Microbiology Laboratory Exam Bank
Course Introduction
The Microbiology Laboratory course provides students with hands-on experience in fundamental microbiological techniques and experiments. Students will learn the principles of aseptic technique, culturing, staining, and identifying microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Through guided investigations, participants will practice skills such as streak plating, microscopic observation, biochemical testing, and the use of selective and differential media. Emphasis is placed on lab safety, accurate record-keeping, data analysis, and the application of microbiological methods to real-world scenarios in medicine, industry, and environmental science. This practical component complements theoretical microbiology concepts, preparing students for advanced laboratory work or professional applications in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1432 Verified Questions
1432 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Louis Pasteur made several important contributions to microbiology. These included studying wine making,diseases in silkworms and which of the following:
A) associated diseases with multiple different organisms, such as the 3 different organisms which caused the same silkworm disease
B) developing the first rabies vaccine
C) used swan-necked flasks to prove that air contained the vital force that brought microbes
D) discovering a method to introduce unwanted organisms into food and wine
Answer: B
Q2) In which of the following groups would you find a mushroom?
A) bacteria
B) protozoa
C) fungi
D) viruses
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical reactions occur:
A) between elements that have magnetic repulsion.
B) rarely as very few elements have electrons in their outer shell.
C) during metabolism as they are necessary for making the substance of cells.
D) only in eukaryotes as they require a nucleus.
Answer: C
Q2) Carbohydrates
A) are relatively insoluble in water
B) have a four ring structure
C) are used primarily for energy and cellular structures
D) have primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure
Answer: C
Q3) Carbohydrates do not include which of the following
A) glucose
B) starch
C) cellulose
D) sterols
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) To calculate the total magnification of a light microscope you must know
A) the magnification of the objective and condenser lenses
B) the magnification of the ocular and condenser lenses
C) the magnification of objective, ocular and condenser lenses
D) the magnification of the objective and ocular lenses
Answer: D
Q2) Why is diffraction a problem for microscopy?
A) because the lens acts as a large aperture through which light must pass
B) the small size of higher-power lenses causes severe diffraction
C) loss of light results in blurred images
D) diffraction of light is useful when using an oil immersion lens to view objects
Answer: B
Q3) Which stain would be the best choice for detecting mycobacterium (the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy)?
A) simple stain
B) endospore stain
C) acid-fast stain
D) Gram stain
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attachment pili do all of the following except,
A) help bacteria adhere to surfaces
B) allow bacteria to form a pellicle at the air-water interface of a broth culture
C) clump blood cells in a process called hemagglutination
D) prevent the pathogenicity of certain bacteria
Q2) The shape of a bacterial cell is determined (and maintained)by the A) cell membrane
B) cell wall
C) capsule
D) slime layer
Q3) Some bacteria can transfer DNA to another cell using A) conjugation pili
B) fimbriae
C) axial filaments
D) lophotrichous flagella
Q4) Three bags,permeable to water but not salt,are placed in beakers containing an isotonic,hypotonic and hypertonic solution. Describe how you could determine which beaker was which. If the bag were a cell what would happen to it if it was placed in each beaker.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions?
A) Iron
B) FAD
C) Niacin
D) NAD
Q2) The synthesis of DNA,in which small nucleotides are joined together to make a single large molecule would be most correctly described as being a/n ________ reaction.
A) metabolic
B) anabolic
C) catabolic
D) cytobolic
Q3) A metabolic pathway that is involved in both breakdown and synthetic reactions is properly termed
A) catabolic
B) amphibolic
C) metabolic
D) anabolic
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water,magnesium,calcium chloride,potassium and glucose would be considered
A) a defined synthetic medium
B) a complex medium
C) a chemically nondefined medium
D) two of the above
Q2) Microbial growth
A) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell
B) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division
C) in a single generation's time leads to double the cell size
D) in a single generation's time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q3) Which of the following is considered a trace element?
A) carbon
B) zinc
C) sulphur
D) phosphorous
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A linear sequence of DNA nucleotides which provides the genetic information for a single characteristic is a
A) chromosome
B) plasmid
C) gene
D) base pair
Q2) Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
A) the first position of a codon determines the amino acid
B) an amino acid can be specified for by more than one codon
C) nonsense codons contain no information
D) because DNA only contains three letters there are very few possible genes that can exist
Q3) tRNA molecules serve as a link between
A) DNA and mRNA
B) codons and anticodons
C) codons and amino acids
D) mRNA and rRNA
Q4) Using the lac and trp operons as examples,describe the two control mechanisms for protein synthesis: one based on enzyme induction and the other based on enzyme repression.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transgenic organism
A) contains DNA from two different species of organism
B) contains a plasmid
C) is resistant to viral infection
D) contains DNA which allows it to transfer plasmids from its cells to other cells
Q2) In specialized transduction the bacterial genes transduced tend to be
A) those genes in greatest use by the bacteria
B) those genes that are currently not being transcribed
C) those genes that are located close to the site of the prophage
D) those genes that are small enough to fit in the viral head
Q3) Gene therapy would describe which of the following scenarios?
A) bacteria which produce human growth hormone
B) a DNA comparison in a paternity case
C) yeast which has been genetically engineered to produce yeast from starch
D) replacing a defective gene in human cells
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except
A) Archea
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Humans
Q2) To classify new microbes,modern genetic techniques are employed. Why would the evolutionary relatedness of genes (genetic homology)be more useful than morphology? How are ribosomal RNAs used to study evolutionary relationships among organisms?
Q3) Rickettsiae and Chlamydiae are unusual in that they
A) are sometimes gram negative and sometimes gram positive
B) have no cell walls
C) must live inside other living cells
D) are extremely large
Q4) In the five kingdom system of classification
A) viruses can't be classified
B) all prokaryotic organisms are found in the kingdom eubacteria
C) all organisms that can photosynthesize are found in the plant kingdom
D) a domain is a division of a kingdom
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral DNA lying within a bacterial chromosome is called a ________ while the combination of a bacterial cell and its temperate phage is called a ________.
A) prophage, lysogen
B) plaque, lysogen
C) lysogen, prophage
D) prophage, retrovirus
Q2) Why is there concern about the recent outbreak of avian influenza in Netherlands? Because
A) avian influenza may infect humans.
B) human influenza may exchange genetic material with avian influenza and infect humans.
C) avian influenza may spread to other countries.
D) avian influenza may change to another virus that could infect humans.
Q3) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a
A) lytic cycle
B) temperate cycle
C) lysogenic cycle
D) induction
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bread molds are members of the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
Q2) The major characteristic used to divide protozoans into four major groups is
A) type of feeding behavior
B) habitat
C) reproduction strategies
D) type of motility
Q3) The only non-motile group of protozoans is the
A) mastigophorans
B) sarcodines
C) apicomplexans
D) ciliates
Q4) Cell walls in fungi are most often made of
A) cellulose
B) peptidoglycan
C) chitin
D) calcium carbonate
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a)disinfectant and antiseptic; b)bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c)sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
Q2) Which of the following are not examples of alkylating agents that disrupt proteins and nucleic acids?
A) glutaraldahyde
B) b-propiolactone
C) ethylene oxide
D) methylene oxide
Q3) Surfactants include all of the following except
A) alcohols
B) detergents
C) wetting agents
D) oxidizing agents
Q4) Ultraviolet radiation
A) is the same as X rays
B) is the same as gamma rays
C) penetrates glass, cloth, paper and most other materials
D) kills microorganisms by damaging DNA and proteins
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis
A) by disrupting cell membrane fraction
B) by binding to 80S ribosomal subunits
C) by interfering with the accurate reading of the mRNA message
D) by binding to a 60S ribosomal subunit
Q2) Rimantadine is an effective antimicrobial agent against:
A) viruses
B) protozoa
C) bacteria
D) fungi
Q3) Rifamicin
A) inhibits RNA synthesis
B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
C) disrupts cell membrane function
D) acts as an antimetabolite
Q4) Which of the antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria?
A) amikacin
B) tyrothricin
C) vancomycin
D) cephalexin
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship is called:
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) contamination
Q2) Which of the following microbes easily satisfies Koch's postulates?
A) fastidious bacteria
B) sepsis, for which many microbes are regularly isolated
C) hepatitis C, for which there is no suitable animal model
D) plague, as it can be isolated from sick patients
Q3) A symptom
A) is present during the convalescent stage
B) can be observed or felt only by the patient
C) can be observed by examination of the patient
D) only occurs during invasive infections
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
Q2) A common portal of entry for microorganisms is/are
A) milk
B) blood vessels
C) saliva ducts
D) mucous membranes
Q3) All of the following infectious diseases can occur in the fetus when the causative agents cross the placenta except
A) AIDS
B) syphilis
C) rubella
D) pneumonia
Q4) An index case
A) refers to the first case where an infectious disease kills a susceptible host
B) is necessary for a common source outbreak
C) defines a propagated epidemic
D) refers to the first case of an infectious disease outbreak to be identified
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except
A) produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B) block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C) form parasitophorous vacuoles
D) produce streptolysisin and leukocidin
Q2) Which statement about chemical barriers is false?
A) high salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
B) chemical barriers include mechanisms to limit free iron
C) secreted defensins form pores in microbes' membranes
D) chemical barriers include acute phase proteins and interferons
Q3) Acute phase response proteins
A) include C-reactive protein (CRP) and mannose-binding protein (MBP)
B) bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent
C) destroy abnormal cells
D) increase resistance of cells to viral infection
Q4) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut?
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) The process whereby lymphocytes which recognize self antigens are removed,thus producing tolerance in the host is
A) heterogeneity
B) memory
C) primary response
D) clonal deletion
Q2) After differentiation how do B cells migrate?
A) bone marrow blood cirulation lymph nodes
B) bone marrow thymus blood circulation
C) bone marrow bursa of Fabricius lymph nodes
D) lymph node bone marrow blood circulation
Q3) Immunity that is mediated by antibodies is called
A) innate
B) humoral
C) cell-mediated
D) non-specific
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypersensitivity to poison ivy
A) is due to the formation of granulomas
B) is a type I hypersensitivity reaction
C) leads to contact dermatitis due to immune reaction to urushiol
D) occurs immediately after contact with the oil from the plant
Q2) Which of the following statements about cytotoxic hypersensitivity is correct?
A) normally a person's serum has IgM against the antigens on their own red blood cells
B) transfusion reactions are no longer a problem because transfusions rarely occur
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn can not be prevented
D) sensitization to Rh antigen can occur during delivery, miscarriage or abortion
Q3) The match between HLAs determines the suitability of transplants; which HLA is known to generate the strongest transplant rejection reaction?
A) HLA-A and HLA-B
B) HLA B27
C) HLA Dw3
D) HLA-DR
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which correctly matches the disease caused by VZV virus?
A) shingles - virus is carried in blood to various tissues
B) chickenpox - confined to a single region supplied by a particular nerve
C) chickenpox - is due to latent virus that is reactivated
D) shingles - occurs when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of measles or rubeola except A) Koplik's spots
B) upper respiratory and middle ear infections
C) stillborn, heart abnormalities or low birth weight
D) red raised rash caused by T cells interacting with virus-infected cells in small blood vessels
Q3) Varicella-Zoster Virus is associated with all statements below except A) causes chicken pox
B) latent virus is reactivated when cell-mediated immunity drops below a critical level
C) causes shingles
D) acyclovir has been shown to be an excellent treatment for shingles
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
21
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative agent of
A) non-gonococcal urethritis
B) lymphogranuloma venereum
C) inclusion blennorrhea
D) all of the above
Q2) The strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer
A) are the same strains that cause external genital warts
B) also cause cold sores
C) are different from the strains that cause external genital warts
D) two of the above
Q3) Disseminated CMV
A) always involves brain involvement and in adults leads to neural damage
B) can occur 1 to 4 months after an organ transplant
C) can lead to severe and often lethal pneumonia in bone marrow transplant patients
D) two of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Pharyngitis is described as
A) a sore throat
B) a strep throat
C) a viral infection
D) a fungal infection
Q2) A friend calls and says he thinks he has the flu,because he has a runny,stuffy nose and has been sneezing quite a bit. You tell him it sounds like a cold,not the flu. Compare and contrast four of the symptoms of the common cold and influenza for him.
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus
A) is the most common cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants under 1 yr of age
B) is a pneumonia-like disease transmitted to humans by birds
C) usually a skin disease but sometimes disseminated to the lungs
D) two of the above
Q4) Pharyngitis is most often caused by
A) a virus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes Group A
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Corynebacterium
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Q2) Echinococcus granulosus is characterized by all of the following except A) it is a tapeworm
B) children are infected when their faces are licked by infected dogs
C) may form cysticercus in bladder
D) may form hydatid cysts in vital tissues, like the brain
Q3) Which of the following helminths is not diagnosed by finding eggs in the feces?
A) Trichinosis
B) Whipworm
C) Ascariasis
D) Hookworm
Q4) Your 14-month old daughter is fussy when you bring her home from daycare. And when you change her diaper you are shocked to find diarrhea with blood and mucus. Which pathogen might she have and why did you reach that diagnosis?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Verruga peruana is
A) a zoonosis highly infective for humans
B) transmitted by sandflies
C) characterized by a chronic nonfatal skin disease
D) two of the above
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a bacteria-fibrin mass that forms on damaged valvular surfaces?
A) vegetation
B) lymphangitis
C) ischemia
D) petichia
Q3) Group B Streptococcal disease is characterized by A) early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis
B) late onset neonatal meningitis
C) etiology is Streptococcus agalactiae
D) all of the above
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) ________ can be especially dangerous to pregnant women causing abortion,stillbirth,or neonatal death.
A) Meningococcal meningitis
B) Listeriosis
C) Streptococcal meningitis
D) Haemophilus meningitis
Q2) Which of the following refers to the clinical form of leprosy that causes a loss of skin pigment and sensation?
A) granulomatous
B) lepromatous
C) tuberculoid
D) two of the above
Q3) Tetanus is most common in
A) newborns
B) adolescents
C) young adult athletes
D) older women
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Sulfate-reducing bacteria are characteristically
A) being strict anaerobes
B) Desulfovibrio
C) utilizing sulfate as a final electron acceptor
D) all of the above
Q2) In the phosphorous cycle,inorganic phosphates are converted to _____,a water-soluble nutrient used by both plants and microorganisms.
A) phosphorous
B) hydrophosphates
C) orthophosphate
D) betaphosphate
Q3) Cytophaga,found in soil,is characterized by
A) being a fungus
B) cellulose degradation
C) being strictly aerobic
D) being a protozoan decomposer
Q4) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important for pollution? What do microbes have to do with this?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Microorganisms have been found to
A) degrade cyanide
B) deactivate Arochlor 1260, the most highly toxic PCB compound
C) degrade dioxin
D) all of the above
Q2) The major use for microbially derived proteases is
A) in laundry detergents and drain cleaners
B) as animal feed
C) chemical modification of food additives
D) in the production of high fructose corn syrup
Q3) To be suitable for industrial use,a microorganism should
A) grow rapidly and produce product in a relatively short period of time.
B) be capable of growth and product formation in large scale culture.
C) be genetically stable.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which term is matched correctly?
A) aflatoxin -- carcinogenic
B) ergot -- can be hallucinogenic
C) lysozyme - found in egg yolks
D) flat sours - occurs in cans left at room temperature
Page 28
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