Microbiology Laboratory
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
The Microbiology Laboratory course provides students with hands-on experience in fundamental microbiological techniques. Emphasizing aseptic methods, students learn to culture, isolate, and identify microorganisms from various sources, utilizing microscopy, staining, and biochemical assays. The course reinforces theoretical concepts from lecture by engaging students in experiments that explore microbial physiology, growth conditions, and the role of microbes in health and disease. Laboratory safety, proper use of equipment, and accurate data recording are integral components, preparing students for advanced study or professional work in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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1891 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
A)Monera.
B)Protista.
C)Mycetae.
D)Plantae.
E)Animalia.
Answer: B
Q2) Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?
A)a human's large intestine
B)in a hot spring
C)a pond
D)a sewage treatment plant
E)a beer production facility
Answer: B
Q3) A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) One nucleotide contains
A)one phosphate.
B)one pentose.
C)one nitrogen base.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a dissolving medium called a _____.or
Answer: solutes solvent
Q4) A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.
Answer: saturated
Q5) Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____.
Answer: nucleus
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
A)fastidious.
B)pathogenic.
C)harmless.
D)anaerobic.
E)aerobic.
Answer: A
Q2) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
A)streak plate
B)spread plate
C)pour plate
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices are correct
Answer: C
Q3) _____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens.
Answer: immersion oil
Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid.What is the identity of this structure?
A)cell wall
B)capsule
C)slime layer
D)nucleoid
E)endospore
04)21 Discuss the resistance and significance of endospores.
Q2) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications.
Q4) The function of bacterial endospores is
A)to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants.
B)for reproduction and growth.
C)for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions.
D)the storage of excess cell materials.
E)to have sites for photosynthesis.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota?
A)Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals.
B)Based on whether they have a cap containing gills.
C)Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state.
D)Based on if they have a special fungal sac.
E)Based on if they can grow in acidic soil.
Q2) Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except
A)infected animals.
B)contaminated food.
C)contaminated water.
D)contaminated soil.
E)contaminated air.
Q3) The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is
A)mostly polysaccharide.
B)the site where many metabolic reactions occur.
C)also called the cell wall.
D)composed of many diverse proteins.
E)protection against osmotic lysis.
Q4) The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _____.
Q5) Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
Q2) Discuss at least six characteristics that are unique to viruses compared to other microorganisms.
Q3) Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A)lysogeny.
B)budding.
C)plaques.
D)cytopathic effects. E)pocks.
Q5) During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the _____ _____.
Q6) Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____, and the infectious RNA strands called _____.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a _____ _____ that will bind to the substance effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the membrane.
Q3) The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q4) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species generation time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of:
A)anabolism.
B)catabolism.
C)phosphorylation.
D)fermentation.
E)biosynthesis.
Q2) The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is:
A)mitochondria.
B)within the cell membrane.
C)lysosomes.
D)cytoplasm.
E)outside of the cell.
Q3) Enzymes are:
A)broken down in reactions that require energy input.
B)proteins that function as catalysts.
C)electron carrier molecules.
D)not needed for catabolic reactions.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Metabolic pathways that are bidirectional are called _____ pathways.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial conjugation involves
A)bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.
B)a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus.
C)naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell.
D)new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa lack a functioning
A)photolyase.
B)DNA polymerase III.
C)DNA ligase.
D)ribozyme.
E)RNA polymerase.
Q3) Split genes
A)are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B)only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C)have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D)use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a _____.
Q5) The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is
A)AUAUGC
B)UAUACG
C)TATACG
D)CGUAUA
Q2) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands?
A)add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C
B)cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C
C)add primers
D)heat target DNA to 94°C
E)repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
Q4) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
Q5) Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.
Q6) Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy.
Q7) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains. Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethylene oxide is:
A)sporicidal.
B)only effective with high heat.
C)the active agent in household bleach.
D)used as an antiseptic against anaerobes.
E)a halogen.
Q2) Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is:
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q4) Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except A)development of resistance to the drug.
B)hepatotoxicity.
C)nephrotoxicity.
D)diarrhea.
E)deafness.
Q2) The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
Q3) A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A)synercid.
B)penicillinase. C)aztreonam.
D)clavulanic acid. E)imipenem.
Q4) Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys. A)True B)False
Q5) Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone kills viruses. A)True B)False
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
Q2) Resident flora of the intestines include A)Streptococcus.
B)Bacteroides.
C)Staphylococcus.
D)Haemophilus.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites, except A)Escherichia.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Corynebacterium.
D)Micrococcus.
E)Mycobacterium.
Q4) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are A)fomites.
B)aerosols.
C)mechanical vectors.
D)droplet nuclei.
E)biological vectors.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Children with DiGeorge Syndrome are born without a thymus.Discuss, in detail, the repercussions to body defense mechanisms caused by this disease.
Q3) Plasma cells
A)function in cell-mediated immunity.
B)are derived from T-lymphocytes.
C)function in blood clotting.
D)produce and secrete antibodies.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Hemopoiesis is the
A)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B)production of only red blood cells.
C)production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
Q5) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
Page 17
Q6) The _____ region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B lymphocytes.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q2) Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
A)Neutralization
B)Opsonization
C)Complement fixation
D)Agglutination
E)Anamnestic response
Q3) T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires
A)typically a protein antigen.
B)binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell.
C)binding of T cell to a site on the antigen.
D)interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the proposed theories that attempt to explain the origin of autoimmunity.
Q2) All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except A)macrophages.
B)natural killer cells.
C)cytotoxic T cells.
D)plasma cells.
E)All of the choices participate.
Q3) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)Degranulation
B)Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q4) Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is
A)frequent transfusions of Rh<sup>+</sup> blood.
B)passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy.
C)bone marrow transplant.
D)allografts of skin.
E)continuous immunosuppressive therapy.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?
A)Catalase test
B)Gram stain
C)Phage typing
D)Antimicrobic sensitivity
E)Production of gas
Q2) ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main categories of identifying infectious agents using specific examples.
Q5) Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections?
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except:
A)humans are the only significant reservoir.
B)some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens.
C)most strains do not have a capsule.
D)it can cause impetigo and erysipelas.
E)infection is generally through direct contact.
Q2) Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Streptococcus agalactiae
Q4) Explain what is meant by MRSA, why it is a particular concern to hospitals, and what action hospitals are taking to prevent MRSA spread.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis:
A)Clostridium botulinum
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Clostridium tetani
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about diphtheria?
A)it is a zoonosis
B)humans can be healthy carriers
C)it is prevented with the DTaP vaccine
D)it is an upper respiratory infection
E)it can be transmitted via contaminated milk
Q4) Botox injections contain botulin toxin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _____ test injects 0.1 ml of PPD intradermally into the forearm.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it.Why?
A)Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.
B)Because it cannot be cultured in the lab to necessary numbers.
C)Because it is too expensive at this time to grow it.
D)It encourages the overgrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable.
E)It produces a foul odor making it a poor choice for most situations.
Q2) All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A)it is transmitted by human feces.
B)it is caused by Yersinia pestis.
C)the patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
D)the patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness.
E)it can progress to a septicemia.
Q3) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.
Q4) Describe the characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae and discuss the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms in the family.
Q5) Discuss Legionella pneumophila with regard to: a) reservoir, b) virulence, c) transmission, d) types of diseases, and e) prevention.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A)syphilis.
B)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C)relapsing fever.
D)Lyme disease.
E)leptospirosis.
Q2) During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent
E)All of the choices are correct
Q3) Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws?
A)Syphilis is caused by a spirochete.
B)Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages.
C)Syphilis is sexually transmitted.
D)Syphilis is treated with antibiotics.
E)Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.
Q4) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Q4) Trichophyton species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dermatophytoses are
A)fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.
B)also called ringworm.
C)also called tineas.
D)often time-consuming to eradicate completely.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q6) Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Human asymptomic carriers are common in A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)elephantiasis.
D)trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and malaria.
Q2) The usual definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus is A)humans.
B)pigs.
C)cats.
D)dogs.
E)bears.
Q3) Outbreaks of this apicomplexan disease have been associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water.
A)cryptosporidiosis
B)cyclosporiasis
C)babesiosis
D)toxoplasmosis
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
Q2) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
Q3) Which is incorrect about smallpox?
A)There is an effective vaccine.
B)Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.
C)The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure.
D)The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent.
E)The last case was seen in 1977.
Q4) All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except:
A)They all cause hepatitis.
B)They are all endemic in the U.S.
C)They all can have an incubation period of one month.
D)There are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them.
E)They are all RNA viruses.
Q5) Fifth disease:
A)is caused by Parvovirus B19.
B)is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.
C)involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.
D)in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Influenza vaccines include all the following, except:
A)inactivated intramuscular vaccine.
B)usually incorporates three different strains.
C)attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.
D)provides lifelong immunity.
E)Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.
Q2) Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except:
A)reservoir is human carriers
B)is a zoonosis
C)symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension
D)transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E)first U.S.outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest
Q3) Which is correct about influenza?
A)Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain.
B)The virus is found in swine and cats.
C)The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.
D)Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%.
E)The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.
Q4) An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indicator bacteria are A)coliforms.
B)gram-negative rods.
C)evidence of fecal contamination.
D)used in water quality tests.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>) to the ammonium ion (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) occurs during A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q3) Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of certain plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle?
Q5) Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Vinegar can be produced when alcohol in wine is oxidized to acetic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
Q3) Hops is the herb that gives beer some of its aroma and flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following causes food intoxication?
A)Salmonellosis
B)Listerosis
C)Campylobacteriosis
D)Staphyloccocal enteritis
E)Vibrio enteritis
Q5) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
Q7) A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31