Midwifery Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Midwifery is a healthcare profession that centers on providing care to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period, as well as supporting the newborn and family. This course explores the roles, responsibilities, and scope of practice of midwives, emphasizing both the physiological and psychosocial aspects of maternity care. Students will gain foundational knowledge in prenatal assessments, labor and delivery support, postpartum management, and newborn care, while also examining the importance of cultural competence, ethical practice, and evidence-based approaches in midwifery. The course integrates clinical skills with holistic approaches to ensure the well-being and empowerment of mothers and their families.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement explains why below poverty level African-Americans have the highest infant mortality rate in the United States?
A) Their diets are deficient in protein.
B) Infectious diseases are more prevalent.
C) More African-American infants are born with congenital anomalies.
D) Inadequate prenatal care is associated with low-birth-weight infants.
Answer: D
Q2) Evidence-based care
A)A practice model that uses a systematic approach to identify specific patients and manage their care in a coordinated way
B)Identifies desired patient outcomes, specifies timelines for achievement of those outcomes, directs appropriate interventions and sequencing of interventions, includes interventions from a variety of disciplines, promotes collaboration, and involves a comprehensive approach to care
C)Develops clinical practice guidelines to provide safe and effective care
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle of teaching should the nurse use to ensure learning in a family situation?
A) Motivate the family with praise and positive feedback.
B) Learning is best accomplished with the lecture format.
C) Present complex subject material first while the family is alert and ready to learn.
D) Families should be taught using medical jargon so they will be able to understand the technical language used by physicians.
Answer: A
Q2) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complications are associated with late preterm infants? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Tachycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Thermoregulation problems
E) Require mechanical ventilation
F) Feeding problems
Answer: C, D, E, F
Q2) The United States ranks 27th in terms of worldwide infant mortality rates. Which factor has the greatest impact on decreasing the mortality rate of infants?
A) Providing more women's shelters
B) Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care
C) Resolving all language and cultural differences
D) Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program by their eighth month of pregnancy
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Which are the actions of the estrogen hormone on the female body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Q2) To evaluate an individual's progression through puberty, which assessment tool would be used during the assessment phase of the nursing process?
A) Bishop score
B) Tanner staging
C) Braden score
D) SOFA score
Q3) Which describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by the nurse is evidence of therapeutic communication for a couple who is undergoing genetic counseling and very concerned about the possibility of having a child with a birth defect as a result of a strong family history on both sides of the family?
A) "It is important to ask other members of your family for any information they can provide that will help obtain more insight into the health history."
B) "Given what you have told me, there is little that anyone can do to improve outcomes."
C) "Although you may feel that you have no options, I can't really discuss these matters as only the physician can provide you with information."
D) "Do you have all your forms filled out correctly? This will make the review easier to accomplish. "
Q2) People who have two copies of the same abnormal autosomal dominant gene will usually be:
A) mildly affected with the disorder.
B) infertile and unable to transmit the gene.
C) carriers of the trait but not affected with the disorder.
D) more severely affected by the disorder than people with one copy of the gene.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Q1) The nurse is planning a prenatal class on fetal development. Which characteristics of prenatal development should the nurse include for a fetus of 24 weeks, based on fertilization age? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ear cartilage firm
B) Skin wrinkled and red
C) Testes descending toward the inguinal rings
D) Surfactant production nears mature levels
E) Fetal movement becoming progressively more noticeable
Q2) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q4) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Q1) Which laboratory result would be a cause for concern if exhibited by a client at her first prenatal visit during the second month of her pregnancy?
A) Rubella titer, 1:6
B) Platelets, 300,000/mm3
C) White blood cell count, 6000/mm3
D) Hematocrit 38%, hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Q2) When the pregnant woman develops changes caused by pregnancy, the nurse recognizes that the darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line is the:
A) epulis.
B) linea nigra.
C) melasma.
D) striae gravidarum.
Q3) A client in her third trimester of pregnancy is asking about safe travel. Which statement should the nurse give about safe travel during pregnancy?
A) "Only travel by car during pregnancy."
B) "Avoid use of the seat belt during the third trimester."
C) "You can travel by plane until your 38th week of gestation."
D) "If you are traveling by car stop to walk every 1 to 2 hours."
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant couple asks the nurse about intercourse during pregnancy and whether it is safe for the baby. What should the nurse tell the couple?
A) Intercourse is safe until the third trimester.
B) Safer sex practices should be used once the membranes rupture.
C) Intercourse should be avoided if any spotting from the vagina occurs afterward.
D) Intercourse and orgasm are often contraindicated if a history of or signs of preterm labor are present.
Q2) The nurse reveals to the patient that the over-the-counter test is verified and that she is pregnant. The patient confides to the nurse, "We have wanted to be pregnant for some time. These last few days I have been questioning our decision. I am feeling really bad right now." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You will come around in time and you will grow to love this baby."
B) "Don't feel bad. It is the hormones of pregnancy talking right now."
C) "Why do you think you are feeling bad when you wanted to be pregnant?"
D) "Your feelings are understandable. Ambivalence is not uncommon right now."
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10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client asks the nurse if she should take herbal supplements during pregnancy. What is the best response to her query?
A) "As long as you have had no reaction to them in the past, they would be safe to use during pregnancy."
B) "Prenatal vitamins are the only things that should be taken during pregnancy."
C) "Nutritional supplements will be prescribed by the health care provider based on individual needs."
D) "During pregnancy, no supplementation is required because this is considered to be a healthy state."
Q2) Which of the following is associated with inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Prolonged labor
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Low-birth-weight infant
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11
Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention is necessary prior to a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound?
A) Perform an abdominal prep.
B) Administer a soap suds enema.
C) Ensure the client is NPO for 12 hours.
D) Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.
Q2) A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when she got pregnant. Scheduling an ultrasound is a standing prescription for the patient's health care provider. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient's ultrasound?
A) Immediately
B) In 2 weeks
C) In 4 weeks
D) In 6 weeks
Q3) Which should be considered a contraindication for transcervical chorionic villus sampling?
A) Rh-negative mother
B) Gestation less than 15 weeks
C) Maternal age younger than 35 years
D) Positive for group B Streptococcus
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phrase best describes neuromuscular dissociation?
A) Loosening taut muscles when touched by another person
B) Contracting and consciously releasing different muscle groups
C) Relaxing while someone is applying pressure against a tendon or large muscle
D) Relaxing the rest of the body while one group of muscles is strongly contracted
Q2) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
Q3) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?
A) Avoidance of an episiotomy
B) Determining the outcome of the birth
C) Assuming complete control of the situation
D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience
Q4) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
Q2) Pregnant clients can usually tolerate the normal blood loss associated with childbirth because they have:
A) a higher hematocrit.
B) increased leukocytes.
C) increased blood volume.
D) a lower fibrinogen level.
Q3) To determine if the client is in true labor, the nurse would assess for changes in:
A) cervical dilation.
B) amount of bloody show.
C) fetal position and station.
D) pattern of uterine contractions.
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant's trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. The Apgar score for this infant is:
A) 7.
B) 8.
C) 9.
D) 10.
Q2) The client in labor experiences a spontaneous rupture of membranes. What information related to this event must the nurse include in the client's record?
A) Fetal heart rate
B) Pain level
C) Test results ensuring that the fluid is not urine
D) The client's understanding of the event
Q3) Which comfort measure should a nurse use to assist a laboring woman to relax?
A) Recommend frequent position changes.
B) Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes.
C) Offer warm wet cloths to use on the client's face and neck.
D) Keep the room lights lit so the client and her coach can see everything.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician has ordered an amnioinfusion for the laboring client. What data supports the use of this therapeutic procedure?
A) Presenting part not engaged
B) +4 meconium-stained amniotic fluid on artificial rupture of membranes (AROM)
C) Breech position of fetus
D) Twin gestation
Q2) The nurse recognizes that fetal scalp stimulation may be prescribed to evaluate the response of the fetus to tactile stimulation. Which conditions contraindicate the use of fetal scalp stimulation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term fetus
B) Maternal fever
C) Placenta previa
D) Induction of labor
E) Prolonged rupture of membranes
Q3) Proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is:
A) inside the uterus.
B) on the fetal scalp.
C) over the uterine fundus.
D) over the mother's lower abdomen.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) To improve placental blood flow immediately after the injection of an epidural anesthetic, the nurse should:
A) give the woman oxygen.
B) turn the woman to the right side.
C) decrease the intravenous infusion rate.
D) place a wedge under the woman's right hip.
Q2) A client is admitted to the labor and birth room in active labor; contractions are 4 to 5 minutes apart and last for 30 seconds. The nurse needs to perform a detailed assessment. When is the best time to ask questions or do procedures?
A) After the contraction is over
B) When it is all right with the coach
C) During increment of next contraction
D) After administration of analgesic-anesthetic
Q3) Which clinical effect can occur in the presence of increased maternal pain perception during labor?
A) Increase in uterine contractions in response to catecholamine secretion
B) Decrease in blood pressure in response to alpha receptors
C) Decreased perfusion to the placenta in response to catecholamine secretion
D) Increased uterine blood flow, causing increase in maternal blood pressure
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event indicates a complication of an external version?
A) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
B) Fetus returning to the original position
C) Increased maternal anxiety after the version
D) Fetal bradycardia persisting 10 minutes after the version
Q2) Immediately following the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, which action should the nurse implement?
A) Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
B) Apply a cold pack to the infant's scalp.
C) Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics.
D) Measure the circumference of the infant's head.
Q3) Which clinical finding indicates the use of vacuum extraction as a birth method?
A) Mentum presentation of the fetus
B) Presence of caput succedaneum
C) Maternal exhaustion as a result of ineffective pushing during second stage of labor
D) Physician preference
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum nurse has completed discharge teaching for a client being discharged after an uncomplicated vaginal birth. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
A) "I may not have a bowel movement until the 2nd postpartum day."
B) "If I breastfeed and supplement with formula, I won't need any birth control."
C) "I know my normal pattern of bowel elimination won't return until about 8 to 10 days."
D) "If I am not breastfeeding, I should use birth control when I resume sexual relations with my husband."
Q2) The nurse has completed a postpartum assessment on a client who delivered an hour ago. Which amount of lochia consists of a moderate amount?
A) Saturated peripad
B) 4- to 6-inch stain on the peripad
C) 1- to 4-inch stain on the peripad
D) Less than a 1-inch stain on the peripad
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of binding in during the postpartum period is a:
A) new mother telling her friends all about her labor and birth experience.
B) father looking at his newborn and stating that he "looks like I did when I was a baby."
C) mother reporting increasing anxiety during the postpartum period because she feels like she is all alone.
D) mother wanting some time alone so that she can catch up on needed sleep.
Q2) Which of the following behaviors would be applicable to a nursing diagnosis of risk for impaired parenting?
A) En face behavior is observed between father and infant.
B) Mother relates that she feels exhilarated postbirth.
C) Mother states that she feels excessive fatigue as a result of the childbirth experience.
D) Father displays finger tipping behavior toward infant.
Q3) Taking-in
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q2) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
Q3) Immunoglobulin M ((IgM)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q3) A new client asks, "Why are you doing a gestational age assessment on my baby?" The nurse's best response is:
A) "It was ordered by your physician."
B) "This must be done to meet insurance requirements."
C) "It helps us identify infants who are at risk for any problems."
D) "The gestational age determines how long the infant will be hospitalized."
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site. The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital 5 days after her son was circumcised. She is very concerned. On which rationale should the nurse base a reply?
A) The yellow crust should not be removed.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
D) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
Q2) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean section and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) A mother is attempting to breastfeed her infant in the hospital setting. The infant is sleepy and displays some audible swallowing, the maternal nipples are flat, and the breasts are soft. The nurse has attempted to teach the mother positioning on one side, and now the mother wants to place the infant to the breast on the other side. Based on LATCH scores, the nurse would designate a score of:
A) 10 and document findings in the chart.
B) 6 and further teach and assist the mother in feeding activities.
C) 5 and tell the mother to discontinue feeding attempts at this time because the infant is too sleepy.
D) 8 and no further assistance is needed for feeding.
Q2) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) A client is being prepared for discharge with her newborn. She tells you about the antique crib she inherited from her grandmother and how excited she is about using it for her newborn. Which information should be cause for concern?
A)The crib slats are 3 1/2 inches apart.
B) The crib has been stripped and repainted with a lead-free paint.
C) The mattress fits snugly in the crib with ½-inch space around the sides.
D) The side rail hardware has been replaced so that the latches remain fastened.
Q2) A new client asks what she can do to help her infant sleep through the night. Which should the nurse instruct?
A) Bring the infant into a well-lit room for the feeding.
B) Avoid talking to the infant and keep the room quiet during night feedings.
C) Play with the infant after the feeding before putting the infant back into the crib.
D) Change the infant's diaper after the feeding to prevent waking the infant later in the night.
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Cocaine
A)A powerful short-acting CNS stimulant
B)CNS depressants that produce a feeling of mental dullness, drowsiness, and finally stupor
C)Active constituent is tetrahydrocannabinol, which crosses the placenta and accumulates in the fetus
Q2) A client who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. Which scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been battered?
A) She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.
B) The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile.
C) The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.
D) Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. Her husband asks her about her pain.
Q3) Marijuana
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) The physician suspects that the client may have gestational trophoblastic disease. Which clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased levels of beta-hCG in the serum
B) Fundal height correlating with reported gestational age
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Vomiting
E) Maternal hypotension
Q2) A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on which of the following?
A) Hemorrhage is the major concern.
B) She will be unable to conceive in the future.
C) Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
D) A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
Q3) Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A) Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
B) Complaint of frequent mild nausea
C) Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D) History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Rheumatic heart disease
D) Congenital heart disease
Q2) Which client teaching instructions are necessary for a pregnant client who is to undergo a glucose challenge test (GCT) as part of a routine pregnancy treatment plan?
A) Consume a low-fat diet for 48 hours prior to testing.
B) Fast for 12 hours prior to testing.
C) There are no dietary restrictions prior to testing.
D) Consume a consistent carbohydrate diet (60 g) prior to testing.
Q3) When planning intrapartum care for a client with heart disease, the nurse should include:
A) taking vital signs according to standard protocols.
B) continuously monitoring cardiac rhythm with telemetry.
C) massaging the uterus to hasten birth of the placenta.
D) maintaining the infusion of intravenous fluids to avoid dehydration.
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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Q1) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
Q2) A labor client has been diagnosed with cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) following attempts at pushing for 2 hours with no progress. Based on this information, what birth method is available?
A) Vaginal birth with vacuum extraction
B) Augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin) to improve contraction pattern and strengthen contractions
C) Cesarean section
D) Insertion of Foley catheter into empty bladder to provide more room for fetal descent
Q3) Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?
A) Using clean techniques for all procedures
B) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible
C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using a back to front motion
D) Performing vaginal examinations every hour while the client is in active labor
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests:
A) uterine atony.
B) perineal hematoma.
C) infection of the uterus.
D) lacerations of the genital tract.
Q2) The nurse notes that the fundus of a postpartum patient is boggy, shifted to the left of the midline, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Massage the fundus of the uterus.
B) Assist the patient out of bed to void.
C) Increase the infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin).
D) Ask another nurse to bring in a straight catheter tray.
Q3) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess:
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is:
A) Soft and supple skin.
B) A hematocrit level of 55%.
C) Lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) An abundance of vernix caseosa.
Q2) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q3) Which is true about newborns classified as small for gestational age (SGA)?
A) They weigh less than 2500g.
B) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation.
C) They are below the tenth percentile on gestational growth charts.
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D) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome is not responding to conventional treatment. Which method of treatment may be available at a level III facility for use with this infant?
A) Insertion of an endotracheal tube
B) Respiratory support with a ventilator
C) Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D) Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea
Q2) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. The purpose of these formula feedings or breastfeedings is to:
A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q3) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n):
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
Q2) You are assessing a client in the clinic setting who has been taking oral contraceptives for several years, without side effects. Vital signs are stable and the client denies any pain or tenderness. On examination, you note a small erythematous area of approximately 2 cm on her right lower leg. She denies any traumatic injury and says this is a recent onset of a few days. Based on this information you would:
A) instruct the client to use warm compresses for several days and keep the leg elevated as much as possible.
B) have the client wear flats rather than heels to modify her gait and help alleviate this issue.
C) refer the client to the health care provider for additional diagnostic work up.
D) have the client take an over-the-counter (OTC) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and return to the clinic if the problem persists.
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Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q2) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
Q3) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap smear?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
Q2) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old client. You expect the initial treatment to include:
A) beginning hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the client after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q2) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a client with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q3) Which statement is true about primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.
B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.
C) It occurs in young multiparous women.
D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.
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