Microbiology for Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing introduces students to the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to nursing practice. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Students will explore the principles of infection control, methods of sterilization and disinfection, and the bodys immune response to pathogens. Emphasis is placed on the transmission, prevention, and management of infectious diseases in healthcare settings, as well as the importance of aseptic techniques and evidence-based practices in patient care. This foundational knowledge equips nursing students to recognize and effectively respond to microbiological hazards, ensuring safe and effective patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2423
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse implements an extensive nutrition education plan for Breonna,beginning at the molecular level.Carbohydrates,lipids,proteins,and nucleic acids are the four main families of biological molecules referred to as ________.
A)macromolecules
B)monosaccharides
C)polysaccharides
D)micromolecules
Answer: A
Q2) Many microbes that inhabit the skin have the potential to cause disease.One such pathogen is Staphylococcus aureus.The genus name of this organism is most properly represented as ________.
A)aureus
B)Staphylococcus
C)staphylococcus
D)Aureus
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is essential for development of discrete,isolated colonies?
A)Broth medium
B)Differential medium
C)Selective medium
D)Solid medium
E)Assay medium
Answer: D
Q2) The three physical forms of laboratory media are ________.
A)solid,liquid,and gas
B)solid,semisolid,and liquid
C)streak plate,pour plate,and broth
D)aerobic,anaerobic,and micro aerobic
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment,the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ________.
A)endospore
B)cell wall
C)cell membrane
D)capsule
E)slime layer
Answer: B
Q2) If during the Gram stain procedure,the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied,gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) During the Gram stain,________ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.
A)gram-positive
B)gram-negative
C)both gram-positive and -negative
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The public health team informs the community that Acanthamoeba may be transmitted in which stage(s)of its life cycle?
A)Merozoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Encystment
D)Merozoite and encystment
E)Trophozoite and encystment
Q2) At the lakeside,public health officials post signs warning the public to avoid swimming in the lake. Acanthamoeba and other protozoa are able to enter a resting state when environmental conditions are unfavorable.This stage of the life cycle is called a(n)________.
A)trophozoite
B)endospore
C)cyst
D)spore
Q3) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient receives antibiotic therapy at the hospital,the RN would expect the patient's duration of symptoms to be ________.
A)increased
B)decreased
C)unchanged
D)indeterminate with the information provided
Q2) You are running an experiment in calf serum,which cannot be autoclaved because proteins essential to your protocol will be denatured. You decide to filter sterilize the serum since the 0.22 m filter is small enough to block any bacteria that may contaminate your tissue culture. The success of this procedure hinges on the fact that ________.
A)the presence of viruses in your serum is inconsequential to your experiment B)some of the bacteria will still be allowed to filter through C)viruses,as well as bacteria,will also be blocked by the 0.22 m pore size
D)the proteins in the serum are also blocked by the pore size
Q3) Viruses are not filterable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship,and one benefits but the other is not harmed,it is called ________.
A)symbiosis
B)satellitism
C)commensalism
D)mutualism
E)synergism
Q3) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except ________.
A)psychrophiles
B)anaerobes
C)facultative anaerobes
D)mesophiles
E)capnophiles
Q4) A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a bacterial cell,synthesis of an essential amino acid would take place continually unless the amino acid was abundant in the growth media,in which case ________.
A)the genes that code for the enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the amino acid would be repressed
B)the genes that code for the enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the amino acid would be induced
C)the enzymes that catalyze the reactions to hydrolyze the amino acid would be repressed
D)the enzymes that catalyze the reactions to hydrolyze the amino acid would be induced
Q2) Enzymes that hydrolyze a peptide bond are called ________.
A)phosphotransferases
B)oxidoreductases
C)peptidases
D)aminotransferases
E)ligases
Q3) ATP is composed of deoxyribose,adenine,and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is incorrect about purines?
A)Only found in DNA,not in RNA
B)Are nitrogenous bases
C)Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
D)Include adenine and guanine
E)Found within nucleotides
Q2) A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ________.
A)point mutation
B)silent mutation
C)back mutation
D)missense mutation
E)nonsense mutation
Q3) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.
A)ribosomal RNA
B)messenger RNA
C)transfer RNA
D)primer RNA
E)ribozymes
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One disadvantage to using ortho-phthalaldehyde vs.glutaraldehyde as an antimicrobial agent is ________.
A)increased cost
B)decreased efficacy
C)decreased safety
D)increased toxicity
Q2) In lab,inoculating loops are sterilized using ________.
A)moist heat
B)chemicals
C)incineration
D)filtration
E)ethylene oxide
Q3) Microbial death occurs when there is ________.
A)no movement
B)permanent loss of reproduction
C)a change in appearance
D)a decrease in size
E)All of these occur
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11
Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mebendazole is a drug used to treat ________ infections.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)helminthic
E)viral
Q2) The antifungal drug that can be injected to treat serious systemic fungal infections,like histoplasmosis,is ________.
A)nystatin
B)griseofulvin
C)amphotericin B
D)sulfa drugs
E)metronidazole
Q3) Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections?
A)Quinolones
B)Macrolide polyenes
C)Echinocandins
D)Synthetic azoles
E)Allylamines
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ________.
A)syndromes
B)malaises
C)inflammation
D)asymptomatic
E)secondary infections
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
B)Mixed infection - several agents established at infection site
C)Acute infection - rapid onset of severe,short-lived symptoms
D)Local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site
E)Toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
Q3) Opportunistic pathogens
A)cause disease in every individual.
B)cause disease in compromised individuals.
C)are always pathogens.
D)have well-developed virulence factors.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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93 Verified Questions
93 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves ________.
A)initiation of the cascade
B)production of inflammatory cytokines
C)a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
D)cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b
E)C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane
Q2) Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ________.
A)lymph nodes
B)thymus
C)spleen
D)GALT
E)tonsils
Q4) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents are concerned when they hear that vaccines consist of whole microbes,even if they have been inactivated.They state that they do not want whole bacteria being put into their son.What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A)The bacteria is inactive,so there's no risk of it harming your son.
B)The chances of the bacteria infecting your son are very slim.
C)Currently available vaccines have do not contain whole bacteria.
D)Vaccines are refrigerated and the cold inhibits mutations.
Q2) Plasma cells ________.
A)secrete antibodies
B)function in allergic reactions
C)directly destroy target cells
D)suppress immune reactions
E)activate B cells and other T cells
Q3) Lymphocyte maturation involves ________.
A)hormonal signals that initiate development
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites
C)T cells maturing in the thymus
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs
E)All of the choices are correct.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial encounter with an allergen is called the ________.
A)sensitizing dose
B)provocative dose
C)allergic dose
D)hypersensitivity dose
E)desensitizing dose
Q2) Allergies run in families because ________.
A)immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus
B)immunoglobulins pass through breast milk
C)the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined
D)relative production of IgE is inherited
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is ________.
A)atopic dermatitis
B)eczema
C)allergic rhinitis
D)asthma
E)anaphylaxis
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Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because ________.
A)it is more sensitive than the ELISA
B)it has fewer false positives than the ELISA
C)it tests for more HIV antibodies than ELISA
D)it is easier to interpret than ELISA
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification?
A)Morphology
B)Gram stain reaction
C)Acid-fast reaction
D)Antibody response
E)Endospores
Q3) The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is ________.
A)they are easier than any other method
B)they are less expensive than other methods
C)they are widely available
D)culturing of the organism is not required
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protective features of the skin include all but ________.
A)keratinized surface
B)resident biota
C)antimicrobial peptides
D)high pH
E)lysozyme
Q2) All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola)except ________.
A)it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B)humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C)secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
D)it involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E)dry cough,sore throat,fever,and conjunctivitis are symptoms
Q3) Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
A)meningitis
B)furuncles and carbuncles
C)impetigo
D)scalded skin syndrome
E)acne
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
A)Occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds
B)Caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen
C)Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release
D)Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms
E)Treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Q2) Polio virus initially multiplies in the ________.
A)liver
B)CNS
C)oropharynx and intestine
D)nasal mucosa
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is ________.
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)Escherichia coli K1
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Haemophilus influenzae
E)Neisseria meningitidis
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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90 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not associated with tularemia?
A)A zoonosis
B)Mammals are the chief reservoir
C)A gram-positive bacterium
D)Symptoms include fever,swollen lymph nodes,ulcerative lesions,conjunctivitis,and pneumonia
E)Sometimes called rabbit fever
Q2) The medical team suspects that the patient has septicemia.Boluses of isotonic fluid are given and vasoactive medications are ordered to increase her blood pressure.Which of the following are the most important next interventions?
A)Respiratory support,blood cultures,and antibiotics
B)Wound cleansing,antipyretics,and antibiotics
C)Maintenance intravenous fluids,blood cultures,and antibiotics
D)Respiratory support,wound cleansing,and antipyretics
Q3) Due to the efficiency of the lymphatic system and the inaccessibility to microbes,data from the Human Microbiome Project confirmed that the cardiovascular system lacks microbiota in the healthy state.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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78 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diphtherotoxin targets cells in the ________.
A)pharynx and lungs
B)lungs and heart
C)heart and brain
D)heart and nerves
E)lungs and nerves
Q2) What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
A)Nasal hairs
B)Cilia
C)Mucus
D)Macrophages
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
A)All species are human pathogens.
B)Cell walls have waxy lipids.
C)They are acid fast.
D)Usually have a slow growth rate.
E)They are long,slender rods.
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B infection ________.
A)has an incubation of 2 to 7 weeks
B)can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route
C)increases risk for hepatocellular cancer
D)is responsible for most cases of posttransfusion hepatitis
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics except ________.
A)are multicellular animals
B)have a definitive host where the adult form lives
C)do not exhibit drug resistance
D)include roundworms
E)include tapeworms
Q3) Giardiasis involves ________.
A)a protozoan that does not form cysts
B)infection by a bacteria
C)symptoms of abdominal pain,flatulence,and diarrhea
D)fimbriae for adherence
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2?
A)Interferon
B)Valacyclovir
C)Acyclovir
D)Famciclovir
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The physician in the clinic wrote a prescription for acyclovir when the student called him on the phone that morning.What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
A)Give the student the prescription for acyclovir
B)Give the student the prescription for acyclovir and instruct him to use it in the future
C)Call the physician,report the assessment findings,and suggest a prescription for penicillin G
D)Ask the physician to write a prescription for a broad-spectrum antibiotic
Q3) How would the diagnosis of syphilis be confirmed?
A)Dark-field microscopy
B)Blood antibody test
C)PCR
D)All of these tests can be used in diagnosis.
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment, humans,
and Other Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called
A)decomposition
B)synergism
C)mineralization
D)bioremediation
E)recycling
Q2) Use of a trickling filter that sprays wastewater over rocks coated with biofilms which aerobically degrade organic matter is an example of the ________.
A)primary phase of wastewater treatment
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
Q3) Which is the first step in water purification?
A)Chlorination
B)Aeration and settling
C)Sedimentation
D)Storage
E)Filtration
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