Microbiology for Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a foundational understanding of microbiology and its critical relevance to healthcare. It covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, with a focus on those impacting human health. The course emphasizes the principles of infection control, the role of the immune system, and the epidemiology of infectious diseases. Through practical and theoretical approaches, students learn about aseptic techniques, sterilization processes, and the safe handling of infectious materials, preparing them to apply microbiological knowledge in the promotion of health and the prevention of disease within clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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25 Chapters
2233 Verified Questions
2233 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering?
A)Yeasts
B)Parasites
C)Viruses
D)Fungi
E)Bacteria
Answer: C
Q2) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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77 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called ______. A)ions
B)isotopes
C)anions
D)cations
Answer: A
Q2) Ionic bonds
A)result from like charge attraction.
B)result from transferring electrons.
C)are the weakest chemical bonds.
D)always involve carbon.
E)result from sharing electrons.
Answer: B
Q3) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed ______.
A)enriched
B)complex
C)reducing
D)synthetic
Answer: B
Q2) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed ______.
A)fermentative
B)hemolytic
C)fastidious
D)aerobic
E)anaerobic
Answer: C
Q3) Fixed smears of specimens are required to perform the Gram stain or the endospore stain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lysozyme is most effective against ______.
A)gram-positive organisms
B)archaea
C)mycoplasmas
D)cyanobacteria
E)gram-negative organisms
Q2) All bacterial cells have ______.
A)an S-layer
B)flagella
C)the ability to produce endospores
D)capsules
E)a chromosome
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is not closely related to the others?
A)Salmonella enterica subsp.enterica
B)Salmonella enterica subsp.indica
C)Salmonella bongori
D)Salmonella enterica subsp.Arizonae
Q4) Both gram-positive and gram-negative cells have outer membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of ______.
A)helminths
B)protozoa
C)fungi
D)yeasts
E)algae
Q2) The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the ______.
A)oocyst
B)cyst
C)sporozoite
D)food vacuole
E)trophozoite
Q3) Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular ______.
A)commensalism
B)parasitism
C)symbiosis
D)mutualism
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
A)adsorption to the host cells.
B)injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
C)host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins.
D)assembly of nucleocapsids.
E)replication of viral nucleic acid.
Q2) In transduction, the viral genome
A)initiates lysis of the host.
B)includes DNA from the previous host.
C)is replicated in the cytoplasm.
D)is replicated in the nucleus.
Q3) Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called ______.
A)patches
B)buds
C)plaques
D)cytopathic effects
E)pocks
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a(n) ______.
A)thermophile
B)psychrophile
C)thermoduric microbe
D)extremophile
E)facultative psychrophile
Q2) Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a(n) _____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow its movement across the membrane.
A)porin
B)lipid
C)protein
D)enzyme
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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99 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each NADH that enters the electron transport system results in the production of _____ ATPs.
A)2
B)3
C)24
D)36
E)38
Q2) The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins ______.
A)glycolysis
B)the electron transport system
C)the Krebs cycle
D)fermentation
E)oxidative phosphorylation
Q3) ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations.
A)missense and insertion
B)missense and nonsense
C)nonsense and deletion
D)deletion and insertion
E)insertion and nonsense
Q2) Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence?
A)Ribosomal RNA
B)Messenger RNA
C)Transfer RNA
D)Primer RNA
E)Ribozymes
Q3) Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA gyrase
E)primase
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.
A)genes
B)codons
C)base pairs
D)proteins
E)triplets
Q2) Transgenic organisms are ______.
A)created in nature
B)only microorganisms
C)copyrighted
D)patented
Q3) Recombinant strains of _____ are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects.
A)Pseudomonas syringae
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Pseudomonas fluorescens
D)Escherichia coli
E)Thermus aquaticus
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by
A)blocking its synthesis.
B)digesting it.
C)denaturing proteins.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to ______.
A)desiccation
B)ultraviolet light
C)ethyl alcohol
D)hydrogen peroxide
E)gamma rays and X rays
Q3) Surgeons preparing for an invasive surgical procedure will scrub their hands thoroughly, and then they use a strong alcohol-based hand sanitizer which renders their hands sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface seeded with the test bacterium, and small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.
A)streptomycins
B)cephalosporins
C)macrolides
D)tetracyclines
E)penicillins
Q3) Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes, except ______.
A)streptomycin
B)gentamycin
C)polymyxins
D)tetracycline
E)erythromycin
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces?
A)Lactobacillus
B)Streptococcus
C)Haemophilus
D)Escherichia
E)Mycobacterium
Q2) The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is the ______.
A)prodromal stage
B)convalescent stage
C)incubation period
D)period of invasion
Q3) Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?
A)Fomites
B)Water
C)Droplet nuclei
D)Aerosols
E)Droplets
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematopoiesis is the
A)production of only red blood cells.
B)loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
C)migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
D)production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
E)plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
Q2) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear with identifying, characteristic colors in a stained blood smear.
A)agranulocytes
B)granulocytes
C)monocytes
D)leukocytes
Q3) All of the following comprise the second line of defense except ______.
A)phagocytosis
B)fever
C)inflammation
D)antibody production
E)complement proteins
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryonic yolk sac, the liver, and the bone marrow are sites where A)T lymphocytes complete maturation.
B)immune responses to antigen occur.
C)stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
D)antigen is filtered from the blood.
E)antigen is filtered from tissue fluid.
Q2) Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells.B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from neutrophils in that they synthesize ______ .
A)CD8 receptors
B)MHC-II receptors
C)MHC-I receptors
D)interleukin-2
E)CD4 receptors
Q3) Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ______.
A)allergens
B)autoantigens
C)superantigens
D)heterophilic antigens
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except A)multiple sclerosis.
B)tuberculin reaction.
C)rheumatoid arthritis.
D)myasthenia gravis.
E)Graves'disease.
Q2) Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases?
A.Sequestered antigens
B.Forbidden clones
C.Molecular mimicry
D.The gut microbiome
E.All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations.
Q4) Autoimmune diseases and immunodeficiencies are studied and treated by immunopathologists.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that the patient
A)has active tuberculosis.
B)is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis.
C)is immune to tuberculosis.
D)has been exposed to tuberculosis.
Q2) A direct immunofluorescence test involves a(n)
A)agglutination reaction.
B)lysis reaction.
C)known antibody binding to an unknown antigen.
D)precipitation reaction.
Q3) Which of these tests is an in vivo test?
A)Tuberculin test
B)Western Blot
C)Agglutination test
D)PCR
Q4) The primary advantage of genotypic analysis for identification is that
A)it is less expensive than other methods.
B)culturing of the organism is not required.
C)it is easier than any other method.
D)it is widely available.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes.Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by
A)the common surface antigens of these two organisms.
B)the ability of S.aureus to kill S.pyogenes.
C)the fastidious nature of both organisms.
D)their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C.
Q2) Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
A)Tears
B)Conjunctiva
C)Eyelashes
D)Eyelids
E)Lymphocytes
Q3) Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A)Listeria monocytogenes
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Streptococcus agalactiae
E)Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) Infectious diseases of the nervous system include those that affect the meninges only (meningitis), those that affect both the meninges and the brain (meningoencephalitis), and those that affect the brain only (encephalitis).From the list below, identify the disease and its classification that is mismatched.
A)African sleeping sickness; encephalitis
B)La Crosse Virus infection; encephalitis
C)Naegleria fowleri infection; meningoencephalitis
D)polio; meningitis
E)Valley Fever; meningitis
Q3) Botox injections contain botulinum toxin.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which drug interferes with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A)Fusion inhibitor
B)Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C)Integrase inhibitor
D)Protease inhibitor
Q3) Which of these diseases would most likely be identified by viewing a stained blood smear in a light microscope?
A)Chagas disease
B) Dengue fever
C) HIV
D)Ebola hemorrhagic fever
Q4) In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic fever is caused by a(n) _____ infection.
A)primary streptococcal
B)primary viral
C) opportunistic streptococcal
D) endogenous
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A)Alveoli
B)Bronchi
C)Bronchioles
D)Trachea
E)Sinuses
Q3) Virulence factors of S.pyogenes include
A)polysaccharides on the cell wall.
B)lipoteichoic acid.
C)spiky M proteins.
D)hyaluronic acid capsule.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mumps causes permanent sterility in young male adults.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enterobius vermicularis is
A)a whipworm.
B)common only to the tropics and subtropics.
C) an intestinal helminth that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.
D)often fatal in heavy infestations.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Both Taenia and Trichinella can be found as cysts embedded in pork muscle.Which of the following statements about these organisms is incorrect?
A)Both organisms release eggs in the feces to propagate the helminth.
B)Both helminths can exit the digestive system and migrate to other tissues.
C)For both organisms, cyst envelopes are digested in the stomach, releasing the larvae to the intestine.
D)Only Taenia can be transmitted from one human to another.
Q4) There are vaccines for immunity to the Hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?
A)Vaginal pH is neutral.
B)Secretory IgA provides protection.
C)Candida albicans is present in small amounts.
D)Lactobacilli convert sugars to acid.
E)Estrogen causes glycogen release.
Q2) During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Latent
Q3) The rash of secondary syphilis
A)causes severe itching.
B)can last for months.
C)only lasts a few days.
D)does not impair function.
E)is intensely painful.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of nitrogen fixation to the host plant is
A)the ability to synthesize amino acids and proteins from the ammonia produced.
B) the production of nucleotides required for nucleic acid synthesis.
C) the production of antibiotics that protect the plant against pathogenic soil bacteria.
D) the ability to use nitrogen gas instead of oxygen gas in cellular respiration, particularly when the soil is compacted.
Q2) Methane is a significant part of the carbon cycle in ______ environments dominated by methanogens.
A)autotrophic
B)anaerobic
C)thermophilic
D)oligotrophic
Q3) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phytoplankton is composed of protozoa and small invertebrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Media used for coliform enumeration include chemicals that change color depending on the enzymes present in the microbes, thereby allowing a count of total bacteria and total coliforms from a single plate.This type of medium is termed ______.
A)defined
B)selective
C)complex
D)differential
Q2) Which organism is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut?
A)Propionibacterium
B)Spirulina
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D)Streptococcus lactis
E)Leuconostoc mesenteroides
Q3) What is the best definition of biotransformation?
A)Oxidation of sugar to carbon dioxide
B)Use of microorganisms to modify substances not normally used for growth
C)Production of alcohol from a substrate
D)Production of a toxin from a nontoxic chemical
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