Microbiology for Public Health Exam Bank - 1527 Verified Questions

Microbiology for Public Health Exam Bank https://quizplus.com/study-set/2314 27 Chapters 1527 Verified Questions

Microbiology for Public Health Exam Bank Course Introduction This course explores the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to public health. Students will examine the biology, classification, and behavior of microbes—including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites—and their roles in disease transmission, prevention, and control. Through laboratory exercises and case studies, the course highlights methods for detecting and identifying pathogens, understanding antimicrobial resistance, and implementing effective surveillance and intervention strategies. Emphasis is placed on the intersection of microbiology and epidemiology, preparing students to assess risks, respond to outbreaks, and contribute to improving population health outcomes.

Recommended Textbook Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster

Available Study Resources on Quizplus 27 Chapters 1527 Verified Questions 1527 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2314

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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 55 Verified Questions 55 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46013

Sample Questions Q1) If Spallanzani had unknowingly poked a hole in the top of his flask of meat broth,what would this have implied about the theory of spontaneous generation? A) No growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation. B) No growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation. C) Growth would have occurred in the flask, refuting the theory of spontaneous generation. D) Growth would have occurred in the flask, supporting the theory of spontaneous generation. Answer: D Q2) The first cellular genome sequenced was a(n) A) animal. B) virus. C) archaea. D) bacteria. Answer: D Q3) Bacteria and archaea are classified as ________. Answer: prokaryotes To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3

Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46014

Sample Questions Q1) Why do some public health departments widely spray insecticides in the spring and summer? Answer: Because mosquitoes and other insects often serve as pathogen vectors and reservoirs,limiting insect populations can decrease human disease incidence. Q2) Walter defecates in the company restroom,does not wash his hands thoroughly,and then uses the office coffee pot,transferring bacteria onto the handle of the pot.Marcia pours some coffee and then goes to her desk to eat a muffin,ingesting some of the bacteria she picked up from the coffee pot.What is the route of transmission of this infection? A) fecal-oral B) respiratory C) urogenital D) parenteral Answer: A Q3) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of ________. Answer: immunopathology To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 61 Verified Questions 61 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46015

Sample Questions Q1) Oil immersion is used in which type of microscopy and on which objective? A) bright-field microscopy, 40X B) bright-field microscopy, 100x C) darkfield microscopy, 40x D) darkfield microscopy, 100x Answer: B Q2) A ________ is the only way to observe live specimens. Answer: wet mount Q3) In an acid-fast stain,carbolfuchsin specifically stains ________ of Mycobaterium tuberculosis. Answer: mycolic acid Q4) Which microscope technique is best used for visualizing the surface structures of cells and viruses? A) phase-contrast B) bright-field C) scanning electron D) darkfield Answer: C Q5) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________. Answer: empty magnification

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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 55 Verified Questions 55 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46016

Sample Questions Q1) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance? Q2) Which of the following is true of glucose? A) It is a component of DNA and RNA. B) It can form a ring structure. C) It contains numerous amino groups. D) It is a five-carbon sugar. Q3) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction? A) The entropy has decreased. B) The change in free energy, DG, is positive. C) The change in free energy, DG, is negative. D) The reaction is endergonic. Q4) The second law of thermodynamics states that A) energy is neither created nor destroyed. B) matter is neither created nor destroyed. C) in energy transformations, disorder tends to increase. D) in energy transformations, disorder tends to decrease. Q5) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C₂H₅NO₂.What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide? 6 click on the resource link above. To view all questions and flashcards with Page answers,

Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46017

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is true of growing bacteria? A) DNA synthesis occurs continuously. B) DNA synthesis occurs during a defined period. C) They suspend flagella rotation to put energy toward DNA replication. D) DNA synthesis cannot occur at the same time as transcription. Q2) The cell membrane stores energy by maintaining a separation of A) DNA. B) proteins. C) ions. D) lipids. Q3) ATP synthase is found in bacterial cell membranes.In eukaryotic cells,ATP synthase is found in the A) cell membrane. B) cytoplasm. C) mitochondrial inner membrane. D) mitochondrial matrix. Q4) The bacterial nucleoid contains loops of DNA that emanate from a central point called the ________. Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes. 7 click on the resource link above. To view all questions and flashcards with Page answers,

Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46018

Sample Questions Q1) Bacteria begin to participate in quorum sensing at which stage of growth? A) late log phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase Q2) Within aquatic environments,bacteria are mainly found associated with surfaces in the form of a ________. Q3) What is the purpose of the palladium packet in the anaerobic jar? A) to catalyze a reaction between H₂ and residual O₂ in the jar to remove all the O₂ B) to remove CO₂ that can be converted to O₂ C) to provide O₂ for aerobic respiration D) to provide N₂ for protein synthesis Q4) Which of the following can be used to directly count bacterial cells without the use of a microscope? A) viable counts B) optical density C) fluorescence-activated cell sorter D) Petroff-Hauser counting chamber Q5) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans? 8 click on the resource link above. To view all questions and flashcards with Page answers,

Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46019

Sample Questions Q1) If in the ETS electrons are passed from a to b and finally accepted by c, then A) a is a stronger electron acceptor than b. B) a is a stronger electron acceptor than c. C) a is a stronger electron donor than b. D) c is a stronger electron donor than b. Q2) Which of the following is true of energy and living cells? A) Organisms can create their own energy. B) Organisms do not require inputs of energy from the environment. C) Organisms require inputs of energy from the environment to survive. D) Only heterotrophic organisms require environmental energy inputs to survive. Q3) Which of the pathways below are in the correct order for the flow of electrons from glucose to oxygen in aerobic respiration? A) glycolysis, ETS, TCA B) glycolysis, fermentation, TCA C) TCA, glycolysis, ETS D) glycolysis, TCA, ETS Q4) Why does sugar production from CO₂ require NADPH in addition to ATP? In other words,why is ATP not sufficient? Q5) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________. 9 Q6) The ultimate goal of the Calvin cycle Page is to produce ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 54 Verified Questions 54 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46020

Sample Questions Q1) The gene that codes for a protein involved in detoxifying an environmental toxin is only expressed in the presence of the toxin.A repressor protein controls transcription of the gene.Which of the following is true? A) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor. B) The toxin mediates induction of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator. C) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by relieving repression imposed by the repressor. D) The toxin mediates repression of the gene by stimulating activation mediated by an activator. Q2) DNA replication begins at a chromosomal region called the A) activator. B) initiator. C) origin. D) promoter. Q3) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________. Q4) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10

Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46021

Sample Questions Q1) If the mutation rate is not the same for all species being compared using a molecular clock,what does a phylogenetic tree demonstrate? A) the time since two species diverged from a common ancestor B) the amount of evolutionary distance between two species C) the generation time for species D) the induced mutation frequency between two species Q2) Griffith's observations from his experiments infecting mice with smooth and rough strain Streptococcus pneumoniae were later found to be due to A) conjugation. B) transposition. C) transduction. D) transformation. Q3) Serratia marcescens is taxonomically considered a A) homolog. B) identification. C) nomenclature. D) classification. Q4) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11

Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 54 Verified Questions 54 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46022

Sample Questions Q1) A bacterial disease previously known to only infect dogs begins to cause respiratory infections in humans who are in close contact with infected dogs.Which of the following explanations most likely explains the emergence of this new human pathogen? A) The genome of the bacterium changed through horizontal gene transfer within the microbiota of the dog. B) There was a mutation in the human genome that allowed the bacterium to attack human cells more vigorously. C) The bacterium became infected by a mutation-inducing virus transmitted through flea bites on the dog. D) The bacterium forms dormant endospores that remain in the environment even after the infected dogs are removed. Q2)

Structures

found

in

some

Gram-positive

bacteria

that

resist

desiccation,radiation,freezing,and chemical disinfectants are ________. Q3) Explain how changes in a bacterial genome could cause a nonpathogenic bacterium to develop into a pathogen. Q4) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected? To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 58 Verified Questions 58 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46023

Sample Questions Q1) Describe the shared evolutionary event that led to chloroplasts in both algae and plants. Q2) Blood and fecal samples are collected from a man with dysentery to determine the causative agent and appropriate treatment.Which of the following would most clearly indicate amebic infection? A) immunological tests indicating the presence of Shigella B) a Wheatley's trichrome stain indicating a protozoa with ingested red blood cells C) a Gram stain indicating the presence of Gram-negative bacteria D) an endospore stain indicating the presence of endospores Q3) Why is perianal itching significant in the life cycle of pinworms? A) When a host scratches the anus, pinworm larvae enter the bloodstream. B) Eggs are trapped under fingernails and transferred to new hosts. C) Scratching allows mature worms to break through the surface of the skin. D) Transmission of pinworms ends when the host scratches the anus. Q4) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection. Q5) Arthropods that attach to the surface of a human or other vertebrate are referred to as ________.

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Chapter 12: Viruses Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46024

Sample Questions Q1)

West

Nile

virus

is

capable

of

infecting

many

different

organisms

(humans,birds,raccoons,and so on).Based on this information,which of the following statements correctly describes West Nile virus? A) West Nile virus has a narrow host range. B) West Nile virus has a broad host range. C) West Nile virus has a narrow tissue tropism. D) West Nile virus is capable of fecal-oral transmission. Q2) Replication of HPV is activated when A) the DNA is uncoated. B) infecting basal cells. C) integrating into the host genome. D) keratinocytes differentiate. Q3) Why is gelatin needed to culture animal viruses in tissue culture? A) Animal viruses use gelatin as an energy source. B) Cells in tissue culture require gelatin to grow. C) Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells, allowing for plaques to form. D) Gelatin is used to stain viral plaques. Q4) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________. Q5) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome. 14 click on the resource link above. To view all questions and flashcards withPage answers,

Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 63 Verified Questions 63 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46025

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following does NOT affect the sensitivity of a microorganism to food irradiation? A) genome size B) rate of repair of DNA damage C) whether the food is fresh or frozen D) the presence of heat-shock enzymes Q2) Hannibal Lecter,an infamous serial killer,is attempting to use H₂O₂ to remove pesky blood stains of his latest victim from his 100% cashmere scarf and for disinfection purposes.Why is it taking him so long to disinfect his scarf? A) H₂O₂ is not a good disinfection agent. B) This type of disinfection procedure is best completed at colder temperatures. C) Blood is an example of organic load that can inhibit the process of disinfection. D) The organisms on his scarf are resistant to H₂O₂. Q3) Give an example of when you would want to use a broad-spectrum antibiotic and when you would want to use a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.Give a disadvantage to using a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Q4) Wescodyne and betadine are examples of ________ complexed with organic carriers. Q5) Aminoglycosides inhibit translation by binding to the ________. 15 click on the resource link above. To view all questions and flashcards withPage answers,

Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 61 Verified Questions 61 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46026

Sample Questions Q1) A noninfectious disease that can be linked to changes in the microbiota is A) yeast infection. B) C. difficile infection. C) irritable bowel syndrome. D) stomach flu. Q2) Explain two potential negative effects of using phage therapy to treat bacterial infections. Q3) Which of the following statements regarding quorum sensing is true? A) Gene expression is altered when the population of a specific microorganism is low. B) Gene expression is altered when the population of a specific microorganism is high. C) There is no relationship between quorum sensing and gene expression. D) Quorum sensing is a phenomenon very few organisms are capable of accomplishing. Q4) The presence of Eubacteria recale and Beta thetaiotamicron affect ________ of the host. Q5) ________ are organisms that cause disease in an immunocompromised host only. Q6) The blood-brain barrier is comprised of ________ between the endothelial cells of Page 16 capillaries feeding the brain. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46027

Sample Questions Q1) Once the inflammatory process is complete,neutrophils undergo A) phagocytosis. B) oxidative burst. C) apoptosis. D) opsonization. Q2) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE? A) The C3 protein is not involved in the classical pathway. B) C1 is the first protein activated in the pathway. C) Cleavage of complement proteins increases inflammation. D) The classical pathway is activated by antibodies binding to bacterial cells. Q3) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT A) phagocytosis. B) inflammation. C) activation of complement. D) production of antibody. Q4) Draw and label the process of phagocytosis.Be sure to speak to the main steps in the

pathway

(adherence,ingestion,and

phagolysome

formation/destruction).What

would happen if an organism was able toPage avoid 17 phagocytosis? Q5) Substances that cause fever are known as ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 66 Verified Questions 66 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46028

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following would you expect to elicit the largest production of antibodies? A) haptens floating freely within plasma B) a complex protein with many different epitopes C) a polysaccharide with several identical segments D) a small lipid Q2) How do the structure and function of the F(ab)and Fc regions of an antibody differ? Q3) Almost 95% of T cells entering the thymus die when apoptosis is triggered during A) positive selection. B) negative selection. C) antibody production. D) MHC recognition. Q4) The antigen-binding site on an antibody A) is composed of light chains only. B) contains constant amino acid sequences within each class. C) contains highly variable amino acid sequences. D) is composed of heavy chains only. Q5) Describe the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC). Q6) Describe the process of affinity maturation. Page 18 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46029

Sample Questions Q1) An example of a primary immunodeficiency would be A) DiGeorge syndrome. B) HIV. C) severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome. D) IgA deficiency. Q2) The following are all true about herd immunity EXCEPT that it A) only works for diseases that are contagious. B) occurs when a large portion of a population is immunized. C) is possible for non-contagious infections like tetanus. D) protects unimmunized individuals. Q3) How does immune surveillance work inside the host? A) Cancer cells are sought out but not destroyed. B) The immune system is suppressed. C) Immune cells are unable to recognize cancerous cells. D) Cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells. Q4) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with A) IgE antibodies. B) macrophages. C) IgG antibodies. D) histamine. Page 19 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 52 Verified Questions 52 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46030

Sample Questions Q1) All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT A) capsids. B) pili. C) fimbriae. D) type IV secretion systems. Q2) The purpose of the Tat protein in an HIV infection is to A) down regulate CD4 and MHC class 1 expression. B) inhibit virus assembly. C) accelerate HIV transcription by the host cell. D) protect the cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic cells. Q3) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens. Q4) Shiga toxin polypeptide B binds to surface gangliosides on target cells.If the gangliosides were removed A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells. B) polypeptide A would enter the cells. C) polypeptide B would not be able to bind. D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin. Q5) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission. Page 20 that are caused by AB toxins. Q6) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46031

Sample Questions Q1) Fungal skin diseases are diagnosed based on A) PCR. B) KOH preparation of skin scrapes. C) Gram-positive stain. D) Gram-negative stain. Q2) Topical retinoids and antibiotics are commonly used to treat A) cellulitis. B) acne. C) erysipelas. D) impetigo. Q3)

A

35-year-old

woman

has

a

red,raised

rash

on

the

inside

of

her

thighs.Gram-stained scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae.The infection is caused by A) Candida albicans. B) herpes simplex virus. C) varicella-zoster virus. D) Staphylococcus aureus. Q4) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________. Q5) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________. 21 Q6) A sight-threatening inflammation of Page the cornea is referred to as ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 58 Verified Questions 58 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46032

Sample Questions Q1) A young patient arrives in the emergency room with a fever,chills,cough,and chest pains.At this point would it be more likely for a physician to make a differential diagnosis or a definitive diagnosis? Explain your reasoning. Q2) Of the viral respiratory diseases below,which is LEAST likely to present with a fever? A) the common cold B) croup C) influenza D) respiratory syncytial disease Q3) A secondary bacterial infection is most likely in a patient who A) smokes cigarettes. B) breathes humidified air. C) breathes dry air. D) has thin mucus secretions. Q4) A patient with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system presents with a fever and cough.What additional information regarding his or her cough would be useful in forming a differential diagnosis? Q5) Viruses that cause the common cold may also spread to the sinuses to cause ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22

Chapter 21: Systemic Infections Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 62 Verified Questions 62 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46033

Sample Questions Q1) CASE HISTORY Brad,a nine-year-old from Connecticut,developed a fever and a large (8 cm)reddish rash with a clear center (erythema migrans)on his arm.He also had some left facial nerve palsy.Brad had returned a week earlier from a Boy Scout camping trip to the local woods,where he did a lot of hiking.When asked by his physician,Brad admitted finding a tick on his stomach while in the woods but thought little of it.The doctor ordered serological

tests

for

Borrelia

burgdorferi

(the

organism

that

causes

Lyme

disease),Rickettsia rickettsii (which produces Rocky Mountain spotted fever),and Anaplasma phagocytophilum (which causes ehrlichiosis).The ELISA for B.burgdorferi came back positive,confirming a diagnosis of Lyme disease.The boy was given a three-week regimen of doxycycline (a tetracycline derivative),which led to resolution of the rash and palsy. Would treatment or prevention of future infection have differed for either of the two pathogens not involved in this particular infection,Rickettsia rickettsia and Anaplasma phagocytophilum? What is a major difference between these pathogens and B.burgdorferi? Q2) Drinking water contaminated with the free-living infectious form of a helminth may lead to complications such as dermatitis,cellulitis,or lymphangitis in the disease ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23

Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 62 Verified Questions 62 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46034

Sample Questions Q1) Jack presents at the clinic with mild nausea,vomiting,abdominal pain,and jaundice.The most likely cause of Jack's condition is ________. Q2) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________. Q3) Giardiasis is caused by the ________ Giardia intestinalis. Q4) CPE is an enterotoxin produced by ________. Q5) Which of the following organisms is noninvasive,yet causes bloody diarrhea? A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Campylobacter D) enterohemorrhagic E. coli Q6) Tapeworms are transmitted by the ________ route. A) fecal-environment-skin B) fecal-oral C) fecal-oral-environment-skin D) fecal-intermediate host-oral Q7) What is the purpose of drinking fluoride-treated water? A) hardens tooth enamel B) softens tooth enamel C) fights plaque D) kills organisms that cause cavities

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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Tracts Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46035

Sample Questions Q1) Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) bacterial vaginosis. B) genital herpes. C) candidiasis. D) trichomoniasis. Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a clinical progression of an HIV infection? A) increase in immune function B) seroconversion C) latency D) AIDS Q3) Someone is said to have a primary HSV infection when the A) patient does not have detectable antibodies but a positive PCR test. B) infection settles into the nerve root. C) latent virus is reactivated. D) virus is activated by stress or UV exposure. Q4) Nearly 70% of patients seen in STI clinics are men.Offer a reason why men are more likely to seek treatment than women.Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs? Page 25 Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 53 Verified Questions 53 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46036

Sample Questions Q1) Microorganisms reach the CNS by all of the following EXCEPT A) migrating to the CNS from distal sites. B) toxins traveling along peripheral nerves. C) infecting bone. D) inhalation of the organism. Q2) The part of the nervous system that collects data from the environment is the A) meninges. B) central nervous system. C) cerebrospinal fluid. D) peripheral nervous system. Q3) Viral diseases of the central nervous system are transmitted by all of the following EXCEPT A) sexual contact. B) mosquito bites. C) the fecal-oral route. D) stepping on a contaminated nail. Q4) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________. Q5) List and describe the defensive mechanisms that are in place to protect the central nervous system. Page 26 of the Salk and Sabin vaccines. Q6) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 60 Verified Questions 60 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46037

Sample Questions Q1) Eosin methylene blue (EMB)agar contains dyes that inhibit the growth of Gram-positive organisms and bile salts that prevent the growth of Gram-negative bacteria other than fecal coliforms.Also included in EMB are stains that show a color change when an organism ferments lactose.This media is best described as A) selective. B) differential. C) selective and differential. D) nonselective. Q2) A swab from an infected lesion is streaked onto a blood agar plate,a plate with blood agar that also contains colistin and nalidixic acid (a CNA plate),and a MacConkey agar plate.Growth occurs on both the blood agar and CNA plates.The organism growing must be A) Gram positive. B) Gram negative, enteric. C) Gram negative, nonenteric. D) acid fast. Q3) Body sites that contain no microorganisms are considered to be ________. Q4) Explain why polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is required to detect nucleic acids in many clinical samples. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27

Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 61 Verified Questions 61 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46038

Sample Questions Q1) Amplifying 16S ribosomal RNA from biopsy tissues would be useful in identifying the presence of a A) bacterium. B) specific virus. C) multicellular parasite. D) unicellular parasite. Q2) Anyone with a computer and Internet access can use Google Trends to investigate the search frequency for diseases such as influenza.What are two reasons that explain why online searches for an infectious disease will crudely track actual cases of the disease? Q3)

Fifteen

individuals

within

one

province

in

China

are

diagnosed

with

SARS.Epidemiologists will most likely A) quarantine the entire province immediately. B) contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United States. C) wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported. D) try to identify the index case. Q4) An infectious agent with a high mortality rate that is highly contagious and lacks a vaccine and effective treatment is known as a ______. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28

Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 62 Verified Questions 62 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46039

Sample Questions Q1) Of the following physical means of preserving foods,the only method capable of destroying endospores is A) pasteurization. B) canning. C) dehydration. D) decreased oxygen. Q2) Bacteriocins are molecules that are produced by A) some bacteria and prevent pathogens from adhering to the gut lining. B) methanogens and cause flatulence in cows. C) digestive microbes in termites and allow digestion of cellulose. D) viruses and increase the virulence of zoonotic diseases. Q3) An end result of mixed-acid fermentation products being converted into a gas in cattle is production of the greenhouse gas ________. Q4) Organic molecules in lake water are consumed as food and combined with oxygen by ________. Q5) Bacteria and archaea are the only organisms capable of converting the element ________ between its oxidation states. Q6) Using organisms such as bacteria to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site is referred to as ________. Page 29 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.