Microbiology for Nursing Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a foundational understanding of microbiology, focusing on the role of microorganisms in human health and disease. Topics include the biology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites; the mechanisms of infection, immunity, and disease transmission; and methods for controlling pathogens in healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on infection prevention, aseptic techniques, antimicrobial treatments, and the nurses critical role in preventing and managing infectious diseases among diverse patient populations.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was ________.
A)Joseph Lister
B)Ignaz Semmelweis
C)Robert Koch
D)Louis Pasteur
E)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: A
Q2) Viruses may also be transmitted to patients,even though they differ from bacteria in that they are ________.
A)parasitic invertebrate animals
B)infectious proteins
C)metabolically active eukaryotes
D)noncellular particles
Answer: D
Q3) The most important outcome of polypeptide intrachain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the protein.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newly inoculated cultures must be ________ at a specific temperature to encourage growth.
A)streaked
B)poured
C)incubated
D)contaminated
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The real image is the reverse of the actual specimen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The diameter of field for a 4x lens is measured at 4.6 mm. How many bacterial cells,each measuring 4 m,could be lined up along the diameter?
A)1,150 cells
B)1.15 cells
C)18.4 cells
D)115 cells
E)1840 cells
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The laboratory report shows that a motility test was performed on the sample with positive results. Thinking about bacterial movement,the RN is aware that this bacterium could possess which structure(s)for motility?
A)Endospores
B)Pili
C)One or more flagella
D)Pseudopodia
Answer: C
Q2) The cell envelope of gram-positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The bacterial cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first primitive eukaryotic cells likely evolved from ________.
A)archaea
B)bacteria
C)prokaryotes
D)the last common ancestor
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not classified as a helminth?
A)Tapeworm
B)Fluke
C)Flatworm
D)Roundworm
E)All of the choices are helminths.
Q3) Which type(s)of eukaryotic organisms can cause infections in humans?
A)Helminths
B)Fungi
C)Protozoans
D)Helminths,fungi,and protozoans
Q4) Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses have all the following except ________.
A)definite shape
B)metabolism
C)genes
D)the ability to infect host cells
E)ultramicroscopic size
Q2) A naked virus has only a(n)________.
A)capsid
B)capsomere
C)nucleocapsid
D)envelope
E)antigenic surface
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is a common respiratory virus that causes mild cold-like symptoms in most individuals,but can be more serious in infants and the elderly.RSV is so-named because ________.
A)it causes the fusion of damaged host cells,forming a large,multinucleated cell
B)it causes the proliferation of inclusion bodies within the host cell
C)it causes a persistent infection in the host
D)it transforms the host cell,causing cancer
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients,it is called
A)symbiosis
B)satellitism
C)antibiosis
D)mutualism
E)synergism
Q2) Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ________.
A)inorganic compounds
B)minerals
C)water
D)organic compounds
E)salts
Q3) Human pathogens fall into the group termed ________.
A)psychrophiles
B)thermophiles
C)halophiles
D)mesophiles
E)acidophiles
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the electron transport chain,the collective,captured energy released by electrons is used to phosphorylate ________.
A)ATP
B)ADP
C)pyruvic acid
D)oxygen
E)NAD
Q2) The organism sample is further tested and found to grow in the absence of oxygen.Which of three main pathways of catabolism may this organism utilize to produce energy under these circumstances?
A)Aerobic respiration and fermentation
B)Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration
C)Fermentation and anaerobic respiration
D)Aerobic respiration,anaerobic respiration,and fermentation
Q3) Glycolysis ________.
A)uses 2 ATPs,produces 2 ATPs,and requires oxygen
B)uses 2 ATPs,produces 4 ATPs,and requires oxygen
C)uses 2 ATPs,produces 4 ATPs,without using oxygen
D)uses 2 ATPs,produces 2 ATPs,without using oxygen
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the case of somatic cell gene therapy,the corrected gene will be passed on through the gametes,preventing the manifestation of the disease from recurring in the patient's offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Full induction of the lactose operon requires ________.
A)lactose present
B)lactose and glucose present
C)lactose present without glucose
D)lactose and arabinose present
E)All of the choices induce the lactose operon
Q3) The ________ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
A)chromosome
B)plasmid
C)prophage
D)genome
E)proteome
Q4) Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analine dyes,like crystal violet,have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram-positive bacteria and some fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of aldehydes as antimicrobial agents is limited due to ________.
A)their instability when pH or temperature is increased
B)their explosive nature
C)they will disinfect,but not sterilize
D)they are ineffective in the presence of organic matter
Q3) Ethylene oxide is ________.
A)sporicidal
B)only effective with high heat
C)the active agent in household bleach
D)used as an antiseptic against anaerobes
E)a halogen
Q4) Bacteristatic agents kill bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with very few side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drug susceptibility testing determines ________.
A)the patient's response to various antimicrobials
B)the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials
C)if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobials
D)if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) An antibiotic of the penicillin family is amoxicillin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clavulanic acid ________.
A)inhibits B-lactamase activity
B)inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
C)inhibits formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages
D)inhibits cell membrane synthesis
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Robert Koch is credited with proving the germ theory of disease; that infectious diseases are caused by specific microorganisms. In developing a series of proofs (Koch's Postulates),he was able to determine the causative organism of anthrax was the bacteria Bacillus anthracis. Which of the following statements does not contribute to Koch's Postulates and the germ theory of disease?
A)The causative organism must be evidenced in each subject presenting with the disease manifestations.
B)Inoculating a healthy subject with the isolated organism must result in the reported disease manifestations.
C)The organism must be isolated,purified and characterized from an infected individual.
D)Each organism from a polymicrobial infection must be isolated and inoculated into a single host.
E)The same species of organism must be isolated from the second inoculated individual.
Q2) Leukopenia is the ________ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
A)elevation
B)stabilization
C)decrease
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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93 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell,in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins?
A)Complement
B)Albumin
C)Interferon
D)Histamine
Q2) Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T lymphocytes?
A)Lymph nodes
B)Thymus
C)Spleen
D)GALT
E)Tonsils
Q3) Each of the following are granulocytes except ________.
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)lymphocytes
D)basophils
E)All of the choices are granulocytes.
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a(n)________.
A)epitope
B)hapten
C)antigen binding site
D)variable region
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Knowing that the causative organism for this patient's urinary tract infection,E.coli,has a lipopolysaccharide cell wall,which cells are being activated by this infection?
A)T helper cells
B)T cytotoxic cells
C)Natural killer cells
D)B cells
Q3) After his recovery from chickenpox,which lymphocytes will keep this patient from becoming infected again?
A)T helper cells
B)Natural killer cells
C)T memory cells
D)B cells
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when ________.
A)maternal Rh cells enter an Rh fetus
B)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
C)maternal Rh cells enter an Rh fetus
D)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
E)fetal Rh cells enter an Rh mother
Q2) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a(n)________.
A)isograft
B)autograft
C)allograft
D)xenograft
E)hypograft
Q3) What type of hypersensitivity reaction is an organ transplantation patient at risk for?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine and fecal specimens require ________.
A)sterile collection conditions
B)incubation in differential media
C)incubation in selective media
D)both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media
E)both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media
Q2) The benefit of "lab on a chip" technology over standard microarrays is that ________.
A)lab on a chip technology has miniaturized testing to carry out analyses using minute amounts of reagents,whereas microarrays still require larger volumes of reagents in comparison
B)lab on a chip technology requires little technical training compared to analyses using microarrays
C)lab on a chip technology is invaluable for developing countries,where the reagents,refrigeration and trained personnel required for microarrays are limited
D)All of the choices are benefits of "lab on a chip" technology.
Q3) The Weil-Felix test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ________.
A)croup
B)mumps
C)influenza
D)measles (rubeola)
E)rubella
Q2) The smallpox vaccine uses the ________ virus.
A)smallpox
B)herpes simplex
C)vaccinia
D)herpes virus 6
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Transmission of the pathogen of Leishmaniasis is by the ________.
A)reduviid "kissing" bug
B)tsetse fly
C)anopheles mosquito
D)sand fly
E)hard-bodied tick
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
A)fimbriae
B)neurotoxin
C)enterotoxin
D)capsule
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Following vaccination,no cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What components of the patient's history are most important for the nurse to collect during the initial triage assessment?
A)Past medical history,mosquito exposure,allergies,medications
B)Medications,food allergies,religious preference
C)Birth history,childhood development,level of education
D)Mosquito exposure,use of DEET,level of water filtration
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?
A)Chloroquine
B)Vancomycin
C)Artemisinin
D)Acyclovir
Q2) Bacillus anthracis exhibits characteristics that make it a model organism to be exploited as an agent of bioterrorism. Those characteristics include ________.
A)the ability to form endospores,allowing it to be stored for long periods of time without nutrients or water
B)the ability to infect and cause disease in several body systems including the lungs,cardiovascular system and gastrointestinal tract
C)the ability to produce a tripartite toxin and polypeptide capsule as virulence factors
D)difficulty diagnosing and therefore treating because the manifestations mimic other,more common diseases
E)All of the choices reflect characteristics that make B.anthracis a candidate for bioterrorism.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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78 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus ________.
A)causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger
B)is highly contagious
C)is transmitted through droplet contact and fomite contamination
D)cannot be prevented by vaccination at this time
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except ________.
A)influenza
B)rhinitis
C)legionella
D)diphtheria
E)All of the choices involve respiratory secretions.
Q3) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antibiotic treatment for otitis media is standard procedure today.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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87 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped,single-stranded RNA enterovirus
B)Hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus
C)Hepatitis C virus - RNA virus
D)Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV
E)Hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus
Q2) The mucinous glycoprotein covering teeth that streptococci attach to is called the
A)enamel
B)pellicle
C)gingiva
D)lactoferrin
E)oral membrane
Q3) Mumps causes permanent sterility in young male adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most antihelminth medications act only against the worms,not the human host.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlamydia trachomatis causes ________.
A)nongonococcal urethritis in males
B)cervicitis in females
C)congenital conjunctivitis
D)pelvic inflammatory disease in females
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Chlamydiosis can lead to cervicitis,salpingitis,and pelvic inflammatory disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their ________.
A)feces
B)blood
C)urine
D)respiratory secretions
E)saliva
Q4) How would the diagnosis of syphilis be confirmed?
A)Dark-field microscopy
B)Blood antibody test
C)PCR
D)All of these tests can be used in diagnosis.
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding zoonotic infections?
A)Infections agents pass from animals to humans,not from humans to animals.
B)The majority of emerging human diseases in the past 30 years have been zoonotic.
C)Fewer than 1% of vertebrate viruses have been described.
D)Some zoonotic diseases can originate from animal-to-human transmission,then human-to-human transmission can further the spread.
Q2) Which of the following has been chemically modified to make it biodegradable?
A)Glass
B)Aluminum foil
C)Styrofoam
D)Laundry detergent
Q3) The primary phase of wastewater treatment ________.
A)removes harmful microorganisms
B)separates solid from liquid wastes
C)increases the biological oxygen demand
D)often uses ultraviolet radiation
Q4) There are very few viruses in aquatic environments.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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