will result?
A)The underlined A will be changed to a C.
B)The underlined G will be changed to a T.
C)The underlined A will be methylated.
D)The underlined G will be methylated.
E)More than one of the above is correct
Q3) Which of the following statements about the fidelity of replication is FALSE?
A)Cells maintaining an equal concentration of each dNTP helps maintain fidelity.
B)DNA polymerase catalyzes synthesis in a two-stage reaction,ensuring the proper base is added.
C)Cells viability is removed when DNA point mutations are incorporated.
D)Pol I and Pol III are both involved in increasing fidelity.
E)Specific repair systems repair and maintain DNA.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Transcription and Rna Processing
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Q1) In eukaryotes all three RNA polymerases recognize
A)the promoter sequence bound by \(\sigma\) factor.
B)a single promoter sequence named TF II D.
C)class I promoters.
D)promoters with TATA boxes.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The processing of pre-rRNAs includes ______. (I)nucleolytic cleavage.
(II)snoRNA-assisted methylation.
(III)snRNP-assisted methylation.
A)I,II
B)I,III
C)II,III
D)I,II,III
E)III only
Q3) The term rRNA refers to ______ RNA.
A)ribosomal
B)retroviral
C)recombinant
D)rho factor
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Chapter 27: Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with eukaryotic translation initiation?
A)Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B)a formylated Met tRNA<sub>f</sub><sup>met</sup>
C)base pairing between the mRNA and 16S rRNA
D)initiation factors IF-1,IF-2,and IF-3
E)all of the above
Q2) The structural similarities of EF-G and the EF-Tu·tRNA complex indicate
A)EF-G may be used as a substitute for EF-Tu.
B)EF-G may play a role in displacing the tRNA growing peptide.
C)EF-G may mediate a change in conformation that facilitates EF-Tu binding.
D)EF-G may be involved in facilitating binding of initiation factors.
E)EF-G and EF-Tu are both required for proper initiation.
Q3) Posttranslational modifications to proteins include all of the following,except A)glycosylation.
B)phosphorylation.
C)amino acid derivatization.
D)peptide joining.
E)proteolysis.
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29
Chapter 28: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Heterochromatin is
A)DNA that is tightly condensed and transcriptionally active.
B)DNA that is tightly condensed and transcriptionally inactive.
C)DNA that is not condensed and transcriptionally active.
D)DNA that is not condensed and transcriptionally inactive.
E)DNA that is not condensed,but may or may not be transcriptionally active.
Q2) The process of somatic recombination
(I)results in antibody diversity.
(II)involves selection of individual members of clustered gene sequences.
(III)involves selection and recombination of specific exons on the \(\kappa\) and/or \(\lambda\) chain.
A)I,II,III
B)I,II
C)I,III
D)II,III
E)none of the above
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