Microbiology for Nursing
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing is an essential course designed to introduce nursing students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with direct application to healthcare settings. The course covers the structure, function, classification, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on the role of microbes in human health and disease, infection control, modes of transmission, and the development and use of antimicrobial agents. Students will also learn about the bodys immune response to pathogens, sterilization and disinfection techniques, and the importance of aseptic practices in clinical nursing care to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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2124 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
A)bioremediation.
B)genetic engineering.
C)epidemiology.
D)immunology.
E)taxonomy.
Answer: A
Q2) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) All microorganisms are parasites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.
Answer: Evolution
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the incorrect statement.
A)Molecules contain atoms.
B)Compounds may contain only one type of atom.
C)Compounds contain molecules.
D)Atoms are joined by chemical bonds forming molecules.
E)Molecules may contain two of the same type of atom.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?
A)glycogen
B)maltose
C)starch
D)cellulose
E)galactose
Answer: A
Q3) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____.
Answer: ions
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi?
A)Sabouraud's agar
B)MacConkey agar
C)tomato juice agar
D)phenylethanol agar
E)Mueller tellurite
Answer: A
Q2) A pure culture contains only
A)one species of microorganism.
B)bacteria.
C)a variety of microbes from one source.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) _____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens.
Answer: Immersion oil
Q4) _____ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.
Answer: Acidic
5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetosomes are
A)infoldings of the cell membrane.
B)termed metachromatic granules.
C)responsible for the heat resistance of endospores.
D)composed of magnetic iron oxide particles.
E)found in all bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics of living things is/are not found among viruses?
A)heredity
B)cellular structure
C)ability to evolve
D)presence of nucleic acid
E)All of these characteristics are lacking in viruses.
Q3) The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called
A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
A)are used for cell motility.
B)facilitate chemotaxis.
C)facilitate phototaxis.
D)are long whip-like structures.
E)contain microtubules.
Q2) Which of the following is the cause of malaria?
A)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Plasmodium
C)Giardia
D)Leishmania
E)Trypanosoma
Q3) The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A)nucleus.
B)Golgi apparatus.
C)mitochondria.
D)lysosome.
E)ribosome.
Q4) Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
Q2) Which of the following viruses did D.Ivanowski and M.Beijerinck work with?
A)Rabies
B)Smallpox
C)Tobacco Mosaic Virus
D)Herpes
E)Epstein-Barr virus
Q3) Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms?
A)Protists
B)Fungi
C)Archaea
D)Bacteria
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Which of the following is correct about viruses?
A)Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope.
B)Viruses are prokaryotic.
C)Viruses contain 70S ribosomes.
D)Viruses undergo binary fission.
E)Viruses can be grown on nutrient agar.
Q5) Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?
A)facilitated diffusion
B)diffusion
C)endocytosis
D)osmosis
Q2) In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
A)hypertonic
B)hypotonic
C)isotonic
D)mesotonic
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Contractile vacuoles are
A)used to expel excess water from cells.
B)found in bacterial cells.
C)important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments.
D)protein carriers in cell membranes.
E)used to bring solutes into a cell.
Q4) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A)carbon fixation.
B)reduction of intermediates by NADPH.
C)phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP.
D)regeneration or RuBP.
Q2) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The majority of reduced NAD is produced in A)glycolysis.
B)Krebs cycle.
C)the electron transport chain.
D)photosynthesis.
Q4) The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is A)mitochondria.
B)within the cell membrane.
C)lysosomes.
D)cytoplasm.
E)outside of the cell.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expression of genetic traits is the A)genome.
B)genotype.
C)proteome.
D)phenotype.
E)proteotype.
Q2) DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3'DNA end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A)has ribose.
B)has uracil.
C)is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D)does not have thymine.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transformation and transfection are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ blot method analyzes DNA, while the _____ method analyzes RNA.
Q3) Which of the following is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci?
A)cloning
B)gene therapy
C)antisense therapeutic
D)DNA fingerprinting
Q4) An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E.coli cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
Q6) The two common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are _____ and _____.
Q7) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells?
A)steam autoclave
B)use of glutaraldehyde
C)use of UV radiation
D)incineration
Q2) All of the following are phenols or phenolics, except A)lysol.
B)hexachlorophene.
C)triclosan.
D)cresols.
E)chloramines.
Q3) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
Q4) Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?
A)hydrogen peroxide
B)chloramines
C)fluorine
D)quaternary ammonium compounds
E)sodium iodide
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions.This is called the
A)Kirby-Bauer technique.
B)antibiogram.
C)E-test.
D)minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
E)therapeutic index (TI).
Q2) Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)helminthic
E)virus
Q3) Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs.Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
Q4) The major source of naturally-produced penicillin is the mold _____.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
A)fomites.
B)aerosols.
C)mechanical vectors.
D)droplet nuclei.
E)biological vectors.
Q2) Enterotoxins are
A)virulence factors.
B)toxins that target the intestines.
C)proteins.
D)exotoxins.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) A microbe such as Ebola virus that sickens most everyone that is infected would be characterized as a/an
A)opportunistic pathogen.
B)obligate pathogen.
C)facultative pathogen.
D)true pathogen.
Q4) _____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A)basophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)monocytes.
E)lymphocytes.
Q2) Hemopoiesis is the A)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B)production of only red blood cells.
C)production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
Q3) Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dermacidin is an antimicrobic peptide secreted by skin cells, which breaks down bacterial membranes and causes them to lyse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Edward Jenner's work involved
A)inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B)development of passive immunotherapy.
C)development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D)immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B-cells is/are
A)IgM only.
B)IgG only.
C)IgD only.
D)IgM and IgG.
E)IgE and IgA.
Q4) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
Q5) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A)sensitizing dose.
B)provocative dose.
C)allergic dose.
D)hypersensitivity dose.
E)desensitizing dose.
Q2) The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a/an A)xenograft.
B)autograft.
C)allograft.
D)heterograft.
E)homograft.
Q3) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except A)rheumatoid arthritis.
B)myasthenia gravis.
C)Graves'disease.
D)tuberculin reaction.
E)multiple sclerosis.
Q4) An _____ is any chronic local allergy.
Q5) Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.
18
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician.Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test.Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection?
A)immunoelectrophoresis
B)Ouchterlony
C)complement fixation
D)Western Blot
E)radioimmunoassay
Q2) Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except
A)inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change.
B)quick tests that take just a few seconds.
C)examining organisms through the microscope.
Q3) In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent _____ are used to react with the Fc region of another, specific, serum antibody.
Q4) The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Q2) Meningococcemia is
A)common during gonorrhea.
B)associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.
C)frequently seen in elderly.
D)caused by a gram-positive diplococcus.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as _____ cocci.
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Q6) Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except
A)capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
B)anaerobic.
C)reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
D)gram-positive bacillus.
E)spore-former.
Q2) Which of the following would be a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis?
A)consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products.
B)being a vegan.
C)receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmne disease
D)consuming home-canned foods.
Q3) Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a higher amount of _____.
Q4) Treatment and control of anthrax includes
A)use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases.
B)vaccination of livestock.
C)toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure.
D)proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax.
E)All of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is not associated with tularemia?
A)The causative agent is a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents.
B)Tularemia is transmitted by arthropod vectors.
C)The reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels.
D)Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia.
E)In animals, tularemia infects the placenta and fetus.
Q2) E.coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except
A)it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals.
B)it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger.
C)it causes a bloody diarrhea.
D)its reservoir is cattle intestines.
E)some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.
Q3) Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with _____.
Q4) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called _____.
Q5) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut was due to bacterial infection?
A)It responded to treatment with antibiotics.
B)It was not contagious.
C)It was transmitted by ticks.
D)It was accompanied by a rash.
E)It affected mostly children.
Q2) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Q3) The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed and small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with A)Lyme disease.
B)leptospirosis.
C)chlamydiosis.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)tertiary syphilis.
Q4) The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor?
A)It is a superficial mycosis.
B)It is often transmitted by fomites.
C)It is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur.
D)It causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance.
E)It occasionally causes systemic infections in compromised patients.
Q2) Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications.
Q3) Pneumocystis jirovecii
A)has protozoan and fungal characteristics.
B)lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane.
C)is an obligate parasite.
D)causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Diphyllobothrium latum - fish
B)Taenia solium - pork
C)Taenia saginata - beef
D)Echinococcus granulosus - poultry
E)Anisakis - fish
Q2) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)does not produce cysts.
B)causes urethritis in males.
C)causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge in females.
D)has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba
A)is a free-living ameba of freshwaters.
B)enters typically through broken skin or the conjunctiva.
C)is the cause of primary amebic meningoencephalitis.
D)enters through the nasal mucosa.
E)is acquired by swimming in contaminated water.
Q4) An amoeba trophozoite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen _____.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except A)varicella-zoster virus.
B)cytomegalovirus.
C)variola virus.
D)herpes simplex viruses.
E)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q2) The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except A)individuals with hypertension.
B)organ transplant patients.
C)infants infected in utero.
D)AIDS patients.
E)bone marrow transplant patients.
Q3) When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A)shock.
B)hypotension.
C)swelling of the legs.
D)jaundice.
E)gangrene.
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Q4) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A)It contains attenuated viruses.
B)It contains toxoids.
C)It is given in early childhood.
D)It provides protection against three different viral diseases.
Q2) What does AIDS stand for?
A)aids induced disease
B)aids in disguises
C)acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
D)human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes
Q3) Spongiform encephalopathies are
A)associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain.
B)chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
C)caused by prions.
D)Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-StraĆ¼ssler-Scheinker syndrome.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.
Q5) The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a _____.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following pertain to red tides, except
A)due to overgrowth of red and brown algae in water.
B)due to overgrowth of toxin-producing dinoflagellates.
C)cause paralytic shellfish poisoning.
D)involve toxin concentrating in shellfish.
E)humans can become ill from eating the shellfish.
Q2) Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called
A)membrane filter method.
B)most probable number (MPN) procedure.
C)standard plate count.
D)coliform determination test.
Q3) In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Finding __________ in water is a good indication that it has been fecally contaminated.
Q5) Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called ___________.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Describe the major steps in water purification as carried out by a modern municipal treatment plant.
Q2) A food _____ results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.
Q3) A vegan is highly unlikely to become infected with a food-borne pathogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hops is the herb that gives beer some of its aroma and flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A food infection results from the ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells. A)True B)False
Q6) All of the following are food-borne pathogens except A)Salmonella.
B)Campylobacter.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Clostridium.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
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