Microbiology for Pre-Med Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth introduction to microbiology with a focus tailored for pre-medical students. It covers the fundamental biology, taxonomy, and physiology of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, emphasizing their relevance to human health and disease. Students will explore mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, the human immune response, principles of disinfection and sterilization, and the application of microbiology in diagnostics and treatment. Laboratory sessions reinforce key concepts through practical exercises in culturing, identifying, and analyzing microorganisms. The course is designed to develop a strong foundation for understanding infectious diseases and their implications for medical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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27 Chapters
1932 Verified Questions
1932 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All microorganisms are parasites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except
A)the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.
B)human encroachment on wild habitats.
C)changes in agricultural practices.
D)populations are more mobile.
Answer: A
Q4) _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.
Answer: Viruses
Q5) The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.
Answer: taxonomy
3
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> +
C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> \(\rarr\) C<sub>12</sub>
H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O represents
A)formation of a peptide bond.
B)a decomposition reaction.
C)denaturation.
D)formation of a polysaccharide.
E)dehydration synthesis.
Answer: E
Q2) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.
Answer: saturated
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A)illumination.
B)resolution.
C)magnification.
D)size of the field.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?
A)to stain the cells blue
B)to prevent the smear from drying out
C)to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better
D)to increase the resolution
E)to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source
Answer: D
Q3) Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. Answer: subculture
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microoganism has been described to you as living in hot acidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is?
A)Gracillucates
B)Firmicutes
C)Actinobacteria
D)Archaea
E)Spirochaetes
Q2) Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms?
A)They can be involved with human disease.
B)They involve bacteria only.
C)They evolve and adapt to their surroundings.
D)They are very difficult to eliminate with antimicrobials.
E)They can accumulate on living and non-living surfaces.
Q4) The cell _____ is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except A)infected animals.
B)contaminated food.
C)contaminated water.
D)contaminated soil.
E)contaminated air.
Q2) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
Q3) Filamentous fungi are called A)pseudohyphae. B)septa. C)molds.
D)dimorphic. E)mycelium.
Q4) Plankton are floating communities of helminths. A)True B)False
Q5) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about viruses?
A)cannot be seen with a light microscope
B)are prokaryotic
C)contain 70S ribosomes
D)undergo binary fission
E)can be grown on nutrient agar
Q3) Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A)lysogeny.
B)budding.
C)plaques.
D)cytopathic effects.
E)pocks.
Q4) Explain what is meant by host range, what governs host range, and what is meant by tissue tropism.
Q5) One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a _____ relationship.
A)Parasitic
B)Saprobic
C)Commensal
D)Mutualistic
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called
A)Facilitated diffusion
B)Diffusion
C)Active transport
D)Osmosis
E)Endocytosis
Q3) Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of
A)Amination
B)Deamination
C)Phosphorylation
D)Beta oxidation
E)Gluconeogenesis
Q2) Each FADH<sub>2</sub> from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to _____ ATP's.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of the Calvin cycle?
A)A process the requires light
B)Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form
C)Produces glucose as an end product
D)Produces carbon dioxide and water
E)All of these
Page 10
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A)Transformation
B)Conjugation
C)Mitosis
D)Transduction
E)None of the above
Q2) Excised introns form structures called lariats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A)Polymerase III
B)Polymerase I
C)Helicase
D)RNA
E)DNA
Q4) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) EcoRI and HindIII are A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptases.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
Q2) Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis is based on:
A)larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells.
B)DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole.
C)DNA fragments are stained to see them.
D)an electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A)genetic engineering.
B)biotechnology.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)gel electrophoresis.
E)gene probes.
Q4) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
Q5) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial
Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:
A)it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.
B)it can kill insects on the food.
C)it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.
D)it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.
E)it makes the food less nutritious.
Q2) Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses?
A)hydrogen peroxide
B)alcohol
C)hexachlorophene
D)glutaraldehyde
E)hypochorites
Q3) All the following are correct about detergents, except:
A)they are polar molecules that act as surfactants.
B)the most effective ones are positively charged.
C)in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic.
D)they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria.
E)they are active in the presence of organic matter.
Q4) _____ filters are widely used to provide a flow of sterile air to hospital rooms.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
A)they should be given early in an infection.
B)they prevent assembly and release of the virus.
C)they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B.
D)they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus.
E)they are effective prophylactics for influenza.
Q2) Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.
Q3) Antimicrobics that are macrolides
A)disrupt cell membrane function.
B)include tetracyclines.
C)include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin.
D)are very narrow-spectrum drugs.
E)are hepatotoxic.
Q4) Acyclovir is used to treat A)influenza A virus.
B)HIV.
C)shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
E)hepatitis C virus.
Q5) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection, Disease, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about skatole?
A)It is the general term for the flora of the gastrointestinal tract.
B)It is a mixture of amines and gases that gives feces its characteristic stench.
C)It is another term for the sexually transmitted disease, syphilis.
D)It is a general term for the endogenous flora in humans.
E)It is a chemical released by gram positive bacilli during inflammation.
Q3) Which is mismatched?
A)Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B)Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
C)Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
D)Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E)Hemolysins - damage red blood cells
Q4) Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.
Q5) Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
A)lactic acid.
B)hydrochloric acid.
C)lysozyme.
D)histamine.
E)bile.
Q2) Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever.His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic.What is she telling him to take?
A)An antibiotic, like erythromycin
B)An antiviral drug, like Tamiflu
C)An antihistamine
D)Acetaminophen, like Tylenol
E)Herbal tea with honey
Q3) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
Q4) Plasma is also called lymph.
A)True
B)False
16
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss, in detail, all the genetic and cellular events encompassed in the clonal selection theory of lymphocyte development.
Q3) Live, attenuated vaccines
A)include the Sabin polio vaccine.
B)include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
C)contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
D)require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
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Q7) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms?
A)T cells
B)monocytes
C)plasma cells
D)mast cells
E)eosinophils
Q2) Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies?
A)They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them.
B)They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies.
C)Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines.
D)They are found mainly in the lymph nodes.
E)None of the above is incorrect.
Q3) The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is:
A)cross-reactions.
B)agglutination.
C)precipitation.
D)specificity.
E)sensitivity.
Q2) Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests?
A)monoclonal antibodies
B)electronics
C)enzymes
D)radioactivity
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _____ tests.
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of:
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
E)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q3) The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with:
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
Q4) All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme _____ that is easily detected in the lab.
Q5) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci. B
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swimming pool granuloma is caused by:
A)Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
B)Mycobacterium kansasii.
C)Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.
D)Mycobacterium fortuitum complex.
E)Mycobacterium marinum.
Q2) Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of:
A)Clostridium botulinum.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Clostridium tetani.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed _____.
Q6) Thoracic _____ is a complication of a burst appendix or gunshot wound. Page 21
Q5) In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtheria are treated with _____.
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Page 22
Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include
A)ferment lactose.
B)are normal flora of human intestines.
C)produce enterotoxins.
D)ferment glucose.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Legionella pneumophila
A)requires special lab growth media.
B)often lives in close associations with amoebas.
C)causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
D)causes a severe pneumonia.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria?
A)toxin production
B)capsules
C)fimbriae
D)hemolysins
E)All of the above
Q4) The two true pathogenic enteric genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are _____ and _____.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about Lyme disease?
A)It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.
B)Its reservoirs are mice and deer.
C)It is transmitted by ticks.
D)It is nonfatal.
E)It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.
Q2) Dental caries is the most common human disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The two bacterial genera of obligate parasites are _____ and _____.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
B)Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
C)Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin
D)Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body
E)Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
Q2) Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include
A)it grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano.
B)it is a yeast with a capsule.
C)it is a dermatophyte.
D)it grows in dry, arid soil.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss why the use of broad-spectrum oral antimicrobics often lead to oral thrush and vulvovaginal candidiasis superinfections.
Q5) Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hookworms
A)include Necator americanus.
B)include Ancylostoma duodenale.
C)have filariform larvae in soil that get transmitted into bare feet.
D)have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Plasmodium species are hemoflagellates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following will kill Giardia, except A)boiling.
B)ozone.
C)iodine.
D)chlorine in typical drinking water.
E)All of the methods listed will kill it.
Q5) The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the _____.
Q6) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Smallpox is a disease in which:
A)fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
B)virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons.
C)recurrent episodes are called shingles.
D)can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which is incorrect about smallpox?
A)There is an effective vaccine.
B)Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.
C)The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure.
D)The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent.
E)The last case was seen in 1977.
Q3) The only body fluid that can transmit hepatitis B virus is blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.
Q6) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus. Page 27
Q5) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus):
A)causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
B)uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
C)can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.
D)Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Aedes mosquitoes is the vector involved in yellow fever and dengue fever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Documented transmission of HIV involves:
A)mosquitoes.
B)unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
C)respiratory droplets.
D)contaminated food.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The main decomposers are the fungi and bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potable water is
A)contaminated.
B)polluted.
C)safe to drink.
D)foul testing.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Finding __________ in water is a good indication that it has been fecally contaminated.
Q4) In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some bacteria, such as Desulfovibrio, are able to reduce sulfates to hydrogen sulfide as the final step in the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This organism is used to make Swiss cheese:
A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
C)Streptococcus lactis and Lactobacillus
D)Propionibacterium
E)Spirulina
Q3) The process of activating sludge from waste water involves A)chlorination.
B)filtration.
C)aeration and stirring.
D)radiation.
E)heat and pressure.
Q4) A food _____ results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.
Q5) Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and cause food spoilage.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31