Microbiology Laboratory Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
The Microbiology Laboratory course provides hands-on experience in fundamental microbiological techniques and laboratory safety. Students will learn methods for culturing, staining, isolating, and identifying microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses. The course emphasizes aseptic technique, proper use of laboratory equipment, observation and interpretation of microbial growth, and basic diagnostic procedures. Through experiments and practical exercises, students develop skills to analyze microbial characteristics and understand their relevance in clinical, environmental, and industrial contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The field of ___________ involves studying how a person defends him/ herself against microbial infection.
A)molecular biology
B)virology
C)mycology
D)immunology
Answer: D
Q2) Before Ehrlich began a systematic search for a chemical to kill specific bacteria,the only chemotherapies available were substances derived from medicinal plants.What distinguished Ehrlich's chemotherapy research
A)Ehrlich systematically tested hundreds of compounds for their ability to destroy specific bacteria without damaging surrounding tissue.
B)Ehrlich used metals,such as antimony and mercury to treat diseases.
C)Ehrlich inoculated his own son with fluid from a cowpox blÃster.
D)Ehrlich introduced cinchona tree bark,a native American remedy to treat malaria.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biggest contribution to the microbiome occurs:
A)at the time of delivery
B)at puberty
C)during old age
D)when children turn five years old
E)continuously,there is no period where the fundamental microbiome is established
Answer: A
Q2) A course of antibiotics can disturb gut microflora for what period of time
A)2 hours
B)2 minutes
C)2 days
D)2 weeks
E)2 years
Answer: E
Q3) A C-section affects the milk microbbiome by reducing its diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly
A)carbon-organic compounds
B)glucose- hydrogen bonds
C)ions-covalent bonds
D)phosphate-enzyme
Answer: A
Q2) In order to become an ion,an atom of chlorine must _____.
A)gain an electron
B)form a covalent bond
C)lose an electron
D)form a hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Q3) Chemically stable atoms are inert or less likely to form chemical bonds.A chemically stable element:
A)has l full outer electron shell
B)has the same number of protons as electrons
C)has an atomic number is equal to the atomic mass
D)forms hydrogen bonds
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which stain would be the best choice for detecting mycobacterium (the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy)
A)Simple stain
B)Endospore stain
C)Acid-fast stain
D)Gram stain
Q2) Electron microscopes have a much better resolving power when compared to light microscopes because electrons _____.
A)are invisible to the eye
B)have longer wavelengths than visible light rays
C)have shorter wavelengths than visible light rays
D)are negatively charged
Q3) If the step involving iodine were left out of a Gram stain,which of the following would best describe the results
A)Gram negative cells would look Gram positive.
B)Gram positive cells would look Gram negative.
C)All rods would be pink,all cocci purple.
D)All cells would be purple.
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about motility is false
A)Chemotaxis is the movement of bacteria toward or away from a chemical.
B)Pseudopodia are associated with fungi.
C)Bacteria use helical flagellar movements to orient towards external signals.
D)Pseudopodia are temporary projections of cytoplasm.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the endosymbiotic hypothesis is false
A)Eukaryotic cells have both 70S and 80S ribosomes.
B)Mitochondria have their own DNA.
C)When removed from cells,mitochondria continue to grow and divide.
D)Mitochondria are about the same size as prokaryotic cells.
Q3) Endospores are typically found in the genus:
A)Streptococcus
B)Clostridium
C)Mycobacterium
D)Staphylococci
Q4) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using:
A)conjugation pili
B)fimbriae
C)axial filaments
D)lophotrichous flagella
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibition is true
A)Most noncompetitive inhibitors bind to several different sites on an enzyme.
B)Enzymes become less efficient as temperatures drop because they begin to denature.
C)Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site.
D)Most human enzymes have an optimum temperature below normal body temperature.
Q2) Bioluminescent microbes:
A)may have evolved to remove oxygen from the atmosphere
B)are often beneficiaries of symbiotic relationships with a larger host,producing light in exchange for nutrients
C)often have the enzyme luciferase which catalyzes the oxidation reaction that emits light
D)all of these
Q3) Which statement about fermentation is true
A)All fermentation of pyruvic acid always results in the same end product.
B)All fermentation of glucose begins with pyruvic acid as a substrate.
C)The same fermentation reaction produces both wine and cheese.
D)None of these.
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Capnophiles grow best under conditions of _____.
A)high carbon dioxide
B)low carbon dioxide
C)high osmotic pressure
D)low osmotic pressure
Q2) The toxic effects of the byproducts of oxygen metabolism are reduced by which of the following
A)Catalase
B)Superoxide dismutase
C)Lactase
D)Two of these
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to have evolved to live in the deep layers of mud,where there is a complete lack of free oxygen
A)Obligate aerobe
B)Obligate anaerobe
C)Facultative anaerobe
D)Aerotolerant anaerobe
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An mRNA molecule contains three nucleotide (triplet)units called _____.
A)amino acids
B)bases
C)codons
D)anticodons
Q2) The fluctuation tests done by Luria and Delbruck showed that:
A)antibiotics induce the development of resistance in bacteria
B)the growth of bacteria fluctuates based on the concentration of antibiotics in the media
C)the concentration of antibiotics fluctuates in response to the number of bacteria in a sample
D)resistance to antibiotics occurs spontaneously in bacteria
Q3) Inducible enzymes:
A)are synthesized continuously by the cell
B)are produced by genes that are always active
C)are synthesized by genes that are sometimes active and sometimes inactive
D)only exist in prokaryotic organisms
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) RFLP's are the result of _____.
A)treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls
B)fusing two cells together
C)genes being transferred by a virus
D)cutting DNA with restriction enzymes
Q2) F' (prime)plasmids:
A)are responsible for high frequency recombination
B)carry some chromosomal genes
C)are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome
D)none of these
Q3) In Griffith's experiments,the "transforming substance" was _____.
A)RNA
B)Protein
C)Polysaccharides
D)DNA
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is used to separate _____.
A)DNA by GC content
B)proteins by size
C)DNA by nucleotide sequence
D)proteins by amino acid sequence
Q2) The historic two-kingdom system of classification divided all organisms into either ________ or ________ .
A)animals,bacteria
B)plants,animals
C)eukaryotic,prokaryotic
D)motile,nonmotile
Q3) The binomial name of a microbe is composed of its _____.
A)kingdom and genus names
B)genus name and a species modifier
C)family and class names
D)genus and family names
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following viruses plays an important role in the development of cervical cancer
A)adenoviruses
B)herpes viruses
C)human papilloma viruses
D)slow viruses
Q2) All of the following viruses may stay inside of a cell for many years and remain inactive <u>except</u>:
A)herpes simplex
B)chickenpox
C)HIV
D)enterovirus
Q3) In the early 1990s,this emerging virus was of concern to the United States.It is transmitted from rodent feces and urine to human beings.This emerging virus is the:
A)influenza virus
B)rhinovirus
C)hantavirus
D)poliovirus
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13
Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical fungus consists of a mass called a ________ made up of many threadlike structures called ________.
A)thallus,mycelium
B)mycelium,hyphae
C)hyphae,mycelium
D)mycelium,thallus
Q2) Arthropods are responsible for transmitting ________ pathogens.
A)viral
B)bacterial
C)protozoan
D)viral,bacterial and protozoan
Q3) Organisms that are normally free living but can also obtain nutrients from a host are called _____.
A)facultative parasites
B)obligate parasite
C)biological vectors
D)accidental parasites
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14
Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not used when trying to ensure that autoclaving has achieved sterility
A)internal devices to maintain proper temperature and pressure
B)tapes impregnated with the word "sterile" when proper temperature has been reached
C)pasteurization by heating to 62.9 C for 30 minutes
D)autoclaving heat-resistant endospores such as Bacillus stearothermophilus
Q2) When food is salted,water diffuses ________microorganisms,causing them to ____ and die.
A)into; shrink
B)into; explode
C)out of; shrink
D)out of; explode
Q3) A viricide is an agent that _____.
A)inactivates viruses.
B)propagates viruses.
C)inhibits viruses and bacterial endospores.
D)allows viral multiplication.
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15
Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics that bind to RNA polymerase_____.
A)act as base analogs
B)inhibit of cell wall synthesis
C)disrupt of cell membrane function
D)inhibit transcription
Q2) Metronidazole:
A)is effective against viruses
B)has no side effects
C)prevents overgrowth of Candida yeast infections
D)is useful in the treatment of amoebas and Giardia
Q3) Antibiotics that contain a beta-lactam ring:
A)interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis
B)act as an antimetabolite
C)bind to a bacterial RNA polymerase
D)are erroneously incorporated as nucleic acids
Q4) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except:
A)acyclovir
B)ribavirin
C)quinine
D)zidovudine (AZT)
16
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,infectious diseases are currently:
A)responsible for more deaths than cardiovascular diseases
B)the number one cause of mortality
C)ranked after cancer,accidents,diabetes and cardiovascular disease in mortality
D)two of these
Q2) Botulinum toxin:
A)when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox
B)relieves muscle spasms in dystonia
C)is produced by Clostridium botulinum
D)all of these
Q3) Streptococcus pyogenes is a causative agent of:
A)scarlet fever
B)bacillary dysentery
C)anthrax
D)diphtheria
Q4) Hyaluronidase:
A)dissolves blood clots
B)allows the pathogens to wall themselves off
C)or spreading factor is important for streptococci colonization
D)or adhesion is important for staphylococci to adhere to tissue
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mortality rate is typically expressed as the _____.
A)number of illnesses from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
B)fraction of susceptible population that dies
C)speed at which a disease spreads through a population
D)number of deaths from a disease per 100,000 people in the population per year
Q2) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States:
A)includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease
B)shows a pattern of pandemics
C)has been increasing for the last ten years
D)is difficult to assess since the disease is no longer "notifiable"
Q3) All of the following pertain to analytical studies except:
A)control groups
B)retrospective studies
C)cause-and-effect relationships of disease occurrences
D)data on microbe pathogenicity
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complement activation results all of the following physiological processes except:
A)opsonization
B)formation of membrane attack complexes
C)inflammation
D)fever
Q2) What is the fragile,reddish,grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts
A)Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Granuloma
D)Granulocytes
Q3) The process whereby immune cells leave the blood by passing between the endothelial cells that line blood vessels is known as:
A)leukocytosis
B)phagocytosis
C)specific defenses
D)diapedesis
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) A protein molecule produced in a host in response to an antigen which is capable of binding specifically to that antigen is a/an:
A)perforin
B)antigen
C)antibody
D)cytokine
Q2) What is a substance that is recognized by the body as foreign and normally induces an immune response
A)Antibody
B)Antigen
C)Agglutinin
D)Antitoxin
Q3) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed,thus producing tolerance in the host is:
A)heterogeneity
B)memory
C)primary response
D)clonal deletion
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granulomatous hypersensitivity,the most serious Type IV hypersensitivity,might occur during all the following infections except:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Leishmania tropica
Q2) All of the following are associated with Type IV hypersensitivity except:
A)antigen presenting cells
B)plasma cells
C)sensitized TH1 cells
D)granulomatous lesions
Q3) The immunologically privileged site that protects the fetus from mother's immune system is most likely due to the fact that _____.
A)mother's IgG do not cross the placenta
B)fetal portion of placenta does not exhibit MHC molecules
C)alpha-fetoprotein inhibits immune responses
D)two of these
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21
Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is:
A)to prevent opthalmia neonatorum
B)because pinkeye is extremely contagious
C)gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns
D)two of these
Q2) Varicella-Zoster virus is associated with all statements below except:
A)causes chicken pox
B)latent virus is reactivated when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
C)causes shingles
D)acyclovir has been shown to be an excellent treatment for shingles
Q3) Gas gangrene,with gas production leading to tissue necrosis,is due to:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Clostridium perfringens
D)Spirillum minor
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Toxic shock syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)super-absorbent tampons
C)exotoxin C
D)elderly men
Q2) A major cause of UTIs is _____
A)eating something that doesn't agree with you.
B)incomplete emptying of the bladder.
C)immunosuppression.
D)two of these.
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative agent of _____.
A)non-gonococcal urethritis
B)lymphogranuloma venereum
C)inclusion blennorrhea
D)all of these
Q4) The strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer _____.
A)are the same strains that cause external genital warts
B)also cause cold sores
C)are different from the strains that cause external gential warts
D)two of these
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Cyanosis,which may occur during whooping cough,is:
A)a fainting spell
B)a vomiting incident
C)a bluing of the skin
D)formation of a red rash
Q2) Hantaviruses:
A)is transmitted in urine of infected mice
B)causes foamy sputum and rupture of alveolar septa
C)causes granulomatous lesions in lungs and spleen
D)two of these choices
Q3) Pharyngitis is described as a _____.
A)sore throat
B)strep throat
C)viral infection
D)fungal infection
Q4) The presence of Bordetella pertussis is confirmed by _____.
A)beta colonies on a blood agar plate
B)sensitivity to penicillin
C)a reddish pigmented colony
D)a fluorescent antibody stain
24
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following hepatitis virus would be most likely to be transmitted due to contaminated water
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis D
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis B
Q2) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by:
A)enterotoxins
B)exotoxins
C)toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain
D)all of these choices
Q3) Which of the following infections is due to prokaryotic organisms
A)stomach ulcers
B)hepatitis
C)duodenal ulcers
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) The flea is the arthropod vector for:
A)Epidemic typhus
B)Endemic typhus
C)Trench fever
D)Scrub typhus
Q2) The body louse is the arthropod vector for:
A)Endemic typhus
B)Epidemic typhus
C)Trench fever
D)Two of these choices
Q3) Yellow fever is characterized by all of the following except:
A)carrier is the sand fly
B)reservoir in monkey populations
C)vaccine is available
D)limited to tropical areas of Central & South America and Africa
Q4) Malaria is not characterized by:
A)endemic in South and Central America,Africa,and Asia
B)world's greatest public health problem
C)bacterial strains infecting red blood cells
D)in a severe form,red blood cells agglutinate causing ischemia
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Mycobacterium leprae is difficult to cultivate but it can be grown _____.
A)on blood agar
B)in armadillos
C)in tissue culture
D)in embryonated eggs
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for Chagas' disease
A)Mycobacterium leprae
B)Clostridium tetani
C)Trypanosoma cruzi
D)Poliovirus
Q3) Health care workers should watch for undiagnosed Hansen's disease among
A)farmers
B)urban dwellers
C)veterinarians
D)immigrants
Q4) Prions infectivity:
A)can be destroyed by autoclaving for 1 hour
B)is reduced after formaldehyde treatment
C)can be retained in buried brains left for 3 years in soil
D)two of these choices
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The mechanism whereby Rhizobium and the legume associate is characterized by all of the following except:
A)multiplies in the vicinity of legume roots
B)bacteria release proteases to digest cell wall
C)change from free-living to swarmer cells
D)swarmers invade root hairs to become bacteroids
Q2) In the sulfur cycle many microbes convert sulfhydryl (-SH)groups to _____,which is toxic to living things.
A)hydrogen sulfate
B)hydrogen sulfide
C)HSH
D)sulfate
Q3) Which would not be the habitat for terrestrial species of some microorganisms
A)desert
B)tundra
C)tropical rain forest
D)freshwater lake
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) What statement about microbial production of enzymes is INCORRECT
A)All enzymes used in industrial processes are synthesized in living organisms.
B)Enzyme specificity minimizes the problems of product purification.
C)Modifying nutrient conditions in industrial fermentation will not alter the amount of valued product produced by the microbes.
D)Aspergillus molds produce proteases and amylases.
Q2) Some strains of _______ can inhibit the growth of other organisms by decreasing the pH and making hydrogen peroxide.
A)Lactobacillus
B)Staphylococcus
C)Vibrio
D)Clostridium
Q3) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect
A)Single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein.
B)They are used in the production of steroid hormones.
C)They can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste.
D)They are currently used in animal feed.
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