Course Introduction
Modern Biology Exam Preparation Guide
Modern Biology is an expansive field that explores the principles and mechanisms underlying life at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecological levels. This course covers foundational topics such as genetics, cell structure and function, evolution, and physiology, while integrating advances in biotechnology, genomics, and systems biology. Students will investigate the scientific methods used in biological research and examine the impact of biological discoveries on society, medicine, and the environment. Emphasis is placed on understanding key concepts, critical thinking, and practical applications of biological knowledge in contemporary scientific challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1432
Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best experimental design _____.
A)includes a large number of replicates for each condition
B)includes a control
C)alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D)includes a large number of replicates,a control,and alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
Answer: D
Q2) Your colleague proposes to test the mechanism of ant navigation by placing a food source 7 m from the nest.She will then pick up the ants from the nest and move them 4 meters from the nest (3 m from the food source).Based on the previous data,when do you expect the ants to start searching for their nest on their return trip?
A)after they have traveled 3 meters from the food source
B)after they have traveled 4 meters from the food source
C)after they have traveled 7 meters from the food source
D)All of A,B,and C are incorrect.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following tends to make chemical reactions spontaneous?
A)The reactants have lower potential energy than the products.
B)The reactants are more ordered than the products.
C)The temperature is low.
D)The pressure is low.
Answer: B
Q3) Why are some reactions exothermic?
A)The products have lower potential energy than the reactants.
B)They are spontaneous.
C)They are nonspontaneous.
D)The products have higher entropy (are more disordered)than the reactants.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cells,the activity of enzymes is often regulated by other molecules.Why is this necessary?
A)because all enzymes require some help from another molecule to function correctly
B)because other molecules are necessary to prevent enzymes from denaturing
C)because each enzyme has multiple functions
D)because it is unlikely that all reaction products are required all of the time
Answer: D
Q2) How many times does the protein in Figure 3.1 cross the cell membrane?
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)7
Answer: D
Q3) If you were reading off the sequence of amino acids in Figure 3.1 to a biologist friend,what should the first three letters be?
A)M-N-G
B)A-P-A
C)It doesn't matter,since the protein has no polarity or directionality.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A)nucleotides
B)sugars
C)amino acids
D)nitrogenous bases
Q2) Is Nakano's quote from Science consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
Q3) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?
A)beta-pleated sheet
B)double parallel helical strands
C)turn-loop-turn
D)double antiparallel helical strands
Q4) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed?
A)their methyl groups
B)their sugar groups
C)their nitrogenous bases
D)their phosphate groups
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A)the number of carbons
B)the position of the hydroxyl groups
C)the position of the carbonyl group
D)one is a ring form,the other is a linear chain
Q2) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?
A)chitin
B)cellulose
C)peptidoglycan
D)amylose
Q3) Which of the following do starch and cellulose have in common?
A)the type of glycosidic linkage used
B)the size of their monosaccharide subunits
C)the amount of hydrogen bonding that occurs between parallel strands
D)their main function in plants
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of functional group results when the alcohol group on glycerol reacts with the carboxylic acid group on a fatty acid?
A)ester
B)hydrocarbon
C)peptide bond
D)glycosidic bond
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on Rhodopsins.Which of the following best describes this particular protein?
A)integral
B)peripheral
C)external
D)internal
Q3) Which of the following substances would most likely require a protein to facilitate its diffusion across a cell membrane?
A)water
B)glycerol
C)fatty acid
D)oxygen gas (O )
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components.They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported,and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy).Yet,when they put everything together,there was no movement or transport of vesicles.What were they missing?
A)an axon
B)contractile microfilaments
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)motor proteins
Q2) Which of the following statements represents a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?
A)Prokaryotes have cells while eukaryotes do not.
B)Eukaryotic cells tend to have much more extensive inner membrane systems and larger numbers of intracellular organelles than do prokaryotes.
C)Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration,a process that requires a complex inner-membrane system.
D)Prokaryotes are generally larger in size than eukaryotes.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmodesmata are cell-cell junctions that are found between _____.
A)individual cardiac cells in heart muscle tissue
B)adjacent plant cells
C)adjacent animal cells in the same tissue type
D)the plasma membrane of actively dividing prokaryotes
Q2) For a tissue or an organ to function as a unit,_____.
A)there must be a signal molecule recognized by all cells in the tissue or organ
B)there must be cell-cell communication among the cells within a tissue or organ
C)the tissue or organ must perform similar functions
D)the tissue or organ must be composed of all of the same type of cells
Q3) Not all intercellular signals require transduction.Which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction?
A)a lipid-soluble signal
B)a signal that is weakly bound to a nucleotide
C)a signal that binds to a receptor in the cell membrane
D)a signal that binds to the ECM
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis is active when cellular energy levels are _____;the regulatory enzyme,phosphofructokinase,is _____ by ATP.
A)low;activated
B)low;inhibited
C)high;activated
D)high;inhibited
Q2) Fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons in their structures.They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation.The end products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules.What is the most likely fate of the acetyl groups?
A)They directly enter the electron transport chain.
B)They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.
C)They are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D)They directly enter the Krebs cycle.
Q3) What is the function of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?
A)It is the coenzyme of carboxylation reactions.
B)It is the coenzyme of redox reactions.
C)It is a coenzyme of decarboxylation reactions.
D)It is the coenzyme of acetylation reactions.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In autumn,the leaves of deciduous trees change colors.This is because the chlorophyll is degraded,and _____.
A)the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves
B)degraded chlorophyll changes color
C)water supply to the leaves has been reduced
D)the cells of the leaves begin to die
Q2) How does carbon fixation differ between C and C plants?
A)C plants undergo carbon fixation by carboxylation of a four-carbon substrate (oxaloacetate),while in C plants,a three-carbon compound (phosphoglycerate)is carboxylated.
B)Both C and C plants involve carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate by rubisco;but in C plants,the first stable intermediate is 3-phosphoglycerate,and in C plants,it is oxaloacetate.
C)C plants don't undergo photorespiration,but C plants do.
D)Rubisco is the primary enzyme that catalyzes carbon fixation in C plants,and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase can catalyze carbon fixation in C plants.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure of zebrafish nuclei to meiotic cytosol resulted in phosphorylation of NEP55 and L68 proteins by cyclin-dependent kinase 2.NEP55 is a protein of the inner nuclear membrane,and L68 is a protein of the nuclear lamina.What is the most likely role of phosphorylation of these proteins in the process of mitosis?
A)They enable the attachment of the spindle microtubules to kinetochore regions of the centromere.
B)They are involved in the disassembly and dispersal of the nucleolus.
C)They are involved in the disassembly of the nuclear envelope.
D)They assist in the movement of the centrosomes to opposite sides of the nucleus.
Q2) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis.Its function is analogous to _____.
A)the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells
B)the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells
C)the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells
D)the microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reproduction is associated with using the most necessary resources (e.g. ,the most nutrients or most energy)?
A)binary fission
B)asexual reproduction
C)budding
D)sexual reproduction
Q2) In the snail Pomacea patula catemacensis n = 13.What is the diploid number for this organism?
A)13
B)26
C)52
D)7
Q3) Homologous chromosomes _____.
A)are identical
B)carry information for the same traits
C)carry the same alleles
D)align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,ABO blood types refer to glyocproteins in the membranes of red blood cells.There are three alleles for this autosomal gene: IA,IB,and i.The IA allele codes for the A glycoprotein,The IB allele codes for the B glycoprotein,and the i allele doesn't code for any membrane glycoprotein.IA and IB are codominant,and i is recessive to both IA and IB.People with A type blood have the genotypes IAIA or IAi,people with type B blood are IBIB or IBi,people with type AB blood are IAIB,and people with O type blood are ii.If a woman with type AB blood marries a man with type O blood,which of the following blood types could their children possibly have?
A)A and B
B)AB and O
C)A,B,and O
D)A,B,and AB
E)A,B,AB,and O
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is synthesized through a process known as _____.
A)semiconservative replication
B)conservative replication
C)translation
D)transcription
Q2) Identify the lagging strand during duplication of DNA starting from a double helix in Figure 14.2.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q3) Bodnar et al (1998)used telomerase to extend the life span of normal human cells.Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide.How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?
A)Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.
B)Telomerase ensures that the ends of the chromosomes are accurately replicated and eliminates telomere shortening.
C)Telomerase shortens telomeres and thus delays cellular aging.
D)Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules is not required for translation?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)DNA
D)rRNA
Q2) In the Morse code,a series of dots and dashes code for letters of the alphabet.How is this analogous to the genetic code?
A)There is complementarity in the genetic code (A is complementary to T,and C is complementary to G))
B)The bases that make up DNA are coded by the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C)The machinery involved in DNA synthesis is analogous to the telegraph equipment used in sending Morse code.
D)The bases of DNA code for the more complex amino acid sequence of the various proteins found in cells.
Q3) Genotype is to _____ as phenotype is to _____.
A)DNA base sequence;amino acid sequence
B)heredity;DNA base sequence
C)gene regulation;translation
D)transcription;amino acid sequence
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If RNA polymerase is missing _____ then transcription initiation would not occur but elongation could.
A)amino acids
B)mRNA
C)sigma
D)the holoenzyme
Q2) Once a peptide has been formed between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the P site and the amino acid associated with the tRNA in the A site,which process on the list occurs next?
A)translocation
B)reading of the next codon of mRNA
C)initiation
D)The codon-anticodon hydrogen bonds holding the tRNA in the A site are broken.
Q3) Eukaryotes have three nuclear RNA polymerases.The primary function of RNA polymerase II is _____.
A)transcription of only rRNA-coding genes
B)transcription of only tRNA-coding genes
C)transcription of both rRNA- and tRNA-coding genes
D)transcription of protein-coding genes
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recall from Chapter 11 that cyclin-dependent kinases are activated when they bind to a cyclin protein.This form of regulation is _____.
A)constitutive control
B)transcriptional control
C)translational control
D)post-translational control
Q2) In the first step of their experiments,Jacob and Monod treated E.coli cells with UV light or X-rays in order to _____.
A)decrease the rate of gene expression
B)induce DNA repair enzymes
C)increase the frequency of mutations in all genes
D)selectively mutate the lac operon,leaving all other genes unmutated
Q3) An E.coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to _____.
A)never produce -galactosidase
B)always produce -galactosidase
C)be unable to transport lactose into the cell
D)be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
A)a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene
B)a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA
C)a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein
D)a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence
Q2) If a biologist wanted to analyze the evolutionary relationship in a gene type that is found in both eukaryotes and bacteria,which of the following would NOT be useful?
A)histone coding genes
B)transfer RNA coding genes
C)ribosomal RNA coding genes
D)hexokinase coding gene for glycolysis
Q3) Which of the following is false?
A)All individuals possess many proto-oncogenes.
B)Mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes are important in cancer.
C)Cancer is a single disease with one underlying molecular cause.
D)Uncontrolled cell growth alone is insufficient for the development of most cancers.
E)Most agents that cause cancer also cause mutations.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final step in a DNA sequencing reaction is to run the DNA fragments on a gel.What purpose does this serve?
A)It adds ddNTP to the end of each DNA fragment.
B)It changes the length of the DNA fragments.
C)It separates DNA fragments based on their charge.
D)It separates DNA fragments generated during the sequencing reaction based on one-nucleotide differences in their size.
Q2) Gene therapy requires _____.
A)knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene
B)an ability to introduce the wild-type allele into the patient
C)an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level,time,and site within the patient
D)the knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene and the ability to introduce the allele into the patient
E)knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene;an ability to introduce the wild-type allele into the patient;and an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level,time,and site within the patient
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al.paper and Table 20.1 How do you think putative genes were placed into the categories shown in the preceding table?
A)by searching for ORFs,especially those with translation start and stop sites
B)by searching for matches,especially of the predicted gene products,with previously identified gene products of known function
C)by expressing the cloned genes in E.coli and then running biochemical analyses of the products
D)all of the above
Q2) In comparing DNA sequences from two different eukaryotic organisms,which do you expect to vary the most?
A)sequences that code for exons
B)sequences that code for introns
C)sequences that code for a polypeptide
D)sequences that regulate transcription
E)sequences that code for micro-RNAs
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells except _____.
A)they can be found in human blastocysts
B)they retain the potential to become different types of cells
C)they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing
D)they are terminally differentiated
Q2) What is common to gap genes,segment-polarity genes,and homeotic genes?
A)They act independently of one another.
B)They code for transcription regulatory factors.
C)They can be activated at any time during development.
D)They are unique to Drosophila embryos.
Q3) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines the _____ of the embryo.
A)anterior-posterior axis
B)anterior-lateral axis
C)posterior-dorsal axis
D)posterior-ventral axis
Q4) Cloning of plants from cuttings demonstrates that _____.
A)an individual plant cell cannot de-differentiate and then redifferentiate
B)differentiated plant cells may contain embryonic mRNAs
C)plants can reverse the differentiation process
D)mature plant cells retain genetic information
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the development of specialized cells?
A)differentiation,pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination
B)differentiation,determination,morphogenesis,pattern formation
C)pattern formation,determination,morphogenesis,differentiation
D)pattern formation,morphogenesis,differentiation,determination
E)pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination,differentiation
Q2) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after it,or in conjunction with it?
A)organogenesis
B)cell differentiation
C)mitosis
D)morphogenesis
E)germ layer formation
Q3) The function of the acrosomal complex during fertilization is _____.
A)to block polyspermy
B)to dissolve the coating of the egg
C)to nourish the sperm mitochondria
D)to permit maximum sperm motility
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Organs in developing flowers include all of the following except _____.
A)whorls
B)sepals
C)petals
D)carpels
E)stamens
Q2) One unique feature of fertilization in flowering plants compared with animals is that _____.
A)plant sperm are motile
B)multiple ovules exist in the ovary
C)the process involves double fertilization
D)nuclear fusion does not take place
E)the gametes are diploid,not haploid
Q3) The monopterous gene in Arabidopsis encodes a protein that is similar in its function to which animal protein?
A)MyoD in frog embryos
B)Bicoid in fruit-fly embryos
C)keratin in human embryos
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) There is a population of beetles that typically have black wings.A scientist studying these beetles knows that their eggs hatch in early spring,the baby insects grow through the late spring and summer,they lay eggs in the early fall,and die in the early winter.Recently some beetles have been born with white wings.Early in life the black and white winged beetles seem to be very similar in number of mating events,eggs laid,and survival rates,but shortly after laying their eggs the white beetles die and there are only black winged beetles during the late fall.Which of the following is a true statement about the beetles?
A)White and black winged beetles have equal fitness.
B)Black winged beetles have a higher fitness than white winged beetles.
C)The number of baby white winged beetles will decrease in frequency over time.
D)White wings are an adaptation.
Q2) Which of the following,if discovered,could refute our current understanding of the theory of evolution?
A)no fossils of soft-bodied animals
B)a modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs
C)radioactive dating of rocks close to the Earth's surface as younger than lower rock strata
D)fossils of animals that arose in the Cambrian in Precambrian rock strata
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s.They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community.Today,the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies,at many loci,from all other populations including those in their original homeland.Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A)population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B)heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C)sexual selection and inbreeding depression
D)mutation and natural selection
E)founder effect and genetic drift
Q2) For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab,which Hardy-Weinberg condition is easiest to meet?
A)no selection
B)no genetic drift
C)no gene flow
D)no mutation
E)random mating
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a plant species with 2n = 14 forms an allopolyploid with a plant species with 2n = 18,what would be the likely diploid (2n)number of the allopolyploid?
A)16
B)28
C)32
D)36
Q2) The theory of plate tectonics describes movement of plates of the Earth's crust through time.Which of the following can you deduce from what you learned in this chapter about plate tectonics?
A)The continental plates have stopped moving,so continents are now in their final locations.
B)Some other organisms must have speciation patterns similar to those of ratites due to plate tectonics.
C)All distributions of animals on land can be explained by vicariance events due to past plate movements.
D)None of the above statements is true.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for applying the principle of parsimony in constructing phylogenetic trees?
A)Parsimony allows the researcher to "root" the tree.
B)Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to convergent evolution.
C)The molecular clock validates the principle of parsimony.
D)The outgroup roots the tree,allowing the principle of parsimony to be applied.
E)Parsimony differentiates between homologies and homoplasies.
Q2) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation except _____.
A)a vicariance event splitting the habitat
B)the evolution of a new morphological feature
C)the colonization of a new habitat
D)the extinction of competitors
E)gene duplication events
Q3) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?
A)a rare worm
B)a common worm
C)a rare squirrel
D)a common squirrel
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)producing a molecular phylogeny
B)enrichment culture
C)direct sequencing
D)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
Q2) The purple non-sulfur bacterium Rhodospirillum grows best as a photoheterotroph.What are the most favorable sources of energy and carbon for this bacterium?
A)methane and CO
B)fructose and light
C)light and CO
D)glucose
Q3) Which of the following lineages do not contain bacteria that are photosynthetic?
A)Spirochaeles
B)Proteobacteria
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Actinobacteria
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.Latrunculin A is a reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers.A culture of a particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer,while another culture was treated only with the buffer (no toxin;control).The motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells that were moving during a defined period of time.Which of the following conclusion statements is reasonable based on the above figure?
A)Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of diatom.
B)The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom.
C)In this species of diatom,fully formed actin fibers are necessary for movement.
Q2) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis.How can you tell?
A)The chloroplasts have both nuclear and cyanobacterial genes.
B)The chloroplasts are exceptionally small.
C)The chloroplasts have three or four membranes.
D)The chloroplasts have only a single pigment.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low,sprawling growth habit?
A)At the time of the first land plants,the carbon dioxide,which is necessary for photosynthesis,was primarily located close to the ground.
B)They were tied to the water for reproduction and thus needed to remain in close contact with the moist soil.
C)The ancestors of land plants,green algae,lack the structural support to stand erect in air.
D)Land animals of that period were small so they needed short plants to eat.
E)There was less competition for space;only once land plants spread out did they start to grow upright.
Q2) The retaining of the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants _____.
A)protects the zygote from herbivores
B)evolved concurrently with pollen
C)helps in dispersal of the zygote
D)allows it to be nourished by the parent plant
E)is found only in seed plants
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?
A)Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times larger than plant roots.
B)Hyphae have a smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root.
C)Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food.
D)Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.
Q2) Why is it important that ectomycorrhizal fungi (EMF)have peptidase enzymes?
A)These enzymes are necessary to break through the tough lignin layers in plants.
B)These enzymes assist with the breakdown of cellulose.
C)These enzymes are needed to release nitrogen from dead plant material in colder environments.
D)These enzymes catalyze the formation of the compounds used during decomposition.
Q3) Which fungal class is not matched with its most common habitat?
A)EMF northern coniferous forests
B)EMF warm climate forests
C)AMF tropics
D)AMF grasslands
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) All of the following are true about choanoflagellates except _____.
A)they are suspension feeders
B)they are sessile as adults
C)they live in aquatic habitats
D)they are animals
E)they reproduce asexually
Q2) Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you,but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass.Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts.What feeding tactic do these animals use?
A)suspension feeder
B)fluid feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)food-mass feeder
Q3) An organism that exhibits cephalization probably also _____.
A)is bilaterally symmetrical
B)has a hydrostatic skeleton
C)has a coelom
D)is segmented
E)is diploblastic
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which one of these groups does not molt?
A)Crustaceans
B)Arthropods
C)Mollusks
D)Chelicerata
E)Nematoda
Q2) Look at the graph for Cormocephalus morsitans in Figure 33.2.What is the best interpretation of these results?
A)The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.
B)The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.
C)The centipede had its spiracles open when CO emission peaked and closed when CO emission was low.
D)The centipede had its spiracles closed when CO emission peaked and open when CO emission was low.
Q3) What is the only group of Mollusca that does not have a radula?
A)Bivalves
B)Gastropods
C)Chitons
D)Cephalopods
E)All mollusk have a radula.
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which characteristic is common to all the modern representatives of all major reptilian lineages (Testudinia,Lepidosauria,Crocodilia,or Aves)?
A)presence of teeth
B)presence of limbs
C)ectothermy
D)presence of a notochord
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle?
A)jaws
B)tail
C)scales
D)four-chambered heart
E)vertebrae
Q3) What do all deuterostomes have in common?
A)Adults are bilaterally symmetrical.
B)Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits.
C)All have a spinal column.
D)All have specialized head and tail regions.
E)The pore formed during gastrulation becomes the anus.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) If a viral host cell has a mutation that interferes with the addition of carbohydrates to proteins in the Golgi,which of the following could likely result?
A)The viral envelope proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane.
B)The viral capsid proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane.
C)The viral core proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane.
D)The virus would be unable to reproduce within the host cell.
Q2) A biologist develops a new drug that seems to dramatically slow the onset of symptoms resulting from HIV infection.Close monitoring of HIV-infected cells reveals that the viral proteins are in the form of long polyproteins.What kind of drug did the biologist develop?
A)It is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
B)It is a CD4 inhibitor.
C)It is a protease inhibitor.
D)It is a polymerase inhibitor.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Plant leaf epidermal cells have an amazing array of trichomes.What is not a function of trichomes?
A)impale insects that try to lay eggs on the leaves
B)reflect sunlight in sunny locations
C)open and close for gas exchange
D)repel or trap insects with toxic compounds
E)decrease water loss from leaves
Q2) The veins of leaves are _____.
A)composed of xylem and phloem
B)continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots
C)finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells
D)all of the above
Q3) Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between _____.
A)light collection and CO absorption
B)water retention and CO absorption
C)water retention and O absorption
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) As an undergraduate research assistant in the lab of the famous Dr.S.Nameerf,your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems.Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions,with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring.Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating?
A) soil < roots = leaves < atmosphere
B) atmosphere < leaves = roots < soil
C) soil < roots < leaves < atmosphere
D) atmosphere < leaves < roots < soil
Q2) Which of the following cross-membrane transport mechanisms occur without expenditure of energy?
A)facilitated diffusion
B)H -ATPases
C)symporter
D)cotransporter
E)pump
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) What is a typical habitat for carnivorous plants?
A)wet areas with high salinity
B)wet areas with high levels of humus
C)wet areas with low decomposition rates
D)dry areas with low levels of available oxygen
E)dry areas with high levels of peat
Q2) What major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship?
A)Plants receive enzymes and fungi receive nitrogen and phosphorus.
B)Plants receive increased root surface area,and fungi receive digestive enzymes.
C)Plants receive photosynthetic products in exchange for living in root nodules.
D)Plants receive nitrogen and phosphorus,and fungi receive photosynthetic products.
Q3) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?
A)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen
B)carbon,nitrogen,phosphorus
C)carbon,oxygen,hydrogen
D)carbon,hydrogen,potassium
E)carbon,nitrogen,potassium
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A caterpillar eats a leaf of a plant.The next day it crawls to a nearby leaf to eat.But after eating the second leaf,the caterpillar gets very sick and falls off the plant.Which of the following molecules were involved in the plant's ability to defend itself against the second attack?
A)proteinase inhibitors
B)systemin
C)jasmonic acid
D)proteinase inhibitors,systemin,and jasmonic acid
E)proteinase inhibitors and jasmonic acid
Q2) Lettuce seeds need full sunlight to germinate;therefore,germination is inhibited when their phytochrome molecules are in the Pf conformation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What hormones are necessary for maintenance of plant tissue culture?
A)gibberellins and auxin
B)gibberellins and cytokinin
C)gibberellins and ABA
D)auxin and ABA
E)auxin and cytokinin
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a hypocotyl does not elongate during seed germination and early seedling growth,where will the cotyledons be?
A)above ground and above the seed
B)above ground and below the seed
C)in the ground with the seed coat
Q2) Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma,and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit.What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?
A)50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules,and double fertilization occurred
B)50% success: evidently,only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers
C)50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs,and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei
D)50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs,and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei
Q3) What is not true about the carpel of a flower?
A)The stigma receives the pollen.
B)The style provides the pathway for the growth of the pollen tube.
C)Meiosis of the megaspore forms the eight nuclei of the embryo sac.
D)The ovary encloses one or more ovules,which contain the embryo sac.
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42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In house sparrows (Passer domesticus)it is generally found that both males and females care for the eggs and young.However,some male house sparrows do not provide parental care.In addition,it is known that young that receive parental care from both the male and female are more likely to survive to fledging (leaving the nest).Which of the following activities by males that do not provide parental care would represent the most beneficial trade-off for the reduced survival of their offspring?
A)attacking the nests of neighboring males
B)mating with additional females and fathering more eggs
C)eating to build up energy stores for migration
D)grooming to eliminate parasites from their feathers
Q2) You observe a lizard sitting on a rock on a sunny day.If the lizard is attempting to raise its body temperature,what mechanism of heat transfer is being employed?
A)conduction
B)convection
C)radiation
D)evaporation
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment which of the following occurs for substances that can diffuse through the cell?
A)There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell.
B)There is directed movement of substances into and out of the cell.
C)There is no movement of substances into and out of the cell.
D)All movement of molecules is directed by active transport.
Q2) Water loss from insect surface is minimal due to which of the following structures?
A)chitin and the cuticle
B)tracheae and spiracles
C)a proteinaceous epidermis
D)a small surface area/volume relationship
Q3) Which of the following affects the osmolarity of a solution?
A)concentration of cations
B)concentration of anions
C)concentration of water
D)all of the above
Q4) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical digestion of proteins begins where?
A)in the mouth
B)in the stomach
C)in the small intestine
D)in the bloodstream
Q2) Bile,which is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder,is important in lipid digestion.What feature/function of bile makes it an effective emulsifying agent?
A)Bile is an amphipathic molecule,having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
B)Bile adds hydroxyl groups to the hydrocarbon tails of fatty acids,making them more soluble in water.
C)Bile stimulates the transport processes involved in movement of triglycerides into intestinal epithelial cells.
D)Its enzymatic activity removes fatty acids from triglycerides,making them more soluble in water.
Q3) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) The main difference between respiration in terrestrial insects and in terrestrial vertebrates is that _____.
A)insects rely on the blood in their circulatory system to deliver oxygen from the air to their tissues,whereas terrestrial vertebrates rely on their lungs to deliver oxygen in air to their tissues
B)insects rely on their tracheal system to deliver oxygen in air to their tissues,whereas terrestrial vertebrates rely on their lungs to deliver oxygen to their tissues through the blood in their circulatory system
C)insects have a lower metabolic rate than terrestrial vertebrates do,so they tend to rely more heavily on their circulatory system than their tracheal system for oxygen transport
D)insects use their tracheal system to transfer oxygen from air into blood,whereas terrestrial vertebrates use their lungs to transfer oxygen from air into blood
Q2) Atria contract _____.
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals a crab and a fish.Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the fish's neurons.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
B)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin.
C)There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons.
D)Unlike the crab,the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin,and the fish's axons are smaller in diameter;small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.
Q2) How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?
A)They increase the permeability of Na ions in the plasma membrane.
B)They amplify the action potential by increasing sodium influx along the entire distance of the neuron.
C)They cause action potentials to "jump" down the axon rather than travel in a continuous path along every site on the axon.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ),a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction.Which of the following events will occur last (i.e. ,after all of the others)?
A)ACh release
B)action potential propagation down the T-tubules
C)conformational change in troponin
D)depolarization of the muscle cell
E)release of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q2) How would an abnormally large oval window in a mouse affect that animal's hearing?
A)The mouse could detect noise at much lower volumes.
B)The mouse could detect noise in a much broader range of frequencies.
C)Hearing ability would be reduced in comparison with normal mice.
D)Hearing is not affected by the size of the oval window.
Q3) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle relaxes in this reflex?
A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)
B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) In experiments where researchers suspect that a hormone may be responsible for a certain physiological effect,they may cut the neurons leading to the organ where the effect being studied occurs.What is the purpose of cutting these neurons?
A)to make sure that the effect is not occurring through actions in the nervous system
B)to make sure that the organ being affected cannot function unless the researchers stimulate it with an external electrical probe
C)to impair the normal functions of the organ so that the hormonal effect can be more easily studied
D)to numb the organ so that it can be probed without inducing pain in the lab animal
Q2) When adenylyl cyclase is activated ________.
A)cAMP is created
B)cAMP is destroyed
C)G-proteins bind to cAMP
D)steroid hormones pass through the lipid bilayer
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Secretions from which part of the male reproductive anatomy in humans produces molecules that stimulate smooth muscle contractions in the uterus of females?
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicles
C)bulbourethral gland
D)testes
Q2) Which embryonic tissue is responsible for forming the membrane that can be found completely surrounding the embryo while in utero?
A)ectoderm
B)mesoderm
C)endoderm
D)epiderm
Q3) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for sexual reproduction?
A)mitosis zygote meiosis gametes embryo
B)meiosis zygote mitosis gametes embryo
C)mitosis gametes meiosis zygote embryo
D)meiosis gametes mitosis zygote embryo
E)meiosis gametes zygote mitosis embryo
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Mast cells can both constrict and dilate blood vessels after injury.Which of the following best explains why both of these events occur shortly after tissue is injured?
A)Different blood vessels respond to the same messenger from mast cells in different ways for example,larger vessels constrict to reduce blood loss while smaller ones dilate to promote blood flow to the injured tissue.
B)Mast cells release different chemical messengers,one that causes constriction in the region of blood loss,and another that causes dilation away from the injury to promote quicker healing.
C)Mast cells release one chemical messenger immediately after injury that constricts vessels to promote clotting;after bleeding has stopped,they release another messenger that causes those same vessels to dilate,which increases blood flow to promote healing. D)Mast cells release different chemical messengers,one that causes vessels away from the site of the injury to constrict to control blood loss,and another that causes vessels near the injury to dilate to promote quicker healing.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) What is the main reason that climatic conditions on Mercury differ from those on Earth?
A)planet size
B)existence of plant life
C)average distance from the Sun
D)existence of an atmosphere
Q2) In Figure 50.1,which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding temperate grasslands is false?
A)Prairie fires can result from lightning strikes.
B)Grassland soils are not very fertile.
C)Grasslands are lower in productivity than tropical forest communities.
D)Grasslands have too little precipitation to support abundant tree growth.
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Which animal is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
Q2) Recent research has shown that von Frisch was not completely correct about the difference between the round dance and waggle dance.The new information suggests that _____.
A)the waggle dance communicates information about the quality of the food
B)the round dance communicates direction as well as distance
C)the waggle dance communicates the type of food
D)the round dance communicates the time of day the food will be available
E)the waggle dance communicates the favored food of the hive
Q3) In red-winged blackbirds,which of the following stimuli elicited the greatest territorial defense response?
A)playing a recording of a blackbird call in the territory
B)presenting a model of a male in the territory
C)presenting both the model and playing the recording
D)All of the above elicited equal responses.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) Using Figure 52.6,determine which age class year would hurt the population growth most if it were wiped out by disease.
A)age class year 1
B)age class year 2
C)age class year 3
D)age class year 4
E)age class year 5
Q2) What conclusion can you draw from Figure 52.12?
A)Hares control lynx population size.
B)Lynx control hare population size.
C)Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.
D)The relationship between the populations cannot be determined from this graph.
Q3) Based on the graphs in Figure 52.7 from the Park Grass study in Rothamsted,UK,which species is most likely the superior competitor?
A)Tragopogon pratensis
B)Trifolium pratense
C)Conopodium majus
D)From the information presented in the figure we cannot determine which species is the superior competitor.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treehoppers (a type of insect)produce honeydew,which ants use for food.Treehoppers have a major predator,the jumping spider.Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders.In an experiment,researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot.In Figure 53.6,what can you conclude?
A)Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.
B)Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers
C)Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.
D)No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.
E)Treehoppers do not produce honeydew in July and are not protected by the ants.
Q2) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics.As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates,birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants.This is an example of what kind of species interaction?
A)cooperation
B)consumption
C)commensalism
D)parasitism
E)mutualism
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Detritus can be consumed by which of the following primary decomposers?
A)bacteria
B)archaea
C)fungi
D)earthworms
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following could be a cause of eutrophication?
A)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to an aquatic ecosystem
B)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to a terrestrial ecosystem
C)removing a limiting resource from an aquatic ecosystem
D)removing a limiting resource from a terrestrial ecosystem
Q3) Considering the global carbon cycle,where is the largest reservoir of carbon?
A)terrestrial ecosystems
B)oceans
C)atmosphere
D)beneath the surface of the Earth
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56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon looking at Figure 55.3,what can you conclude about the data?
A)As species richness changes,plant biomass remains consistent.
B)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases.
C)As species richness increases,plant biomass increases and then levels off.
D)As species richness decreases,plant biomass increases.
Q2) Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area.Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population.Besides having 10 additional animals,what benefits are there to importing individuals?
A)Additional animals from a distant population will likely bring genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding depression.
B)Additional animals will bring additional competition and could hurt the population.
C)Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.
D)There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.
Q3) What is the main purpose of the wildlife corridor?
A)to slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species
B)to slowly introduce a species to a new preserve
C)to facilitate the transfer of individuals back and forth between populations
D)to connect two otherwise isolated populations
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 57