Microbiology for Pre-Pharmacy Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on topics relevant to pre-pharmacy students. Major areas of study include the structure, physiology, genetics, and classification of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Emphasis is placed on microbial pathogenesis, mechanisms of antimicrobial action and resistance, host immune responses, and the role of microorganisms in disease and health. Laboratory exercises supplement theoretical concepts by providing hands-on experience in aseptic techniques, culturing microorganisms, and identifying pathogens, thereby equipping students with foundational knowledge for advanced pharmacy studies and clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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26 Chapters
1101 Verified Questions
1101 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of how a pathogen is transmitted to a new host is via
A)Air
B)Food
C)Water
D)Insects
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Bacillus anthracis - respiratory disease
B)Escherichia coli - bloody diarrhea
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis - food poisoning
D)Avian influenza - human flu
E)Yersinia pestis - plague
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atomic structure gives an atom
A)Its mass
B)Its reactivity
C)Its valence in molecules
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The term antiparallel means that DNA
A)Has two strands that run in opposite directions
B)Has secondary structure in both strands
C)Has one strand containing deoxyribose sugars and the other containing ribose sugars
D)Can bind to RNA by using complementary base pairs
E)Contains purines, whereas RNA contains pyrimidines
Answer: A
Q3) The components of ATP include
A)Adenine, ribose sugar, and three phosphates
B)Amino acid and three phosphates
C)Adenine, triglycerols, and one phosphate
D)Adenine, deoxyribose sugar, and three phosphates
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are working at a biotechnology company that specializes in the scale-up and purification of enzymes derived from bacterial sources for human therapeutics.One of your responsibilities is to ensure that the 180-liter industrial fermenter in the pilot plant does not exceed 37°C during the batch synthesis phase.Explain why attention to this particular detail is important.
Answer: Bacteria grow best within a particular temperature range,and 37°C will be within the optimal range for growth of the bacterium that you are growing in culture.Another consideration is the product itself.Ultimately these bacteria will be concentrated and lysed,and the specific enzyme of interest will be purified and subjected to quality control before it can be used in humans.Maintaining 37°C throughout the batch synthesis phase is crucial to ensure that the enzyme is not inactivated through denaturation.Otherwise the batch culture will be worthless.
Q2) What always occurs during catabolism?
A)Aerobic respiration
B)Electron rearrangement
C)Feedback inhibition
D)Proton motive force
E)Competitive inhibition
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
Q2) Describe quorum sensing.Why is it advantageous for a pathogen to use quorum sensing during an infection?
Q3) The organelle where secreted proteins are synthesized is
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) Mobile genetic elements that sometimes carry pathogenicity islands are known as A)Virulence chromosomes
B)Biofilms
C)Plasmids
D)Opportunistic elements
E)Proteasomes
Q5) Describe the molecular composition and structure of the phospholipid bilayer.Where is the phospholipid bilayer located in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
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Q6) What is a biofilm and why are biofilms clinically problematic? Provide a specific example.
Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is not associated with the parenteral route?
A)Contaminated needles used by drug users
B)Transmission of malaria by mosquitoes
C)Contaminated food
D)Tick-derived Lyme disease
E)Blood products used by hemophiliacs
Q2) Connective tissue in the host is compromised by the production of _____ by bacteria.
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Capsules
C)Streptokinase
D)M protein
E)Leukocidins
Q3) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
Q4) Which of the following made by bacteria destroys red blood cells in the host?
A)Coagulase
B)Hyaluronidase
C)Leukocidin
D)Collagenase
E)Hemolysin
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Control groups are required when performing _____ studies.
A)Descriptive epidemiological
B)Universal precaution
C)Superinfection
D)Nosocomial
E)Analytical epidemiological
Q2) Epidemiological studies that sometimes identify the index case are known as _____ studies.
A)Common-source
B)Retrospective
C)Prospective
D)Analytical
E)Descriptive
Q3) What is achieved when widespread vaccination is administered to a population as a means of protecting unvaccinated potential hosts?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Super-vaccination
C)Multi-drug resistance
D)Quarantine
E)Herd immunity
8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) If pathogens spread to the bloodstream or lymphatics and disseminate to other parts of the body,a(n)_____ occurs.
A)Acute disease
B)Latent disease
C)Secondary infection
D)Systemic infection
Q2) Chickenpox can cause a rash known as shingles.This is an example of
A)Sub-acute development
B)Granuloma formation
C)Reactivation
D)Megasome activation
E)Systemic spread
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Secondary infection: symptoms arise years after an initial infection
B)Septicemia: multiplication of organisms in the blood
C)Acute infection: rapid onset of symptoms
D)Local infection: restricted to small area
E)Focal infection: original location of spreading infection
Q4) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Could there be a connection between global warming and the dissemination of deadly strains of avian influenza? Explain your answer.
Q2) Which of the following describes the process of replication?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q3) Which of the following epidemics was caused by an H1N1 virus
A)Asian influenza
B)Hong Kong influenza
C)Spanish influenza
D)Swine influenza of 2009
E)Spanish influenza and Swine influenza of 2009
Q4) What are the three molecular processes that contribute to viral diversity? Describe each process and explain why these mechanisms are of concern.
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
Q6) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
Q7) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates apoptosis?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Lipoteichoic acid is involved with the production of inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not use a membrane-bound molecule to facilitate the transfer of molecules across the plasma membrane?
A)ABC transport system
B)Active transport
C)Efflux pumping
D)Group translocation
E)Simple diffusion
Q3) A bacterium with a tuft of flagella at one end of the cell has _____ flagella.
A)Peritrichous
B)Amphitrichous
C)Lophotrichous
D)Monotrichous
Q4) Some bacteria incorporate chemical entities into their cell walls that contribute to virulence.Provide three examples and explain why these molecules increase the virulence of these bacteria.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Infections manifested on the body's extremities are most likely to be associated with microbes that prefer temperatures _____ the host's normal body temperature. A)The same as B)On the low side of C)Above
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Blood agar is a defined medium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a chemostat? Why are chemostats used by biotechnology and pharmaceutical companies?
Q4) Which of the following is required for biosynthesis of cysteine but not other amino acids?
A)Sulfur
B)Carbon
C)Nitrogen
D)Oxygen
E)Phosphorus
Q5) While ailment is attributed to Helicobacter pylori? Explain how H.pylori is able to withstand conditions found in the stomach.
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how RNA differs from DNA in structure and function.
Q2) A sugar with -OH on the 3' but not the 2' carbon is a component of A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of how DNA damage is repaired?
A)Base excision
B)Photoreactivation
C)Alkylation
D)UV radiation
E)Alkylation and UV radiation
Q4) Identify the three types of RNA that are made in bacterial cells.How are they similar and what is the specific function of each?
Q5) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Anticodon loop: codon recognition
B)Promoter: DNA polymerase
C)Origin of replication: DNA polymerase
D)P site: peptidyl-tRNA
E)Acceptor arm: amino acid
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) A virion is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q2) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
Q3) A nucleocapsid
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q4) The _____ is the protein that is located between the capsid and the nucleocapsid of some enveloped viruses.
A)Glycoprotein spike
B)Icosahedron
C)Helix
D)Tegument
E)Nucleic acid-binding protein
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why an individual who has had a prior infection with a rhinovirus is quite likely to experience another episode of rhinovirus infection at a later date.Why do we not immunize against rhinovirus?
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to viral transmission?
A)HIV: in utero
B)Rabies: zoonotic disease
C)Iatrogenic: sexually transmitted
D)Rhinovirus: aerosol
E)Herpes simplex virus: semen
Q3) What are the cause of over 50% of the common colds we acquire?
A)Coronaviruses
B)Cytomegaloviruses
C)Arena viruses
D)Coxsackie virus
E)Rhinoviruses
Q4) Why is vaccination the most promising approach to the control of viral epidemics?
Describe the three classes of viral vaccine administered to humans and provide examples of each.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Fungi are classified according to the characteristics of their sexual spores and hyphal septation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases is matched incorrectly with its treatment?
A)Trichomoniasis: melarsoprol
B)Toxoplasmosis: pyrimethamine
C)Amebiasis: metronidazole
D)Trypanosomiasis: pentamidine
Q3) Describe the lifecycle of Plasmodium falciparum beginning with the ingestion of human blood by the Anopheles mosquito.
Q4) Which of the following is not an organelle used for locomotion by protozoans?
A)Endoplasm
B)Cilia
C)Pseudopods
D)Flagella
Q5) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Q6) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: The skin is free of microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Prolonged high fever in the host can cause deleterious effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how natural killer (NK)cells discriminate healthy cells from target cells.How do NK cells mediate target-cell killing?
Q4) Which of the following is a trigger of vasodilation?
A)Histamine
B)Kinins
C)Prostaglandins
D)Leukotrienes
E)All of the choices
Q5) What are cytokines and what is their function? What are the two main families of cytokines?
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the heavy and light chains of a soluble antibody.Which contains part of the antigen-binding site?
A)Heavy chain
B)Light chain
C)Both heavy and light chains
D)Neither of the heavy or light chains
Q2) Which of the following is utilized by vaccination to produce long-lasting immunity?
A)Artificially acquired active immunity
B)Artificially acquired passive immunity
C)Naturally acquired active immunity
D)Naturally acquired passive immunity
Q3) Explain why it is essential for TH1 and cytotoxic T cells,but not B cells,to leave peripheral lymphoid tissues after their activation.
Q4) Explain the key differences between superantigens and conventional antigens recognized by T cells.Provide an example of a super antigen.
Q5) Describe the three ways in which antibodies function to protect a host from pathogens.
Q6) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Some people are resistant to HIV infection because of mutations in _____ on the surface of host cells.
A)CD4
B)Co-stimulatory molecules
C)Co-receptors
D)Class II MHC molecules
E)CD8
Q2) During anaphylactic shock,prompt attention is required,and the injection of _____ provides immediate relief from the life-threatening symptoms presented.
A)Anti-histamine
B)Leukotriene
C)Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D)Prostaglandin
E)Cytokine
Q3) Explain what accounts for the high level of mutation associated with HIV. Why does this pose a problem for the host?
Q4) Describe the appearance of lymph nodes during the early asymptomatic phase and the late symptomatic phase of HIV infection
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Degerming is best described as
A)A mechanical process for removing microbes
B)The disinfection of public places
C)The use of heat to kill microbes in food items
D)The use of chemical agents to kill microbes
E)A practice used to maintain a germ-free environment
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes is nonpolar,they have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The sizes of the zones of inhibition seen with different chemicals are not comparable because bacteria move at different rates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Bacteria that have evolved the ability to produce ?-lactamase have become resistant to penicillin because all forms of penicillin contain this ring structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ampicillin is referred to as a semi-synthetic form of penicillin because it blocks the synthesis of half the cell wall components.
A)True B)False
Q3) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q4) Explain why are antibiotics that are protein synthesis inhibitors are excellent choices for therapy in the context of toxicity? Why might large doses of protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics show toxic effects in eukaryotic cells even though they meet the criterion for selective toxicity?
Q5) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
Q6) The treatment of malaria has changed since quinine was first used in the 1600s.What has changed and why?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to antibiotic compounds composed of peptide fragments and where they are derived from?
A)Drosocin: insects
B)Nisin: Gram-positive bacteria
C)Apidaecin: insects
D)Defensins: Gram-negative bacteria
E)lantibiotics: Gram-positive bacteria
Q2) Resistance to Methicillin developed rapidly because
A)It was overprescribed
B)It was used inappropriately
C)Bacteria can synthesize this compound
D)It was never used in hospital settings
E)It was not destroyed by ?-lactamase
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of an efflux pump?
A)They are encoded by genes carried on plasmids
B)Some are energy-independent
C)They are embedded in the plasma membrane of Gram-positive cells
D)Some operate using a counter-exchange of antibiotic for cations
E)The genes encoding efflux pumps can be transferred to other bacteria
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a virulence factor associated with strep throat caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
A)Hemolysin O
B)Streptokinase
C)Tracheal toxin
D)Hemolysin S
E)M protein
Q2) To ensure compliance with drug therapy,_____ is required for patients with a physiological resistance to one or more anti-TB drugs.
A)Isoniazid
B)Routine X-ray evaluation
C)Directly observed therapy (DOT)
D)The PPD skin test
E)Quarantine
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Colonies of Corynebacterium diphtheriae resemble Chinese letters because of a unique interaction between the cells and the agar.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Shigella species?
A)Lactose fermentation
B)Bacillary dysentery
C)Invasion of the small intestine
D)Peritrichous flagella
E)Bovine reservoir
Q2) Helicobacter pylori organisms survive in acid environments by generating _____ through the production of _____.
A)Ruffles of intestinal tract; pili
B)Apoptotic lesions; vacuolating cytotoxin
C)Ulcers; micro abscesses
D)Ammonia; urease
E)microtubule-associated vacuoles; distending cytotoxin
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Tooth destruction occurs because of the organic acids produced as a part of the metabolic activity of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)and HSV-2?
A)HSV-1 and HSV-2 are linear, single-stranded RNA viruses
B)HSV-1 causes cold sores around the mouth
C)HSV-1 never causes genital herpes
D)There are many animal reservoirs of HSV-2
Q2) Identify four ways in which candidiasis arises.Discuss the morphological and enzymatic changes that are associated with the pathogenesis of Candida albicans.
Q3) Gonococcal resistance to _____ has prompted the development of third-generation anti-gonococcal antibiotics?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Fluoroquinolone
C)Azithromycin
D)Doxycycline
E)Penicillin
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Infection of the cervix is referred to as vaginitis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) The _____ restricts the translocation of material between the blood and the central nervous system.
A)Cerebrospinal fluid
B)Skull bone
C)Arachnoid mater
D)Blood-brain barrier
E)Cerebrum
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is located in the
A)Blood vessels surrounding the cerebrum
B)Subarachnoid space
C)Dura mater
D)Spinal cord
E)Cerebrum
Q3) Identify which of the following persistent infections of the central nervous system is a mismatched pair.
A)Human immunodeficiency virus: AIDS dementia complex
B)Progressive panencephalitis: rubella
C)Measles: subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
D)Kuru: prions
E)Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease: persistent enterovirus infection
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.Which was discovered in Europe?
A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q2) Identify the causative agent and the three types of tularemia.Compare and contrast the pathology associated with each type of tularemia.
Q3) All of the following are examples of arboviruses except A)Dengue virus
B)Yellow fever virus
C)Epstein-Barr virus
D)West Nile virus
Q4) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Q5) What are the most common complications of infectious endocarditis? Identify the four most common bacterial sources of infectious endocarditis.
Q6) Discuss three conditions that facilitate the accumulation of pathogens on heart valves during infectious endocarditis.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) All of the following are transmitted or caused by arthropods except A)Loaiasis
B)Pediculosis
C)Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia
D)Trachoma
E)Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because of the close proximity to the respiratory tract,eye infections can become life threatening.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which can be used as a weapon?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
Q5) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
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