Microbiology for Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on clinically relevant microorganisms and their impact on human health. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, along with the mechanisms of pathogenicity and infection.
Emphasis is placed on infection control, immunity, antimicrobial agents, and the nurse's role in preventing and managing infectious diseases. Students will develop an understanding of laboratory diagnostics, standard precautions, and the importance of aseptic techniques in healthcare settings, preparing them to apply microbiological concepts to real-world nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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27 Chapters
1527 Verified Questions
1527 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics are chemotherapeutic drugs that function by inhibiting an important cellular structure or process of an organism that is causing an infection.Which of the following would not be affected by an antibiotic that targets cellular metabolic enzymes?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria
B) Herpes virus
C) ameba
D) bread mold
Answer: B
Q2) Explain how comparing the sequences of antibiotic-resistant and -sensitive Mycobacterium tuberculosis could be useful to treating tuberculosis.
Answer: The answer should discuss how this can lead to identification of the difference(s)that lead(s)to resistance and from there how to possibly target the antibiotic-resistant organism.For example: comparing the sequences of antibiotic-resistant and -sensitive Mycobacterium tuberculosis can allow one to note the differences between the two.Knowing what is missing or present in the antibiotic-resistant variety can allow researchers to understand how the resistant organisms are developing resistance.This is the first step toward developing a method to combat these resistant organisms.
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fever is often a host response to a pathogen.As such,fever is an example of
Answer: immunopathology
Q2) Known diseases that rapidly increase in incidence and/or geographic range are known as
A) emerging.
B) reemerging.
C) zoonotic.
D) etiologic agents.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following host factors can prevent disease by limiting exposure?
A) too little sleep
B) moderate exercise
C) working in the health care field
D) proper hygiene
Answer: D
Q4) List a few host factors that can influence the course of an infection by impacting immune status.
Answer: Host age,nutritional status,and the presence of other diseases (e.g. ,HIV)can all affect host immune status.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between a simple and a differential stain? Give one example of a simple stain and one example of a differential stain.
Answer: A simple stain uses one dye and does not impart color to other tissue or the background.A differential stain,on the other hand,differentiates between objects by staining only particular types of cells or specific subcellular structures and often stains two cells differently.
An example of a simple stain is methylene blue or crystal violet. An example of a differential stain is the Gram stain or acid-fast stain.
Q2) The purpose of the condenser is to
A) focus light rays onto the slide.
B) magnify the image from the objective lens.
C) decrease the refractive index.
D) improve resolution.
Answer: A
Q3) Magnification without increase in resolution is called ________.
Answer: empty magnification
Q4) In an acid-fast stain,carbolfuchsin specifically stains ________ of Mycobaterium tuberculosis.
Answer: mycolic acid
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecular formula of the amino acid glycine is C H NO .What is the molecular formula of a glycine pentapeptide?
Q2) Molecules with which kinds of bonds are hydrophobic?
A) hydrogen
B) ionic
C) nonpolar covalent
D) polar covalent
Q3) In a reaction where substrates A and B combine to form products C and D (A+B yields C+D),which of the following could drive the reaction to the right toward products?
A) decreasing the concentration of A
B) decreasing the concentration of B
C) increasing the concentration of C
D) decreasing the concentration of D
Q4) What does amphipathic mean?
Q5) Which of the following is a cellular function of lipids?
A) catalysis
B) information storage
C) compartmentalization
D) sugar production
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following shows the correct path a secreted protein takes in a eukaryotic cell?
A) Golgi complex, rough ER, vesicle, cell membrane
B) vesicle, rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane
C) rough ER, Golgi complex, vesicle, cell membrane
D) rough ER, Golgi complex, cell membrane, vesicle
Q2) Which organelle is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
A) mitochondrion
B) lysosome
C) peroxisome
D) Golgi complex
Q3) Describe the two types of energy cells used to move molecules across membranes against their concentration gradients.
Q4) The ability of bacterial cells to swim toward favorable environments and away from harmful environments is known as ________.
Q5) Would pili be more advantageous to bacteria in a rapidly changing or in an unchanging environment? Please explain your answer.
Q6) The region within the inner and outer membranes of Gram-negative bacteria is known as the ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Production of urease by Helicobacter pylori allows it to do which of the following?
A) sense when it has entered the intracellular environment of its host
B) survive in basic conditions
C) increase production of ion pumps
D) neutralize stomach pH to survive in acidic conditions
Q2) Which of the following cellular components could be found in high concentrations in a halophilic microorganism?
A) Na<sup>+</sup>/ K<sup>+</sup> ion pump
B) citric acid
C) cold-tolerant enzymes
D) asuperoxide dismutase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a problem with the viable count method of cell quantification?
A) underestimation of the number of living cells in the culture
B) takes too long if you want to immediately study cells at a particular growth phase
C) not accurate for organisms whose cells remain attached (for example, Streptococci growing in chains)
D) not useful for living cells
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What catabolite is produced first from the catabolism of starch and cellulose?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) amino acids
C) glucose
D) glycerol
Q2) Lithotrophs donate electrons from inorganic reduced molecules directly to an ETS to generate a proton motive force.Why might these lithotrophs still possess the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
Q3) Photosynthesis helps mitigate global warming by
A) adding O to the atmosphere.
B) removing O from the atmosphere.
C) removing CO from the atmosphere.
D) adding CO to the atmosphere.
Q4) Nitrate contamination of water can poison infants.One source of nitrate is
A) lithotrophs that use ammonia as an electron donor.
B) anaerobes that use nitrate as a terminal electron acceptor.
C) methanogens that oxidize H .
D) oxygenic photosynthesis.
Q5) The Embden-Myerhof-Parnas (EMP)pathway is also known as ________.
Q6) Biosynthetic reactions are also known as ________ reactions.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of plasmids?
A) They can be the entire genome.
B) They are common in eukaryotic cells.
C) They are usually linear.
D) They may contain antibiotic resistance genes.
Q2) Which of the following RNAs gets translated into protein?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) sRNA
Q3) Transcription of genes starts at regions of the genome called ________.
Q4) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q5) Which of the following is found in eukaryotic but not prokaryotic genomes?
A) promoters
B) operons
C) introns
D) genes
Q6) Proteins that assist the folding of newly formed proteins are known as ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of functional genomics?
A) predicting the function of genes in Haemophilus influenzae from the genomic sequence
B) transforming antibiotic resistance genes into MRSA
C) measuring the pathogenesis of Corynebacterium diphtheria
D) eliminating the presence of Wolbachia endosymbionts
Q2) The traits of the hidden microbiota of humans can be predicted by analyzing A) cellular structure.
B) DNA sequences.
C) microscopic appearance.
D) growth patterns.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT lead to divergence?
A) fossilization
B) mutations
C) transposition
D) transduction
Q4) Describe how horizontal gene transfer could lead to the emergence of a new bacterial pathogen.
Q5) The ________ gene was used as a molecular clock to reveal the divergence of three domains of life.
11
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a positive role that bacteria play in an ecosystem?
A) fixation of carbon dioxide into biomass
B) oxygen production
C) breakdown of pollutants
D) pathogenic relationship with humans
Q2) During infertility testing,a young woman is found to have pelvic inflammatory disease,or PID,from persistent inflammation of her fallopian tubes.Although she has never been treated for any sexually transmitted disease,her physician suspects she has an untreated bacterial infection,which is relatively common in the United States.Which bacteria is most likely causing her infection?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Borrelia recurrentis
D) Haemophilus influenza
Q3) Describe the two developmental stages of the Chlamydias.
Q4) The major group of bacteria that causes sexually transmitted infections and the eye disease trachoma and are obligate intracellular pathogens is ________.
Q5) Cyanobacteria are the only bacteria that produce ________.
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs during gamete formation but NOT during asexual reproduction?
A) replication of all chromosomes
B) paired chromosomes condensing into short rods
C) separation of pairs of homologs
D) formation of nuclear membranes around groups of chromosomes
Q2) What is the function of the apical complex on a merozoite form of Plasmodium falciparum?
A) The apical complex is used for aerobic cellular respiration.
B) The apical complex is used to allow a merozoite to enter a red blood cell.
C) The apical complex is used to allow asexual reproduction.
D) The apical complex is used to provide energy for flagella.
Q3) Filamentous amebas
A) form inorganic shells made of calcium carbonate.
B) contain large, bulky pseudopods.
C) move using cytoplasmic streaming.
D) utilize chloroplasts for photosynthesis.
Q4) Lung diseases caused by filamentous fungi such as Aspergillus fumigatus occur when ________ germinate and grow into fuzzy colonies within tissues.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics do HPV and HIV have in common?
A) They are both retroviruses.
B) They both have overlapping genes.
C) They are both DNA viruses.
D) The have the same tissue tropism.
Q2) A phage genome integrated into the DNA of the bacterial host cell is known as a ________.
Q3) Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
A) the coating of the capsid envelope
B) the assembly of the capsid
C) the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
D) the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
Q4) ________ ensures the presence and expression of host surface proteins capable of being bound to by viruses.
A) Transduction
B) Natural selection
C) Lysogeny
D) Lysis
Q5) Explain why the HIV virion structure contains a tRNA from the host.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protease inhibitors are a common antiviral drug targeting
A) HPV.
B) HIV.
C) hepatitis C.
D) influenza.
Q2) Explain why penicillin is toxic for susceptible bacteria that are actively growing but has no effect on dormant bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following organisms is NOT killed by a germicidal agent?
A) bacteria
B) virus
C) fungi
D) endospore
Q4) Which of the following terms can describe the death rate of microbial cells when exposed to an antibacterial agent?
A) linear
B) exponential
C) reverse logarithmic
D) polar
Q5) Penicillin targets peptidoglycan synthesis to inhibit ________.
Q6) Aminoglycosides inhibit translation by binding to the ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipopolysaccharides,flagellin,and double-stranded DNA are microbe-associated molecular patterns recognized by
A) tight junctions.
B) ribosomes.
C) tumor necrosis factors.
D) pattern recognition receptors.
Q2) A nonmotile Gram-negative organism has breached a tight junction barrier.How will this organism be detected and what will happen immediately inside the host to protect it from infection?
Q3) Probiotics have been used in baby chicks to prevent colonization by ________.
Q4) The blood-brain barrier is comprised of ________ between the endothelial cells of capillaries feeding the brain.
Q5) Which of the following pathologies can develop when the gut microbiome organ is deficient?
A) pneumonia
B) yeast infection
C) inflammatory bowel disease
D) ulcers
Q6) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?
A) The C3 protein is not involved in the classical pathway.
B) C1 is the first protein activated in the pathway.
C) Cleavage of complement proteins increases inflammation.
D) The classical pathway is activated by antibodies binding to bacterial cells.
Q2) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) activation of complement.
D) production of antibody.
Q3) All of the following occur during a fever.What is the first step?
A) Prostaglandins are produced.
B) Pyrogenic cytokines bind to receptors on the hypothalamus.
C) Body temperature is reset to where the body thinks it is cool.
D) Involuntary muscle contractions generate heat.
Q4) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
Q5) Draw and label the process of phagocytosis.Be sure to speak to the main steps in the pathway (adherence,ingestion,and phagolysome formation/destruction).What would happen if an organism was able to avoid phagocytosis?
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) One health risk associated with excessive cytokine release is the chance of A) severe tissue damage.
B) cytokines destroying antibodies.
C) damage to virally infected cells.
D) inactivating mitosis.
Q2) Bloodwork indicates that a patient who has pneumonia is actively secreting different forms of antibody against Streptococcus pneumoniae.Explain how the patient is able to respond to this pathogen by secreting more than one antibody.
Q3) Which two antibody classes are displayed on the surface of naïve B cells?
A) IgG and IgD
B) IgE and IgD
C) IgE and IgM
D) IgM and IgD
Q4) Which of the following would most directly eliminate an intracellular pathogen such as a virus?
A) production of antibody
B) activation of B cells
C) activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) activation of helper T cells
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graves' disease and Hashimoto's disease are different in the fact that Graves' disease
A) targets the thyroid.
B) involves autoantibodies.
C) causes hyperthyroidism.
D) causes hypothyroidism.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT use fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) western blot
C) immunofluorescence microscopy
D) flow cytometry
Q3) How does immune surveillance work inside the host?
A) Cancer cells are sought out but not destroyed.
B) The immune system is suppressed.
C) Immune cells are unable to recognize cancerous cells.
D) Cancer cells are marked with surface antigens not present on normal cells.
Q4) Draw and label the key mediators of a type 1 hypersensitivity.Be sure to indicate where medical intervention can take place.
Q5) Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cervical warts are caused by
A) HBV.
B) HPV.
C) HIV.
D) herpes.
Q2) Most pathogenicity island genes were acquired by ________ transmission.
Q3) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Q4) Antigenic drift occurs when
A) two viruses infect the same cell.
B) a new viral strain is produced.
C) random mutations occur in the neuraminidase spike.
D) random mutations occur in the hemagglutinin spike.
Q5) Which of the following is true regarding type II secretion systems?
A) The type II secretion genes are homologous to the type IV pilus.
B) Type II secretion mechanisms are static with no twitching motility.
C) Proteins secreted by type II secretion systems are secreted directly out of the cell.
D) Shiga toxin is a well-known example of a protein that a type II secretion mechanism expels.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) Why is vaccination for rubella recommended?
A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children.
B) Death from secondary infections is common.
C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections.
D) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.
Q2) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) acyclovir
D) fungicide
Q3) All of the following are methods used to treat C.perfringens infection EXCEPT A) amputation.
B) a hyperbaric chamber.
C) antibiotic therapy alone.
D) debridement.
Q4) All of the following are virulence factors associated with S.pyogenes EXCEPT A) lipopolysaccharide.
B) capsule.
C) M protein.
D) lipoteichoic acid.
21
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) The eyes are connected to the upper respiratory tract by the A) pharynx.
B) Eustachian tube. C) lacrimal ducts. D) sinuses.
Q2) Engaging in recreational or occupational activities that expose an individual to fungal spores in moist soils along the Mississippi or Ohio River valleys increases the risk of developing ________.
Q3) A young patient arrives in the emergency room with a fever,chills,cough,and chest pains.At this point would it be more likely for a physician to make a differential diagnosis or a definitive diagnosis? Explain your reasoning.
Q4) Streptococcal pharyngitis,or strep throat,may be caused by an exotoxin-producing strain of Streptococcus pyogenes that causes fever and a red rash known as ________.
Q5) Stephanie,a one-year-old girl,frequently develops painful cases of acute otitis media within days of developing viral upper respiratory infections.Explain why viral infections of the upper respiratory tract may lead to acute otitis media.
Q6) Moraxella catarrhalis may cause bacterial ________.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) How do rickettsioses,such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever,cause systemic symptoms?
A) Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular bacteria that infect endothelial cells throughout the body.
B) Rickettsia species are phagocytized by macrophages and travel throughout the blood within macrophages.
C) Rickettsia species infect lymphocytes and use the lymphatic system to move throughout the body.
D) Rickettsia species infect fibroblasts within connective tissues and use the reticuloendothelial system to move throughout the body.
Q2) Acute bacterial endocarditis is often caused by
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis.
Q3) The blood vessels returning oxygenated blood to the heart are the ________.
Q4) The definitive host in the life cycle of lymphatic filariasis is a ________.
Q5) Preventing leishmaniasis would require preventing bites from ________.
Q6) Inflammation of the sac covering the heart is defined as ________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following organisms might someday be prevented from causing infections by a vaccine?
A) E. coli
B) Shigella
C) Salmonella
D) Listeria
Q2) Explain why a gastrointestinal pathogen would want to cause diarrhea when it could easily result in its removal from the host.
Q3) The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is
A) E. coli.
B) Shigella.
C) Campylobacter.
D) Salmonella.
Q4) Adult infection with ________ can sometimes lead to meningitis.
A) rotavirus
B) mumps virus
C) hepatitis A
D) hepatitis D
Q5) The gastrointestinal tract is a long tube extending from ________to________.
Q6) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) The vaginal pH is maintained by the species Lactobacillus,which produces
Q2) Why are UTIs considered serious and why should they be treated promptly?
A) They are uncomfortable and are treated to control pain.
B) If left untreated, the infection can travel up into the kidneys, causing a more serious infection.
C) They are caused by notifiable pathogens and should be reported to the health department.
D) They should be treated promptly to prevent them from becoming recurring infections.
Q3) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
A) genital herpes
B) gonorrhea
C) candidiasis
D) chancroid
Q4) All of the following are true about a chlamydial infection EXCEPT that
A) it is caused by a Gram-negative intracellular pathogen.
B) it is not very common in the United States.
C) women are usually asymptomatic.
D) the organism is able to "hitchhike" on sperm.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q2) Which of the following is a fungus that causes CNS disease?
A) C. albicans
B) T. gondii
C) T. brucei
D) C. tetani
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) poliomyelitis - respiratory route
B) meningococcal meningitis - respiratory route
C) rabies - direct contact
D) listeriosis - ingestion
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q5) A physician diagnoses a patient with Eastern equine encephalitis.All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT that he or she
A) most likely caught the virus from a bite from an infected mosquito.
B) was diagnosed by detecting an increase in antibody titer to the virus.
C) is infected with a neurotropic virus.
D) is infected with a rare disease.
Q6) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Identifying infectious agents is important because
A) it costs less money to run numerous tests than to treat with antibiotics empirically.
B) antibiotic-resistant bacteria are becoming a major global threat. C) pathogens must be identified before antibiotics are effective.
D) antibiotics are only effective against viruses.
Q2) Explain why polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is required to detect nucleic acids in many clinical samples.
Q3) A young child with meningitis is given an antibiotic prior to the identification of the causative pathogen.What is the appropriate term for this approach,and when would this approach most likely be used?
Q4) Applying fluorescently tagged antibody stain to pleural fluid from a patient with Legionnaires' disease and viewing the stained tissue using a fluorescence microscope is an example of ________ microscopy.
Q5) Biochemical tests would most likely be used to diagnose A) whooping cough.
B) strep throat.
C) HIV.
D) Lyme disease.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) What type of disease is reported by syndromic surveillance,and how does this type of surveillance fit into tracking global outbreaks of disease?
Q2) One potential bioweapon is a virus that has been eradicated from natural populations;only two WHO-sanctioned laboratories still maintain vials of this virus.This virus is ____.
Q3) An infectious agent with a high mortality rate that is highly contagious and lacks a vaccine and effective treatment is known as a ______.
Q4) A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose.He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if A) infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical.
B) the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical.
C) all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were cared for by this nurse.
D) all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of heart problems.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46039
Sample Questions
Q1) Dehydrating foods and freezing foods both work well to preserve foods because they
A) make water unavailable to microbes.
B) both involve low temperatures.
C) kill microbes.
D) remove nutrients used by microbes.
Q2) Historically,there has been concern about the ingestion of nitrite used as a food preservative.Why does nitrite work well as a food preservative?
A) Nitrites are used to inhibit aerobic respiration of bacteria.
B) Nitrites increase carbon dioxide levels.
C) Nitrites have antimicrobial properties.
D) Nitrites cross cell membranes and release protons intracellularly.
Q3) Your sister leaves the milk out on the counter after breakfast one day.Eight hours later she realizes her mistake and puts the milk back in the refrigerator.The next morning she pours herself a glass of milk,takes a sip of the milk,and immediately spits it out.Was she responding to food spoilage or food contamination? Explain your reasoning.
Q4) List two ways in which food fermentation benefits humans and provide one example for each.
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