Microbiology for Pharmacy
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides pharmacy students with a foundational understanding of microbiology, focusing on the role of microorganisms in health, disease, and pharmaceutical practice. Topics include the classification and structure of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa, microbial genetics, and mechanisms of pathogenicity. The course covers aseptic techniques, principles of sterilization and disinfection, and the development and use of antimicrobial agents. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of microbiology to pharmaceutical manufacturing, infection control, antibiotic resistance, and the pharmacists role in promoting public health. Practical laboratory sessions reinforce theoretical knowledge and develop essential skills for pharmacy practice.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) Which best describes the Cyanobacteria?
A) First prokaryote to contain mitochondria.
B) First appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago.
C) Carry out oxygenic photosynthesis.
D) Members of the Archaea domain.
E) A type of eukaryotic algae.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of these are fossilized microbial mats containing photosynthetic bacteria?
A) Stromatolites
B) Biofilms
C) Resin
D) Cyanobacteria
E) Stalagmites
Answer: A
Q3) The ___________ __________ ___________ is an extremely important molecular technique that allowed scientists to specifically amplify a specific DNA sequence.
Answer: polymerase chain reaction
Q4) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) The glycan portion of peptidoglycan is composed of alternating units of which two compounds?
A) glucose and fructose
B) N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine
C) N-acetylmannose and N-acetylglucose
D) N-acetylfructose and N-acetylglucose
E) N-acetylmannitol and N-acetylsorbitol
Answer: B
Q2) The bacterial flagellum is turned by a motor using energy from:
A) ATP.
B) glucose.
C) a proton motive force.
D) phosphoenolpyruvate.
E) AMP.
Answer: C
Q3) The lipopolysaccharides (LPS)of most Gram-negative bacteria is able to trigger a very strong inflammatory response in humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) What are the three major structures that comprise the eukaryal cytoskeleton?
A) microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
B) centromeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
C) telomeres, centromeres, and microtubules
D) telomeres, microtubules, and microfilaments
E) telomeres, centromeres, and microfilaments
Answer: A
Q2) Which of these diseases is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?
A) severe dysentery
B) malaria
C) pneumonia
D) tuberculosis
E) African sleeping sickness
Answer: A
Q3) Mitochondria replicate independently of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.
Answer: malaria
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) Which of these is correct regarding subunit rRNA?
A) It serves the same biological function in all organisms.
B) Its sequence changes very slowly over time.
C) It is very stable and easy to work with.
D) It serves the same biological function in all organisms and its sequence changes very slowly over time.
E) These choices are all true.
Q2) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
Q3) The archaeal chromosome is:
A) linear and contained within a nuclear membrane.
B) circular and contained within a nuclear membrane.
C) circular and contains histones.
D) linear and contains histones.
E) circular, contains histones, and contained within a nuclear membrane.
Q4) Where have halophiles been isolated from?
A) hydrothermal vents
B) temperate environments
C) very cold environments
D) both b and c
E) a, b, and c are correct
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) All of the following methods can be used to quantify viruses EXCEPT:
A) plaque assay.
B) hemagglutinin assay.
C) viral protein assay.
D) endpoint assay to determine LD .
E) endpoint assay to determine ID .
Q2) Viruses that have icosahedral symmetry have ________ faces and 12 vertices resulting in a spherical appearance.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 50
Q3) What is the most common way for non-enveloped viruses to enter animal cells?
A) The virion fuses itself to the cell membrane.
B) The virion directly injects its nucleic acid.
C) Endocytosis of the virion.
D) Through lysis of the cell.
E) Via a hole in the cell membrane.
Q4) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) An autotroph is defined as an organism that uses _____ as a source of _____.
A) sunlight; energy
B) organic compounds; carbon
C) organic compounds; energy
D) inorganic compounds; energy
E) carbon dioxide; carbon
Q2) Which of these methods can be used to obtain a viable cell count?
A) counting chamber direct count
B) turbidity measurement
C) plate counts of serial dilutions
D) loop dilution
E) optical density
Q3) The process commonly used by the dairy industry to reduce the number of microbes in milk and destroy any pathogens that may be present is called ______________.
Q4) Generation time is the average time it takes an actively growing cell in a population to divide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Would ionizing radiation be safe to use on food? Why?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Initiation of translation in bacteria starts with the binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit to the mRNA molecule.The ribosomal binding site is nearer the _________ end of the mRNA molecule and is called the ________.
A) 3'; Pribnow box
B) 3'; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
C) 3'; Rho sequence
D) 5'; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
E) 5'; Rho sequence
Q3) Which of these is a point mutation that results in changing a codon from an amino acid codon to a stop codon?
A) frameshift
B) silent
C) nonsense
D) missense
E) deletion
Q4) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the _____ _______ sequence.
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Class III viruses,double-stranded RNA viruses,utilize the following polymerase for genome synthesis
A) host cell RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D) viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
E) viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
Q2) The Baltimore classification scheme classifies viruses based on their mechanism of mRNA synthesis.Using this classification scheme,all viruses are placed into ______ classes.
A) seven
B) five
C) four
D) ten
E) twenty five
Q3) Describe the series of events that usually occur for an enveloped virus to exit the cell with an intact envelope containing the outer envelope viral proteins.
Q4) A bacterial cell that contains the integrated genome of a temperate bacteriophage is called a ______.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) Which of these is TRUE regarding replication of a plasmid in a bacterial cell?
A) It is only replicated when the plasmid is integrated within the chromosome.
B) It requires replication of the chromosome first.
C) It requires a unique DNA polymerase.
D) It is independent of chromosome replication.
E) It occurs only after cell division.
Q2) What is the "sexual transfer" of genes in bacteria called?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) transfection
D) conjugation
E) coupling
Q3) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transfer of DNA from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium is an example of horizontal gene transfer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
Q2) What are paralogs?
A) Genes that arise from a duplication event in an organism.
B) Mutant genes in an organism.
C) Genes that are seldom expressed in an organism.
D) Genes that are expressed at a high level in an organism.
E) Genes that have no function in an organism.
Q3) Dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)are used in the Sanger sequencing method.What are ddNTPs,and what is the explanation for the theory behind this method?
Q4) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing has been automated and uses a(n):
A) thermal-stable DNA polymerase to allow for multiple rounds of DNA synthesis.
B) trideoxynucleotides in the synthesis reactions.
C) radiolabeled nucleotides for fragment detection.
D) agarose gel electrophoresis for fragment separation.
E) chemical digestion method for fragment generation.
Q5) A technique used to examine all mRNA production in the cell simultaneously for any set of growth conditions is called a/an ________________.
Q6) The pH at which a protein's charge is completely neutral is the protein's ______________ point.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The term for a large group of genes whose expression is under the control of a single regulatory system.
A) operon
B) super operon
C) regulon
D) transcriptome
E) biome
Q2) Give example of genes that are usually expressed constitutively.Why are these genes constitutively expressed?
Q3) The two component regulatory system typically consists of a histidine kinase and a response regulator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these is required for transcription that is regulated by positive control?
A) activator protein
B) repressor protein
C) inducer protein
D) attenuator protein
E) DNA polymerase.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Why might butanol be a better biofuel than ethanol?
A) Butanol has a higher octane rating.
B) Butanol is easier to produce.
C) Butanol contains more energy per unit volume.
D) Butanol can be produced from cheaper feedstocks.
E) Butanol costs less to produce.
Q2) Which of these would be an example of a "secondary metabolite" fermentation product?
A) ethanol
B) acetone
C) butanol
D) penicillin
E) propanol
Q3) The preferred fuel of choice for the original Model T Ford was gasoline.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All secondary metabolites produced by microorganisms are used as antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Metabolic processes in the cell that yield energy are called ____________.
Q2) Distinguish between substrate-level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.
Q3) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.
A)True B)False
Q4) During the respiratory process,as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain,a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.
Q5) The use of an exogenous terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen is called __________ __________.
Q6) Oxygen is produced by all photosynthetic microorganisms. A)True B)False
Q7) A reaction that has a negative G°' is exergonic. A)True B)False
15
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) The oxidation state of nitrogen in dinitrogen (N )is +1.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in nitrate?
A) -3
B) -1
C) +1
D) +3
E) +5
Q3) How can Type I and Type II methanotrophs be distinguished from one another?
A) By carbon assimilation pathways and Gram stain.
B) By Gram stain and cellular shape.
C) By Gram stain and internal membrane structures.
D) By carbon assimilation pathways and internal membrane structures.
E) By cellular shape and internal membrane structures.
Q4) The process of nitrification is carried out by chemoautotrophic bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
Q6) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called __________.
Q3) The specific function role of an organism in an ecosystem is called the
Q4) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposition.
A) fungi
B) Gram positive bacteria
C) Gram negative bacteria
D) Archaea
E) slime molds
Q5) Biofilms in the environment are usually comprised of a single species.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A community of organisms living in a specified area that are interacting with each other and their environment is called a(n)________________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) The main goal of the primary treatment phase of wastewater treatment is the
A) reduction of total organic content (TOC).
B) removal of pathogenic microbes.
C) reduction of nitrogen.
D) removal of particulate matter.
E) removal of toxic chemicals.
Q2) Small proteins produced by some bacterial to inhibit the growth of closely related bacteria are called __________________.
Q3) Anaerobic digesters at wastewater treatment plants are used to
A) reduce nitrogen and phosphorus in wastewater.
B) remove toxic organic pollutants.
C) remove potential pathogens.
D) treat wastewater effluent.
E) treat sludge and particulates collected during waste treatment.
Q4) Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by A) lactic acid bacteria.
B) the yeast Saccharomyces.
C) various molds.
D) sulfate-reducing bacteria.
E) acetic acid bacteria.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) Once rhizobia enter into the plant cell and differentiate they will not proliferate again.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The human colon contains more microbial cells than human cells that make up the entire body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Intestinal microorganisms are important for the proper functioning of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vagina of women of child-bearing age has an acidic pH.This is due to the colonization by which organisms?
A) staphylococci
B) lactobacilli
C) Candida sp
D) Bacteroides sp
E) micrococci
Q5) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A(n)________________ is a toxin made inside the pathogen and excreted into the external environment.
Q2) Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following?
A) acquire nutrients
B) evade host defenses
C) attach to host cells
D) exit the host successfully
E) enter host cells
Q3) The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called
Q4) The ability of Staphylococcus aureus to become antibiotic resistant is referred to as antigenic variation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Koch's Postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) During the process of phagocytosis,microbes are contained within the phagosome.The phagosome fuses with vesicles in the cell that contain components for the destruction and degradation of the microbe.Which one of the following strategies is NOT used to destroy the phagocytized microbe?
A) degradation by enzymes
B) inactivation by acidification
C) lysis via membrane pores
D) destruction by antibodies
E) destruction by toxic oxygen radicals
Q2) Which of these results in immunological memory?
A) The innate immune response.
B) The adaptive immune response.
C) The non-specific immune response.
D) Passive immunity from mother to offspring.
E) Immune mechanisms present at birth.
Q3) Iron is usually freely available in the body for access by invading pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do toll-like receptors (TLRs)function to recognize foreign cells in the body?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) What are plasma cells?
A) Antibody producing cells.
B) The same as memory B cells.
C) Any lymphocyte in the blood stream.
D) The same as memory CD8 T cells.
E) T-helper cells.
Q2) CD8 T cells are activated through TCR-binding to a specific antigen presented by the MHC II molecules on the surface of a macrophage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is the antibody secreted in the largest amount by the body?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q4) Salts or oils commonly added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of the vaccine antigens are called _________________.
Q5) Describe the role of TH2 in antibody production.
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus produces a potent exotoxin which causes cell damage that induces a very strong inflammatory response in the host.What is this toxin?
A) pneumolysin
B) -toxin
C) enterotoxin
D) streptolysin O
E) Protein A
Q2) Impetigo can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.Impetigo is a type of
A) pneumonia
B) sequelae
C) toxic shock syndrome
D) ear infection
E) skin infection
Q3) The DTaP vaccine is designed to protect against which diseases?
A) diarrhea, tetanus, and polio
B) diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
C) diarrhea, tetanus, and pertussis
D) diphtheria, tetanus, and polio
E) diarrhea, measles, and polio
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) Bunyaviruses causes cell death by a process called "cap-snatching".This process results in:
A) destruction of host cell mRNA.
B) inhibition of DNA replication.
C) deterioration of the cytoplasmic membrane.
D) inhibition of translation.
E) destruction of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) Many of the clinical symptoms associated with viral infection are caused by the host immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do retroviruses cause cancer?
A) Through the inhibition of tumor suppressor genes.
B) By encouraging frequent cell lysis.
C) By directly inducing the cell to enter into S-phase.
D) By preventing the cell from entering into apoptosis.
E) Through the integration of their DNA into a proto-oncogene.
Q4) RNA viruses have much higher spontaneous mutation rates than DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) What do humans ingest in food or water in in order to contact Giardia lamblia?
A) trophozoites
B) gametocytes
C) sporozoites
D) schizonts
E) cysts
Q2) The toxin -amanitin specifically inhibits this.
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase II.
C) cell membrane synthesis.
D) ribosomal function.
E) DNA helicase.
Q3) What is Ascaris lumbricoides,a helminth that causes ascariasis,commonly called?
A) hookworm
B) roundworm
C) tapeworm
D) pinworm
E) whipworm
Q4) The malarial parasite obtains nutrients by digesting ___________ from host red blood cells.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target protein synthesis?
A) aminoglycosides
B) macrolides
C) tetracylcines
D) rifamycins
E) chloramphenicols
Q2) The best way to prevent a cholera epidemic is _____.
A) prophylactic use of antibiotics.
B) frequent hand washing.
C) proper drinking water treatment.
D) quarantine of infected individuals.
E) vaccination.
Q3) Environmental microbes that do not cause disease are always sensitive to antimicrobial drugs because they were never exposed to these drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins that remove antimicrobial drug from a cell by pumping them out are called ___________ pumps.
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