Microbiology for Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces nursing students to fundamental concepts in microbiology, emphasizing the relationship between microorganisms and human health. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, with a focus on pathogens relevant to nursing practice. The course covers aseptic techniques, infection control measures, disease transmission, and the bodys immune response. Practical applications in clinical settings, antimicrobial therapies, and the role of nurses in preventing and managing infections are also discussed, preparing students to apply microbiological principles in patient care and public health contexts.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology The Human Experience Preliminary Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an explanation for the centuries it took between Leeuwenhoek observing microorganisms with his microscope and the discovery that microbes are capable of causing disease?
A) Microbes are found everywhere.
B) Bacteria appeared similar to sperm and blood cells under the microscope.
C) Microorganisms are capable of existing through spontaneous generation.
D) Diseases were not a problem in the world until long after the discovery of microorganisms.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered a benefit of microorganisms?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) production of fermented foods
C) synthesis of vitamins
D) causative agents of disease
Answer: D
Q3) The involvement of bacteria in ________ explains why their presence is essential to the continued existence of plants and animals.
Answer: geochemical cycling
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) Why do some public health departments widely spray insecticides in the spring and summer?
Answer: Because mosquitoes and other insects often serve as pathogen vectors and reservoirs,limiting insect populations can decrease human disease incidence.
Q2) Giardia lamblia,a cause of diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms,is acquired from contaminated drinking water.It can be treated with several different antimicrobial drugs.Into what risk level does G.lamblia fall?
A) risk group I
B) risk group II
C) risk group III
D) risk group IV
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following can weaken the host immune response?
A) too little sleep
B) moderate exercise
C) proper nutrition
D) avoiding alcohol and drugs
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the presence of a capsule clinically significant?
A) It protects the bacterial cell from lack of nutrients.
B) It protects the bacterial cell from engulfment by white blood cells.
C) It protects the bacterial cell from heat.
D) It protects the bacterial cell from the staining regents.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the difference between a simple and a differential stain? Give one example of a simple stain and one example of a differential stain.
Answer: A simple stain uses one dye and does not impart color to other tissue or the background.A differential stain,on the other hand,differentiates between objects by staining only particular types of cells or specific subcellular structures and often stains two cells differently.
An example of a simple stain is methylene blue or crystal violet. An example of a differential stain is the Gram stain or acid-fast stain.
Q3) Immersion oil is used with the ________ objective.
Answer: 0.001
10 ³
Q4) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) What is osmosis and why is it important for cells to maintain osmotic balance?
Q2) Which of the following is true of glucose?
A) It is a component of DNA and RNA.
B) It can form a ring structure.
C) It contains numerous amino groups.
D) It is a five-carbon sugar.
Q3) Which of the following is true of both lipids and sugars?
A) They both store energy.
B) They are both hydrophobic.
C) They are both hydrophilic.
D) They both contain nitrogen.
Q4) A molecule of ATP undergoes hydrolysis yielding AMP and two molecules of phosphate.Which of the following is true of this reaction?
A) The entropy has decreased.
B) The change in free energy,DG,is positive.
C) The change in free energy,DG,is negative.
D) The reaction is endergonic.
Q5) What are some structural differences between cellular DNA and RNA?
Q6) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) The cell wall is part of the
A) cell membrane.
B) cytoplasm.
C) cell envelope.
D) proteome.
Q2) What is the cellular target of penicillin (the first antibiotic discovered)?
A) the DNA genome
B) the cell wall
C) ribosomes
D) ABC transporters
Q3) The region within the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria is known as the ________.
Q4) Which organelle arose via endosymbiosis?
A) chloroplast
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosome
D) nucleus
Q5) Explain how bacterial cells can divide so rapidly,some in as little as ten minutes between generations.
Page 7
Q6) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) What classification is also given to barophilic organisms that grow at the ocean floor?
A) mesophilic
B) psychrophilic
C) halophilic
D) acidophilic
Q2) Which of the following could describe the relationship between the cyanobacterium Nostoc and E.coli related to the carbon cycle?
A) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from lithotrophy,and E.coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
B) Nostoc produces carbohydrates from phototrophy,and E.coli breaks down the carbohydrates to generate CO .
C) Nostoc produces CO that E.coli turns into carbohydrates.
D) E.coli produces carbohydrates that Nostoc uses as energy to produce more carbohydrates.
Q3) List the three factors that complicate measuring bacterial growth in a human host.Describe how each one makes measuring bacterial growth difficult.
Q4) How is it possible for a strict anaerobic bacteria to cause a disease in humans?
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is true of nitrogen fixation?
A) It requires ATP but not reducing agents.
B) It requires reducing agents but not ATP.
C) It is an important reaction carried out by organisms in all three domains of life.
D) Only prokaryotes have the metabolic capability to fix nitrogen.
Q2) At the end of the TCA cycle most of the energy originally present in glucose is now found in
A) CO .
B) NADH.
C) NADPH.
D) ATP.
Q3) The hydrolysis of a protein into amino acids is an example of A) anabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) lithotrophy.
D) nitrogen fixation.
Q4) If Fe³ is the final electron acceptor at the end of an electron transport system,the waste product is ________.
Q5) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is true of plasmids?
A) They can be the entire genome.
B) They are common in eukaryotic cells.
C) They are usually linear.
D) They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
Q2) An antibiotic that inhibits peptidyl transferase activity likely binds to
A) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
B) mRNA.
C) a 30S ribosome subunit.
D) a 50S ribosome subunit.
Q3) In a typical two-component signal transduction system
A) the sensor kinase senses the environment and the response regulator directly alters transcription.
B) both the sensor kinase and the response regulator sense the environment.
C) both the sensor kinase and the response regulator directly alter transcription.
D) the sensor kinase directly alters transcription and the response regulator senses the environment.
Q4) An enzyme that cuts the DNA phosphodiester backbone at a particular DNA sequence is called a ________.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) The marine organism Chromohalobacter salexigens contains two homologous genes responsible for the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA.A third gene contains a similar sequence and appears to have evolved from the other two genes to complete a different function.This is an example of ________ genes.
A) paralog
B) ortholog
C) degenerate
D) nonfunctional
Q2) Which is NOT an agreed-upon characteristic for microorganism species determination?
A) conjugation similarity
B) phylogeny
C) DNA relatedness
D) ecology
Q3) Which of the following forms of horizontal gene transfer involves a prophage?
A) generalized transduction
B) specialized transduction
C) F factor conjugation
D) competence-mediated transformation
Q4) The enzyme ________ is important for generalized recombination.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately describes Actinobacteria?
A) Most have an acid-fast property associated with unusual cell wall lipids that also protect them from host defenses and antibiotics.
B) All Actinobacteria are considered to be pathogens in humans or other animals.
C) Most Actinobacteria are nonpathogenic in humans,but cause serious diseases in other animals.
D) Many Actinobacteria produce endospores that allow them to survive for thousands of years.
Q2) Spirochete cells are unique because they possess
A) periplasmic flagella.
B) multiple nuclei.
C) a thick outer sheath of lipopolysaccharides.
D) two distinctive life stages.
Q3) Which of the following causative agents and diseases are correctly paired?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi;Lyme disease
B) Treponema pallidum;yaws
C) Treponema pallidum pertenue;relapsing fever
D) Borrelia recurrentis;syphilis
Q4) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) You are looking at a group of unicellular organisms under a microscope and are asked to determine whether the organisms are fungi or algae.Name one visible feature that would allow you to make this determination and explain the significance of that feature in the lifestyle of the organism.
Q2) The major group of alveolates that possesses two whiplike flagella and includes species that cause "red tide" is known as ________.
Q3) Which of the following would be most likely to stop transmission of Plasmodium falciparum and P.vivax to humans?
A) ensure access to clean drinking water
B) provide mosquito netting for beds
C) check for ticks after walking in wooded areas
D) eliminate bedbugs from sleeping quarters
Q4) Cyanobacteria engulfed by an ancient proto-alga lead to the development of ________ in both algae and plants.
A) mitochondria
B) a nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) chloroplasts
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) Differentiate between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.Explain how one can lead to a global pandemic.
Q2) Which of the following features of HIV is a big reason as to why thus far it cannot be cured?
A) It is a retrovirus.
B) It contains a viral envelope.
C) It contains integrase.
D) It contains a protease.
Q3) Why is gelatin needed to culture animal viruses in tissue culture?
A) Animal viruses use gelatin as an energy source.
B) Cells in tissue culture require gelatin to grow.
C) Gelatin slows the dispersal of viruses from infected cells,allowing for plaques to form.
D) Gelatin is used to stain viral plaques.
Q4) Where are HPV virions assembled?
A) in the nucleus
B) in the cytoplasm
C) in the ribosome
D) outside the cell
Q5) Lentiviruses like HIV can be used positively for ________.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) The cotreatment of septic Enterococcus infections with vancomycin and an aminoglycoside is an example of antibiotic
A) synergism.
B) antagonism.
C) sensitivity.
D) resistance.
Q2) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q3) What would inhibition of viral envelope acidification do to an influenza infection?
A) It would inhibit it.
B) It would enhance it.
C) It would have no effect.
D) It would speed it up.
Q4) How do DNA analogs act to inhibit replication of an RNA virus?
A) DNA analogs do not inhibit RNA viruses.
B) by inhibiting RNA polymerase
C) by inhibiting DNA polymerase
D) by preventing protein synthesis
Q5) Wescodyne and betadine are examples of ________ complexed with organic carriers.
Q6) ________ is a category of antifungal agents that inhibits DNA synthesis.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Which microbial reservoir has the largest anaerobe to aerobe ratio?
A) intestine
B) genitourinary tract
C) mouth
D) skin
Q2) Which of the following is an optimal pH for the growth of Helicobacter pylori,a common inhabitant of the human stomach?
A) pH 1
B) pH 3
C) pH 5
D) pH 7
Q3) ________ once colonized 80% of individuals in the United States and now only colonizes 10%.
A) Helicobacter pylori
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Salmonella typhimurium
D) Lactobacillus acidophilus
Q4) Give three reasons for why the microbiome should be considered an independent organ system.
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Q5) The presence of a core ________ is most important for a healthy microbiome.
Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) The complement cascade produces all of the following outcomes EXCEPT
A) creating pores in bacterial membranes.
B) increasing phagocytosis.
C) attracting white blood cells.
D) decreasing inflammation.
Q2) Once the inflammatory process is complete,neutrophils undergo A) phagocytosis.
B) oxidative burst.
C) apoptosis.
D) opsonization.
Q3) There are two general types of interferons,type I and type II.Describe how type I interferons work to prevent the host from infection.
Q4) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cells.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) the presence of cancer.
Q5) Peyer's patches are located within gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).Explain the function of Peyer's patches in regard to their function in the immune system.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) A two-month-old baby is found to lack class I MHC molecules.How would this defect impact an adaptive immune response?
Q2) Which two antibody classes are displayed on the surface of naïve B cells?
A) IgG and IgD
B) IgE and IgD
C) IgE and IgM
D) IgM and IgD
Q3) Cells that become activated when they bind to intracellular antigen bound to class I MHC on antigen-presenting cells are known as ________ cells.
Q4) T-cell receptors (TCRs)are only able to bind
A) peptides.
B) lipids.
C) polysaccharides.
D) DNA.
Q5) The immunoglobulin superfamily of proteins includes A) immunoglobulins only.
B) immunoglobulins,major histocompatibility complex,and B- and T-cell receptors.
C) major histocompatibility complex and B- and T-cell receptors only.
D) IgA,IgG,IgM,IgE,and IgD only.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) cytokines.
Q2) Patients with ________ have normal or elevated serum IgM levels but low levels of other antibodies.
Q3) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) antigen
B) substrate for the enzyme
C) antibodies against the antigen
D) antihuman immune serum
Q4) All of the following are examples of antibody-mediated hypersensitivities EXCEPT ________ hypersensitivity.
A) IgE-mediated
B) antibody-mediated cytotoxic
C) immune complex-mediated
D) cell-mediated
Q5) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
19
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Toxins made and secreted by bacterial cells are called ________ while toxins contained within the bacterial cell wall are called ________.
Q2) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
Q3) All of the following are methods of microbial attachment EXCEPT
A) capsids.
B) pili.
C) fimbriae.
D) type IV secretion systems.
Q4) Shiga toxin polypeptide B binds to surface gangliosides on target cells.If the gangliosides were removed
A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B) polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C) polypeptide B would not be able to bind.
D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.
Q5) Which of the following is true regarding the herpes virus?
A) It is the etiological agent of cervical warts.
B) The virus cannot enter into a latent state in neural ganglia.
C) Latent herpes virus DNA produces microRNAs that interfere with apoptosis.
D) Herpes viruses are double-stranded RNA viruses.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) All of the following are methods used to treat C.perfringens infection EXCEPT
A) amputation.
B) a hyperbaric chamber.
C) antibiotic therapy alone.
D) debridement.
Q2) All of the following are used to treat chickenpox EXCEPT
A) aspirin.
B) calamine lotion.
C) antihistamines.
D) oatmeal baths.
Q3) Which of the following are INCORRECTLY matched?
A) varicella zosters-chicken pox
B) HHV6-roseola
C) poxvirus-fever blisters
D) parvovirus-fifth disease
Q4) All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT
A) Gram-positive cell wall.
B) resistance to many types of antibiotics.
C) production of pyocyanin.
D) exotoxin production.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Stephanie,a one-year-old girl,frequently develops painful cases of acute otitis media within days of developing viral upper respiratory infections.Explain why viral infections of the upper respiratory tract may lead to acute otitis media.
Q2) Coccidioidomycosis is endemic in the ________ United States.
Q3) The lowest structure in the respiratory tract,used to produce sounds,is called the ________.
Q4) The most prevalent form of cryptococcosis is found in A) young children.
B) AIDS patients.
C) the elderly.
D) adolescents.
Q5) A secondary bacterial infection is most likely in a patient who A) smokes cigarettes.
B) breathes humidified air.
C) breathes dry air.
D) has thin mucus secretions.
Q6) The two bacterial diseases of the respiratory system that are prevented by the DTaP vaccine are ________.
Q7) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) When traveling to tropical and subtropical areas where Aedes aegypti mosquitoes are endemic,U.S.citizens could receive a vaccine to prevent ________.
Q2) Drugs used to treat the major systemic bacterial diseases fall into the category of
Q3) What role does stomach acidity play in a toxoplasmosis infection?
A) It converts bradyzoites into cyst forms for release from the body.
B) It causes the release of spores within the definitive host.
C) It allows the release of spores within the intermediate host.
D) It allows gametes to form from spores within the intermediate host.
Q4) What causes symptoms of malaria to occur every 48-72 hours?
A) The life span of sporozoites is approximately 48-72 hours.
B) The liver releases merozoites every 48-72 hours.
C) Sporozoites are converted into merozoites during a 48-72-hour cycle.
D) Release of merozoites and red cell debris is synchronized.
Q5) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
Q6) Drinking water contaminated with the free-living infectious form of a helminth may lead to complications such as dermatitis,cellulitis,or lymphangitis in the disease
Q7) The large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense of the oral cavity?
A) acidic conditions
B) lysozyme
C) IgA
D) digestive mucus
Q2) Which of the following organisms is NOT transmitted by direct fecal-oral contact?
A) Entamoeba
B) Giardia
C) Cyclospora
D) Cryptosporidium
Q3) Jim and his family were on vacation in sunny Florida.One evening after spending the day at the beach,Jim noticed a painful wound that he was not aware he had.After 24 hours without treatment,Jim was pronounced dead.What organism infected Jim?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Vibrio vulnificus
Q4) The part of a tooth protruding outward from the gum is called the ________.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) All of the following are risk behaviors that lead to the acquisition of an STI EXCEPT A) abstinence.
B) unprotected sex.
C) multiple sex partners.
D) drug abuse.
Q2) Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT A) birth control pills.
B) biofilm formation.
C) improper clearance after antibiotic treatment.
D) reintroduction of the organism.
Q3) Which of the following is true about urine production?
A) The wall of the ureters is made of skeletal muscle that is voluntary.
B) Filtrate is collected in the bladder.
C) The urinary bladder is made up of squamous epithelial cells.
D) Extra water is removed and returned to the vascular system in the collecting duct.
Q4) Nearly 70% of patients seen in STI clinics are men.Offer a reason why men are more likely to seek treatment than women.Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs?
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) It is caused by lyssavirus.
B) Rabies virus is a neurotropic virus.
C) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.
D) There are three basic forms: encephalitic,paralytic,and atypical.
Q2) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Q3) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
A) no medications exist for treatment of these infections.
B) antibiotics damage nervous tissue.
C) many antibiotics cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
D) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.
Q4) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
A) meningitis;bee stings
B) meningitis;mosquitoes
C) encephalitis;dog bites
D) encephalitis;mosquitoes
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q6) Inflammation of the meninges is called ________,while inflammation of the brain is called ________.
Q7) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Explain why polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is required to detect nucleic acids in many clinical samples.
Q2) A lab technician intern is asked to apply a 10% KOH (potassium hydroxide)solution on a sample.There are four patient samples sitting on the lab bench and he is trying to remember which sample should be treated.Which of the following four samples would require treatment with KOH?
A) a skin scraping from a site suspected to be a fungal infection
B) a nasopharyngeal swab suspected of containing Bordetella pertussis
C) a sputum sample from a patient with tuberculosis
D) a fecal sample from an individual with bloody diarrhea
Q3) Of the molecular techniques listed below,which would be most useful in identifying whether patients infected by Mycobacterium tuberculosis are part of the same outbreak?
A) real-time PCR
B) biochemical tests
C) multiplex PCR
D) restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Q4) A point-of-care (POC)assay that fails to identify 50% of individuals with a disease has low ________.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) In developed countries,healthy individuals are typically able to handle occasional infections with some disease agents,but immunocompromised individuals are affected by these agents.The agents that can cause disease in immunocompromised individuals but that are often repelled by healthy individuals are
A) parasites such as ascariasis.
B) viruses such as hantavirus.
C) bacteria such as Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) antibiotic-resistant bacteria such as MRSA.
Q2) Describe two ways in which technology has contributed to the emergence of pathogens and the spread of infectious diseases.
Q3) Mary,an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter,is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia.Three days after her admission,Mary's husband receives a call from the hospital.He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection.Which of the following statements is true?
A) The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia.
B) Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection.
C) Of all hospital patients,25-30% develop nosocomial infections.
D) Mary's nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
Q2) Bacteriocins are molecules that are produced by A) some bacteria and prevent pathogens from adhering to the gut lining. B) methanogens and cause flatulence in cows.
C) digestive microbes in termites and allow digestion of cellulose. D) viruses and increase the virulence of zoonotic diseases.
Q3) A new species of human gut bacteria is discovered.Scientists find that during the process of breaking down and utilizing undigested plant fibers,the bacteria also produces a vitamin that is absorbed by humans.The relationship described is an example of A) amensalism. B) parasitism.
C) commensalism. D) mutualism.
Q4) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
Q5) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
Q6) Organic molecules in lake water are consumed as food and combined with oxygen by ________.
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