Microbiology for Pre-Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces fundamental concepts of microbiology with an emphasis on their application to nursing and healthcare. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, along with their roles in human health and disease. Topics covered include microbial growth, metabolism, genetics, mechanisms of pathogenicity, infectious disease transmission, and the bodys immune response. The course also addresses principles of asepsis, sterilization, disinfection, and the use of antimicrobial agents relevant to clinical environments. Laboratory experiences reinforce key concepts and develop skills essential for infection control and safe patient care in nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stereomicroscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: A
Q2) Vaccination
A)Robert Koch
B)Edward Jenner
C)Louis Pasteur
D)John Needham
E)Joseph Lister
F)Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: B
Q3) In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the __________ lens.
Answer: ocular
Q4) Another term for spontaneous generation is __________.
Answer: abiogenesis
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The isotope deuterium has
A)one proton.
B)one proton and one neutron.
C)one proton and two neutrons.
D)one proton and three neutrons.
Answer: B
Q2) Prostaglandin
A)Redox
B)Electron
C)Neutron
D)Acid
E)Base
F)Salt
G)Glucose
H)Protein
I)Polysaccharide
J)Nucleic acid
K)Lipid
L)Tritium
Answer: K
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles contain oxidative enzymes capable of oxidizing toxic substances?
A)Mitochondria
B)Chloroplasts
C)Lysosomes
D)Peroxisomes
Answer: D
Q2) Matrix formed outside the plasma membrane is referred to as A)cytoplasm.
B)glycocalyx.
C)exoplasm.
D)cell wall.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following structures is shaped like a hollow cylinder made out of tubulin proteins?
A)Intermediate filaments
B)Microtubules
C)Microfilaments
D)Flagella
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that use organic compounds as the source of both carbon and energy are referred to as
A)photoautotrophs.
B)chemoautotrophs.
C)photoheterotrophs.
D)chemoheterotrophs.
Q2) Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________.
Q3) Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?
A)Treponema pallidum
B)Vibrio cholerae
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Escherichia coli
Q4) Psychrophiles are also referred to as
A)cryophiles.
B)thermophiles.
C)mesophiles.
D)psychrotrophs.
Q5) Bacterial species whose shape is variable or morphologically indistinct depending on environmental conditions is called ________________________.
Q6) Methanogens are __________ that grow in anaerobic environments such as swamps.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is A)order, genus, family, subfamily, species.
B)species, genus, family, subfamily, order.
C)order, family, subfamily, genus, species.
D)genus, order, family, subfamily, species.
Q2) A phage in a repressed stage is referred to as a(n) A)antiphage.
B)prophage.
C)virulent phage.
D)latent phage.
Q3) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
Q4) Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families Metaviridae,Pseudoviridae,and __________.
Q5) According to the Baltimore classification,Retroviridae belong to group __________ viruses.
Q6) Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called A)envelopes. B)protomeres. C)capsids.
D)nucleoids.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unique cell organelle found in the Archaezoa and that appears to be a remnant of mitochondria is called a(n)__________.
Q2) Fungi are free-living _________ organisms.
A)autotrophic
B)chemotrophic
C)heterotrophic
D)phototrophic
Q3) The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by A)algae.
B)slime molds.
C)fungi.
D)protozoans.
Q4) Fungi growing on the surface of the skin or hair may cause infections called __________ mycoses.
Q5) Conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell are referred to as
A)arthrospores.
B)porospores.
C)phialospores.
D)blastospores.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
A)Time of exposure, wavelength
B)Intensity, frequency, thickness of sample
C)Distance, frequency, nature of sample
D)Chemical composition, intensity, shielding
Q2) The time in minutes in which 90% of the bacterial population will be killed at a given temperature is called the
A)generation time.
B)thermal death time.
C)sterilization time.
D)decimal reduction time.
Q3) Phenolic compound
A)Iodine
B)Triclosan
C)Aldehydes
D)Quaternary compounds
E)Damage to DNA
F)Mercury
G)Osmotic pressure
H)Penicillin
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most commonly used general medium in the laboratory
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a macronutrient for microorganisms?
A)Folic acid
B)Nitrogen
C)Copper
D)Riboflavin
Q3) Which of the following stains is the most widely used differential stain in hematology laboratories?
A)Carbolfuchsin stain
B)Ziehl-Neelson stain
C)Kinyoun stain
D)Wright's stain
Q4) A disinfectant is designed to be used only on __________ surfaces.
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-__________ environment.
Q2) Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
Q3) CDC stands for the Centers for Disease Control and __________.
Q4) Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of
A)general-purpose hoods.
B)radioisotope hoods.
C)perchloric acid hoods.
D)biosafety cabinets.
Q5) Proprietary name of drugs
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q6) The four risk groups for agents have been established by the __________.
Q7) A form that contains data regarding the properties of a particular substance is the __________ form.
Q8) Chemical trade names are also called __________ names. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to indicate the extent to which a drug reaches its site of action is
A)bioactivity.
B)bioavailability.
C)bioremediation.
D)biostasis.
Q2) The three general sites of drug action are __________,__________,and
Q3) The most rapid rate of drug absorption is achieved by __________ administration.
A)on the skin
B)intravenous
C)intramuscular
D)sublingual
Q4) A subacute toxic effect occurs when the adverse drug effect occurs
A)after 5 minutes of exposure.
B)after 24 hours of exposure.
C)after repeated exposure for days.
D)over months to years of exposure.
Q5) Drug administration,absorption,distribution,and clearance are collectively called
Q6) The body's metabolism of drugs is called __________.
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q2) Rifampin
A)Vancor
B)Vancocin
C)Sansac
D)Cipro
E)Dalacin
F)Rofact
G)Nydrazid
H)Etibi
Q3) Cephalosporins have __________ generations of developed agents.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
Q4) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nonliving object such as a tissue,towel,or even money that can be used to transmit a pathogen to a host is called a(n)__________.
Q2) A disease that is generally present in a given population is
A)pandemic.
B)epidemic.
C)sporadic.
D)endemic.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?
A)Skin
B)Gastrointestinal tract
C)Respiratory tract
D)Conjunctiva
Q4) Which type of symbiosis benefits both members?
A)Mutualism
B)Parasitism
C)Commensalism
D)Pathogenesis
Q5) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
Q6) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
15
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not part of the second line of defense?
A)pH of the skin
B)Cytokines
C)Phagocytosis
D)Fever
Q2) Self-antigens are coded by a group of genes located on chromosome ____ and form the MHC (major histocompatibility complex).
A)21
B)8
C)6
D)5
Q3) Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease?
A)Graves' disease
B)Multiple sclerosis
C)Myasthenia gravis
D)Rheumatoid arthritis
Q4) __________ occurs when the immune system is unable to distinguish between self- and nonself-antigens and attacks the cells of the body.
Q5) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
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Chapter
Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Malassezia furfur.
Q2) Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
Q3) Sixth disease
A)HSV-1
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)HSV-2
D)Actinomyces
E)Escherichia coli
F)Varicella-zoster
G)HHV-6 and -7
H)Malassezia furfur
Q4) Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as __________.
Q5) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Q6) Leprosy is also known as ____________________________.
Q7) A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________." Page 17
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following geographic areas contains reservoirs for Coccidioides immitis?
A)France
B)South Africa
C)Arizona
D)Iowa
Q2) The "strawberry tongue" symptom is often associated with A)rheumatic fever.
B)scarlet fever.
C)pneumonia.
D)pharyngitis.
Q3) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-__________ bacterium.
Q4) SARS stands for __________.
Q5) __________ is a gram-negative coccobacillus and a common cause of bronchiolitis in children,bronchitis in adults,and occasionally meningitis.
Q6) Influenza is caused by two species of __________.
Q7) Legionella pneumophila is a gram-negative bacillus that causes disease occurring in two distinct forms: __________ and __________.
Q8) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacillary dysentery is also called A)salmonellosis.
B)shigellosis.
C)typhoid fever.
D)campylobacteriosis.
Q2) A periodontal disease that is restricted to the gums is an inflammation called __________.
Q3) Taeniasis is an infection caused by organisms known as A)ringworms.
B)hookworms.
C)tapeworms.
D)pinworms.
Q4) Botulism is a disease caused by the production of a potent neurotoxin by bacteria of the genus
A)Staphylococcus.
B)Klebsiella.
C)Salmonella.
D)Clostridium.
Q5) Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Q6) __________ is the largest protozoan parasite of humans.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacterial meningitis,some antibiotics are prevented from reaching the infection due to
A)chemical degradation of the antibiotic.
B)blood-brain barrier.
C)scar tissue formation.
D)degradation of local blood vessels.
Q2) Pneumococcal infection of the middle ear is referred to as________________.
Q3) The most common bacterial infection/inflammation of the eye is _____________.
Q4) Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by __________.
Q5) African trypanosomiasis is caused by __________.
Q6) The toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum is classified as a
Q7) Rabies is caused by which of the following organisms?
A)Virus
B)Bacterium
C)Protozoan
D)Fungus
Q8) Leprosy is caused by the bacterium __________ .
Q9) At present,the leading causes of bacterial meningitis are __________ and Page 21
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considered to be zoonotic diseases except A)brucellosis.
B)undulant fever.
C)plague.
D)salmonellosis.
Q2) An inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication following a group A streptococcal infection is A)endocarditis.
B)rheumatic fever.
C)nephritis.
D)cytomegalovirus.
Q3) Malaria is caused by a A)virus.
B)bacterium.
C)helminth.
D)protozoan.
Q4) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
Q5) When bacteria are found in the blood,the condition is referred to as __________.
Q7) Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus __________. Page 23
Q6) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What anatomical features in women can increase the possibility of a UTI?
A)A shorter urethra, close proximity of the anus to the urethral opening
B)A longer urethra, smaller urinary bladder
C)Longer ureters, larger urinary bladder
D)A longer urethra, close proximity of the anus to the vagina
Q2) Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as __________.
Q3) The group most susceptible to recurring UTIs is
A)teen-aged boys.
B)women.
C)teen-aged girls.
D)normally healthy elderly men.
Q4) Zoonotic spirochete
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q5) The current drug of choice to treat viral urinary infections is __________.
Page 25
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infections of the reproductive tract resulting from the introduction of microorganisms through a medical procedure are called
A)chronic infections.
B)endogenous infections.
C)systemic infections.
D)iatrogenic infections.
Q2) The bacterium most frequently responsible for toxic shock syndrome that originates in the reproductive system is __________.
Q3) The normal flora present in the healthy male reproductive system is best characterized as
A)primarily gram-positive rods.
B)acid-fast rods.
C)sterile, no normal flora.
D)gram-positive spore formers only.
Q4) Vaginal epithelial cells that can be examined to determine the presence of Gardnerella vaginalis are referred to as __________.
Q5) The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is __________ .
Q6) __________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
Page 26
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
Q2) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)Protozoan
B)Tinea-related species
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Klebsiella species
E)Candida albicans
F)AIDS
G)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q3) The fungi most commonly associated with reproductive system infections are
A)Aspergillus, Tinea-related species, and Candida albicans.
B)Candida species, Rhizopus, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
C)Stachybotrys, Aspergillus niger, and Microsporum species.
D)Candida albicans, Tinea-related species, and Epidermophyton floccosum.
Q4) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
Q5) A red-brown rash on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is typical of A)syphilis.
B)donovanosis.
C)chancroid.
D)chlamydia.
Page 27
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is A)IgA.
B)IgM.
C)IgG.
D)IgD.
Q2) The gestation period of humans is approximately __________ weeks.
Q3) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is most common in A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)young adults.
D)the elderly.
Q4) The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.
Q5) A bacterial or viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her unborn child or during birth is called a(n)__________ infection.
Q6) Impetigo neonatorum is caused by __________.
Q7) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
Q8) The common name for rubella is __________.
Q9) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Specific small niches in which populations and guilds within a community reside are referred to as
A)habitats.
B)biospheres.
C)ecosystems.
D)microhabitats.
Q2) Cholera is considered a Category __________ disease.
Q3) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
Q4) Overgrowth of microbes in nutrient-rich waters
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
Q5) The physical location where organisms are found is called a(n)__________.
Q7) EPA stands for __________. Page 29
Q6) The bacterial genus Rhizobium is involved primarily in the __________ cycle.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?
A)Ehrlichiosis
B)Peptic ulcer
C)Lyme disease
D)Tularemia
Q2) The United Nations estimates that by the year 2050 more than __________ of the world's population will live in urban areas.
A)35%
B)56%
C)60%
D)69%
Q3) Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group A)I.
B)II.
C)III.
D)IV.
Q4) Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic
Q5) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q6) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
Page 31
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells,the population is called a(n)__________.
Q2) A genetic recombination process
A)cDNA
B)Eukaryotic genes
C)Prokaryotic genes
D)Escherichia coli
E)Transformation
F)DNA ligase
G)Staphylococcus aureus
H)Hemophilia
Q3) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
Q4) The recombinant protein that is used to help dissolve blood clots such as those that occur in heart attacks and stroke is
A)interferon.
B)factor VIII.
C)antisense molecule.
D)tissue plasminogen activator.
Q5) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
32
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