Microbiology for Pre-Medical Students
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides pre-medical students with a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology, focusing on microorganisms relevant to human health and disease. Topics include microbial cell structure, function, genetics, and metabolism, as well as the classification and roles of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students will explore mechanisms of pathogenicity, host immune responses, principles of epidemiology, and strategies for infection control and antimicrobial therapy. The course integrates laboratory techniques for the identification and characterization of medically important microbes, preparing students for advanced study in medical and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert W. Bauman
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26 Chapters
1927 Verified Questions
1927 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Koch's postulates can be used to determine the causes of infectious diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The work of (Needham/Redi/Spallanzani) using infusions in sealed vials provided strong evidence that spontaneous generation does not occur.
Answer: Spallanzani
Q3) The taxonomic system is a way to
A) demonstrate the relationship between microbes and disease.
B) classify organisms based on similarities.
C) identify chemicals which may be toxic to microbes.
D) demonstrate spontaneous generation.
E) study disease in human populations
Answer: B
Q4) Enzymes are required for fermentation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Microbes that cause infectious disease are called (pathogens/germs/viruses).
Answer: pathogens
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stable atom has ________ in its valence shell.
A) 4 electrons
B) 2 neutrons
C) 8 electrons
D) 8 protons
E) 10 electrons
Answer: C
Q2) All amino acids contain what functional group(s)?
A) aldehyde
B) amino
C) ester
D) carboxyl
E) both amino and carboxyl
Answer: E
Q3) The electron shells of atoms hold eight electrons each.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The DNA double helix is held together by (covalent/ionic/hydrogen) bonds.
Answer: hydrogen
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton?
A) anchors organelles
B) gives shape to the cell
C) packages cellular secretions
D) performs endocytosis
E) aids in contraction of the cell
Answer: C
Q2) ________ may have pili.
A) Eukaryotes
B) Archaea
C) Bacteria
D) Prokaryotes
E) Both eukaryotes and bacteria
Answer: C
Q3) A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same direction across a membrane.
Answer: symport
Q4) Fragments of (LPS/NAM/NAG) released from Gram-negative bacteria into the bloodstream produce fever and shock.
Answer: LPS
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Histological samples prepared with the ________ stain may reveal the presence of abnormal cells.
A) acid-fast
B) Gram
C) simple safranin
D) methylene blue
E) hematoxylin and eosin (HE)
Q2) The resolution of a microscope lens is a function of the lens' (aperture/color/contrast).
Q3) All types of radiation are used for microscopy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rules of naming organisms are called
A) taxonomy.
B) nomenclature.
C) classification.
D) binomials.
E) identification.
Q5) A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, ________ is produced.
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) FADH
D) H O
E) acetic acid
Q2) The electron transport chain provides the energy for
A) oxidative phosphorylation.
B) substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) beta-oxidation.
D) photophosphorylation.
E) anabolic reactions.
Q3) The various types of chlorophyll differ in the
A) amount of light they can absorb.
B) amount of ATP they produce.
C) number of electrons they release.
D) amount of oxygen they utilize.
E) wavelengths of light they absorb.
Q4) The (activation /inhibition/saturation) point of an enzyme is reached when all active sites have bound substrate molecules.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a
A) photoheterotroph.
B) lithoautotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) chemoheterotroph.
E) chemoautotroph.
Q2) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) reducing media
C) enriched media
D) differential media
E) selective media
Q3) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.
Q4) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation.
Q5) Quorum sensing is involved in the development and propagation of a biofilm.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but not eukaryotic genomes?
A) histones
B) circular chromosomes
C) linear chromosomes
D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane
E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes
Q2) Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site.
Q3) Which of the following is found in both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes?
A) chromatin fibers
B) histones
C) heterochromatin
D) euchromatin
E) nuclear envelope
Q4) The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) (analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine.
Q5) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).
Q6) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human microbiome is very uniform across the entire species Homo sapiens in all geographic locations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Synthesis of cDNA requires the use of
A) DNA ligase.
B) agarose.
C) reverse transcriptase.
D) restriction enzymes.
E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides.
Q3) A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into expression vector plasmids and introduced the modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be an effective means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest?
A) Sequence the DNA of the plasmids from each isolate.
B) Prepare and analyze restriction fragments of the plasmids.
C) Isolate clones that still have the vector's genetic marker.
D) Assay for activity of the gene product.
E) Use reverse transcriptase to prepare cDNA copies.
Q4) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are A) aldehydes.
B) antibiotics.
C) halogens.
D) quaternary ammonium compounds.
E) triclosans.
Q2) What effect do aldehydes have on microbial organisms?
A) They disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.
B) They inhibit enzymes.
C) They damage nucleic acids.
D) They disrupt membranes and enzyme function.
E) They damage proteins and DNA.
Q3) Quaternary ammonium compounds ("quats") are used for A) antisepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
D) quantifying antimicrobial activity.
E) both antisepsis and disinfection.
Q4) Design an experiment to compare the effectiveness of a physical and a chemical method of disinfection.
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Chapter 10:Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance are often called (analog/second generation/synergist) drugs.
Q2) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?
A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects.
B) They work faster.
C) They are more effective than the unmodified natural antibiotics.
D) They must be administered intravenously.
E) They are not readily absorbed.
Q3) Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n)
A) antibiotic.
B) analog.
C) semisynthetic antimicrobial.
D) synthetic antimicrobial.
E) probiotic.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The archaea known as halophiles
A) require temperatures above 45 C to survive.
B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.
C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.
D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45 C.
E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.
Q2) Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?
A) Bacteroides
B) Rickettsia
C) Chlamydia
D) Helicobacter
E) Treponema
Q3) The classification of prokaryotes in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is largely based on
A) Gram stain reaction.
B) habitat.
C) type of electron receptor used in cellular respiration.
D) rRNA sequences.
E) cellular morphology.
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are
A) protozoa.
B) fungi.
C) algae.
D) insects.
E) water molds.
Q2) Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as A) meiosis.
B) schizogony.
C) coenocytic division.
D) encystment.
E) interphase.
Q3) Crossing over between chromosomes occurs during which stage of meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) anaphase I
E) metaphase II
Q4) Plasmodium, the cause of malaria, undergoes multiple mitoses before the release of uninucleate daughter cells called (gametocytes/schizonts/coencytes).
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following infectious particles do not have protein in their structure?
A) bacteriophages
B) prions
C) animal viruses
D) viroids
E) both prions and viroids
Q2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal?
Q3) The genome of all DNA animal viruses is replicated in the nucleus of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.
15
Q7) Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP).
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
Q2) All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People in the asymptomatic incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three types of reservoirs of infectious disease in humans. Give an example disease for each type of reservoir.
Q5) Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation?
A) coagulase
B) lipid A
C) hyaluronidase
D) kinase
E) collagenase
Q6) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.
Page 16
Q7) Bacterial capsules are (antiphagocytic/cytotoxic/exotoxic) virulence factors.
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT?
A) They produce defensins.
B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells.
C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells.
D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite.
E) They identify and spare normal cells.
Q3) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?
Q4) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity.
B) adaptive immunity.
C) species resistance.
D) microbial antagonism.
E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.
Q5) Proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are (complement/interferons/opsonins).
Page 17
Q6) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
A) the child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.
B) the child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
C) the child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
D) the child has neither influenza nor RSV.
E) the results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.
Q3) The most prevalent antibody class in the blood is
A) IgD.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgG.
E) IgE.
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatitis B vaccine is an attenuated vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antivenin is a(n)
A) antitoxin used to treat exposure to a venom.
B) antigen produced from a virus.
C) antiserum produced from hybridomas.
D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus.
E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.
Q3) The vaccine to prevent cervical cancer is a(n) (attenuated/recombinant/toxoid) vaccine.
Q4) Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from
A) human serum.
B) animal serum.
C) hybridomas.
D) human B cells in culture.
E) both human and animal serum
Q5) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).
Q6) Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) The mother has eosinophilia during pregnancy.
B) An O blood type mother produces anti-A antibodies which cross the placenta and react with the baby's A antigens.
C) Antibodies of an A or B blood type mother cross the placenta and react with baby's O antigens.
D) The mother produces anti-Rh antibodies which cross the placenta and react with baby's Rh antigens.
E) The mother's mast cells degranulate in the placenta, damaging it.
Q2) The condition known as graft-versus-host disease may result after
A) a bone marrow allograft.
B) a mismatched blood transfusion.
C) a bone allograft.
D) a plasmapheresis procedure.
E) any type of allograft procedure.
Q3) If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from
A) sporotrichosis.
B) necrotizing fasciitis.
C) chromoblasomycosis.
D) mycetoma.
E) phaeohyphomycosis.
Q2) Which of the following is an enzyme which results in Staphylococcus aureus being more invasive than Staphylococcus epidermidis?
A) lipase
B) M protein
C) hyaluronidase
D) pyrogens
E) neuraminidase
Q3) Describe the natural defenses of the skin that prevent many infections of this area.
Q4) Warts on the sole of the foot are known as (seed/flat/plantar) warts.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in A) West Nile encephalitis.
B) postpolio syndrome.
C) African sleeping sickness.
D) minor polio.
E) leprosy.
Q2) Contaminated food is the source of ________, which causes meningitis in the elderly and susceptible persons.
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q3) The condition known as "pinkeye" may be the result of infection with
A) Haemophilus influenzae.
B) Trypanosoma brucei.
C) Acanthamoeba.
D) Clostridium botulinum.
E) Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q4) The normal habitat for Naegleria is (birds/mammals/water).
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Chapter 21: Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The terms "bacteremia" and "septicemia" are synonymous.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A large number of people in an African village become ill a couple of weeks after sharing a feast of stew made from the meat of jungle animals. They initially have fever, headache and fatigue, and develop petechiae. Most then experience bloody diarrhea and vomiting, and a few days later begin bleeding from the mouth and eyes. What is the most likely preliminary diagnosis?
A) dengue hemorrhagic fever
B) ebola hemorrhagic fever
C) yellow fever
D) malaria
E) African trypanosomiasis
Q3) An indication of infection with Human herpesvirus 4 is
A) "swimmer's itch."
B) "bull's eye" rash.
C) a bubo.
D) high fever and sore throat.
E) an ulcerating sore.
Q4) Anaplasma primarily infects (erythrocytes/monocytes/neutrophils).
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Group A streptococci produce ________ which breaks down blood clots, allowing the bacteria to spread.
A) M proteins
B) a hyaluronic acid capsule
C) C5a peptidase
D) streptokinase
E) pyrogenic toxins
Q2) Strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis called MDR are resistant to A) levofloxacin.
B) isoniazid.
C) rifampin.
D) isoniazid and rifampin.
E) levofloxacin, isoniazid and rifampin.
Q3) A major change in the surface glycoproteins of influenza A, which occurs every 10 years on average, is called (antigenic/genetic/protein) shift.
Q4) Haemophilus influenzae is a common cause of sinus infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The smallest free-living microbes are (mycobacteria/mycoplasmas/Chlamydophila).
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following conditions usually results in severe acute liver damage?
A) co-infection with hepatitis A and hepatitis B viruses
B) superinfection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
C) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis delta viruses
D) superinfection with hepatitis A and hepatitis E viruses
E) co-infection with hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses
Q2) What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?
A) Escherichia coli O157:H7
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Salmonella enterica
D) Giardia intestinalis
E) Lactobacillus
Q3) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?
A) Porphyromonas gingivalis
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) Shigella dysenteriae
Q4) The larval stage of pinworms is found in (cows/fish/humans).
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) When bacteria infect the bladder, the condition is known as (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).
Q2) The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A young woman is brought to the ER who is running a high fever and is confused about where she is. She also has an extensive red rash. She begins vomiting, and her blood pressure drops. The ER staff determine she is menstruating. What is the likely diagnosis?
Q4) The typical sign of primary syphilis is
A) a chancre at the site of infection.
B) a widespread rash.
C) lymphadenopathy.
D) gummas in various organs.
E) paralysis.
Q5) Gonorrhea in women is not a risk factor for sterility.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
Q6) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV).
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Chapter 25: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease.
Q2) Benzoic acid is largely a(n) (antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling) agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria.
Q3) What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically?
A) penicillin
B) streptokinase
C) taxol
D) human insulin
E) interferons
Q4) Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt toxin, which improves fermentation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down metabolic processes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).
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Chapter 26: Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes
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Q1) What pH conditions favor the growth of most bacteria?
A) pH 2
B) pH 5
C) pH 7
D) pH 9
E) Bacteria can grow at all ranges of pH.
Q2) Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas, which is the form used by most organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Soil contaminated with bird droppings may contain ________ which can cause respiratory disease in humans.
A) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Streptomyces scabies
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Bacillus subtilis
Q4) Anaerobic oxidation of (methane/rubisco/plastics) produces carbon dioxide.
Q5) Organic compounds are degraded to produce methane by (Archaea/fungi/Pseudomonas).
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