Microbiology for Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing is designed to introduce nursing students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on concepts relevant to healthcare. The course covers the structure, classification, and function of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as their roles in disease processes and the maintenance of health. Emphasis is placed on the transmission and control of infectious agents, the bodys immune response, and the principles of asepsis and sterile techniques. Students will gain an understanding of infection prevention, antimicrobial resistance, and the practical applications of microbiology in clinical settings, preparing them to implement effective nursing practices for the safety and well-being of patients.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is used in the production of cheese?
A)Propionibacterium shermanii
B)Acetobacter aceti
C)Giardia
D)Fusobacterium
Answer: A
Q2) Scanning electron microscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: B
Q3) Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.
Answer: biofilms
Q4) In a compound light microscope the lens closest to the eye is the __________ lens.
Answer: ocular
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cellulose
A)Redox
B)Electron
C)Neutron
D)Acid
E)Base
F)Salt
G)Glucose
H)Protein
I)Polysaccharide
J)Nucleic acid
K)Lipid
L)Tritium
Answer: I
Q2) Protons are
A)located in the shells.
B)part of the atomic nucleus.
C)negatively charged.
D)uncharged particles.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organelle necessary for photosynthesis is a(n)__________.
Answer: chloroplast
Q2) Brownian movement
A)Cytoskeleton
B)Cytosol
C)Mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)rER
F)Bacterial ribosome subunit
G)Enzyme
H)Dental plaque
I)Phospholipids
J)Endocytosis
K)Cell wall
L)Passive transport
Answer: L
Q3) The transfer of genetic material during direct cell-to-cell contact is called_________________________.
Answer: conjugation
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "bull's-eye" rash is typical of __________ disease.
Q2) Staphylococci are _______________ facultative anaerobes.
Q3) Comma-shaped rods
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
Q4) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q5) Bacterial species whose shape is variable or morphologically indistinct depending on environmental conditions is called ________________________.
Q6) The time required for doubling of the population is called the________________ .
Q7) Bacteria whose overall shape is spherical or nearly spherical are referred to as
Q8) Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________.
Q9) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________. Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacteriophage is a(n)____________ virus.
A)helical
B)icosahedral
C)enveloped
D)complex
Q2) A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)slow
D)transforming
Q3) Which of the following consists of DNA viruses?
A)Parvoviridae
B)Picornaviridae
C)Astroviridae
D)Togaviridae
Q4) Kaposi's sarcoma is caused by human herpesvirus number __________.
Q5) According to the Baltimore classification,Retroviridae belong to group __________ viruses.
Q6) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi growing on the surface of the skin or hair may cause infections called __________ mycoses.
Q2) The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are A)algae.
B)fungi.
C)protozoans.
D)slime molds.
Q3) The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by A)algae.
B)slime molds.
C)fungi.
D)protozoans.
Q4) The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Balantidium coli.
D)Entamoeba histolytica.
Q5) The life cycle of a parasitic helminth ends with an adult parasite that is found in the __________ host.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bioassay method for testing the effectiveness of disinfectants and antiseptics on microorganisms is the ______________________.
Q2) The technique that combines freezing and drying to preserve microbes and other cells is
A)desiccation.
B)lyophilization.
C)pasteurization.
D)radiation.
Q3) Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal?
A)Incineration
B)Autoclaving
C)Direct flaming
D)Indirect heating
Q4) All of the following are methods for food preservation except A)Pasteurization
B)Disinfection
C)Irradiation
D)Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization
Q5) Agents that kill microbes are classified as __________.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as
A)napiform.
B)saccate.
C)crateriform.
D)stratiform.
Q2) The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the
A)acid-fast stain.
B)methylene blue stain.
C)Gram stain.
D)negative stain.
Q3) Used for culture of stool samples to detect Salmonella
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q4) A procedure performed under sterile conditions uses the __________ technique.
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by
A)OSHA.
B)CDC.
C)NIA.
D)WHO.
Q2) Control of access to BSL-3 laboratories is the responsibility of the __________.
Q3) PASS stands for pull,aim,squeeze,and __________.
Q4) Names with similar meaning
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q5) The four risk groups for agents have been established by the __________.
Q6) Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-__________ environment.
12
Q7) The type of fire extinguisher used on fires from flammable liquids such as gasoline would be a type __________ extinguisher.
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs are excreted from the body primarily via the A)lungs.
B)kidneys.
C)small intestines.
D)spleen.
Q2) The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
A)Cellular
B)Extracellular
C)Neuromuscular
D)Intracellular
Q3) The specific antidote to botulinum toxin is A)sodium bicarbonate.
B)antitoxin.
C)pralidoxime.
D)naloxone.
Q4) A __________ name is a nonproprietary single name usually related to the drug's relationship to a therapeutic class.
Q5) The study of the body's response to poisons and their harmful effect is referred to as
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q2) Which of the following drugs is effective against Candida albicans?
A)Ketoconazole
B)Amphotericin B
C)Griseofulvin
D)Vancomycin
Q3) When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect,the phenomenon is referred to as
A)antagonism.
B)mutualism.
C)synergism.
D)parasitism.
Q4) The assessment of a drug to determine its benefits versus the risks is called the __________.
Q5) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
Q6) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mold that produces penicillin is an example of A)parasitism.
B)mutualism.
C)commensalism.
D)amensalism.
Q2) Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?
A)Skin
B)Gastrointestinal tract
C)Respiratory tract
D)Conjunctiva
Q3) The number of new cases of a disease over a certain period of time compared with the general healthy population is a referred to as A)incidence.
B)prevalence.
C)virulence.
D)mortality.
Q4) A flora found in the same location as resident flora but that remains only for a given amount of time is called a __________ flora.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The category of immunoglobulins that can also be found in colostrum and mother's milk is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgD.
D)IgE.
Q2) Pentamer
A)Basophil
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)Monocyte
E)IgD
F)T cell
G)IgA
H)IgG
Q3) B cells are responsible for __________-mediated immunity.
Q4) Substances that stimulate the production of antibodies are called __________.
Q5) __________ occurs when the immune system is unable to distinguish between self- and nonself-antigens and attacks the cells of the body.
Q6) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
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Chapter
Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organism often called "flesh-eating bacteria" is
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Propionibacterium acnes
Q2) Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Malassezia furfur.
Q3) Sixth disease
A)HSV-1
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)HSV-2
D)Actinomyces
E)Escherichia coli
F)Varicella-zoster
G)HHV-6 and -7
H)Malassezia furfur
Q4) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-__________ bacterium.
Q2) Parrot fever is caused by __________.
Q3) Which of the following organisms is commonly found in the normal flora of the upper respiratory system?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q4) All of the following are structures of the lower respiratory system except A)Lungs
B)Pharynx
C)Bronchi
D)Trachea
Q5) Anthrax is caused by A)Haemophilus anthracis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Streptococcus anthracis.
D)Klebsiella anthracis.
Q6) The TB skin test is also known as the _______________ test.
Q7) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus
A)Escherichia.
B)Salmonella.
C)Vibrio.
D)Acinetobacter.
Q2) "Rice water stool" is a characteristic symptom of the disease __________.
Q3) The term "stomach flu" really refers to __________.
Q4) Staphylococcal intoxication is caused by Staphylococcus __________.
Q5) Necatoriasis
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q6) Cryptosporidiosis is a parasitic diarrheal disease caused by Cryptosporidium,which is a(n)__________.
Q7) Botulism is caused by __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most virulent of all botulinum toxins is considered to be type A)A.
B)B.
C)E.
D)F.
Q2) At present,the leading causes of bacterial meningitis are __________ and
Q3) Rabies is caused by which of the following organisms?
A)Virus
B)Bacterium
C)Protozoan
D)Fungus
Q4) In bacterial meningitis,some antibiotics are prevented from reaching the infection due to
A)chemical degradation of the antibiotic.
B)blood-brain barrier.
C)scar tissue formation.
D)degradation of local blood vessels.
Q6) Leprosy is caused by the bacterium __________ . Page 20
Q5) The most common bacterial infection/inflammation of the eye is
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yersinia pestis
A)Plague
B)Rat-bite fever
C)Severe malaria
D)Lyme disease
E)VHF
F)Leprosy
G)Common cold
Q2) Borrelia burgdorferi
A)Plague
B)Rat-bite fever
C)Severe malaria
D)Lyme disease
E)VHF
F)Leprosy
G)Common cold
Q3) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
Q4) Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus __________.
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Q5) The bacterium most frequently found to be involved in gas gangrene is
Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystitis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q2) Which of the following has not been shown to be preventive against UTIs in women?
A)Taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin
B)Urinating soon after sexual intercourse
C)Taking showers instead of baths
D)Urinating when the urge occurs
Q3) For patients with a catheter,the best measures to prevent a UTI are frequent cleaning and __________.
Q4) The tissues of the urethra become thinner and more fragile in older women because of a decrease in __________,thus increasing the chance of an opportunistic infection.
Q5) Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as __________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cases of endometritis,the two bacteria most often responsible for the infection are __________ and __________ .
Q2) Although normally caused by sexually transmitted organisms,pelvic inflammatory disease is sometimes caused by __________,which is a common part of the vaginal microflora.
Q3) Methods typically used to diagnose bacterial infections of the reproductive system include
A)microscopic examination of discharge from infected organ and microscopic examination of urine for organisms.
B)biopsy of infected tissue and use of selective media.
C)microscopic examination of fecal sample and protein test of urine.
D)antibody agglutination test and coagulation test.
Q4) Bacterial infections of the female reproductive system include
A)vaginitis, toxic shock syndrome, endometritis, and salpingitis.
B)nephritis, endometritis, vaginitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
C)toxic shock syndrome, nephritis, endometritis, and cystitis.
D)endometritis, vaginitis, cystitis, and toxic shock syndrome.
Q5) __________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chancroid infection
A)Protozoan
B)Tinea-related species
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Klebsiella species
E)Candida albicans
F)AIDS
G)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q2) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q3) Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Chlamydia trachomatis.
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Q4) Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the __________.
Q5) The only STI transmitted by a protozoan is __________.
Q6) Vaccination is available for the sexually transmitted hepatitis __________ virus.
Q7) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chlamydia commonly occurring in young adults is a _________ disease.
Q2) The common name for rubella is __________.
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
Q4) The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.
Q5) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
Q6) Which of the following antibodies is synthesized by the infant soon after birth?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
Q7) A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
Q8) A bacterial or viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her unborn child or during birth is called a(n)__________ infection.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) The majority of marine microorganisms are present in the A)benthic zone.
B)littoral zone.
C)profundal zone.
D)limnetic zone.
Q2) Which of the following is a Category A agent?
A)Bacillus anthracis
B)Escherichia coli
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Chlamydia psittaci
Q3) The conversion of CO to organic molecules is called __________.
Q4) Eutrophication is a term used in the A)carbon cycle.
B)phosphorus cycle.
C)sulfur cycle.
D)oxygen cycle.
Q5) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
Q7) Brucellosis is a Category __________ disease. Page 27
Q6) Cholera is considered a Category __________ disease.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group A)I.
B)II.
C)III.
D)IV.
Q2) Which of the following infectious disease is considered a newly emerging disease?
A)Hantavirus
B)Malaria
C)Tuberculosis
D)Chlamydia
Q3) The United Nations estimates that by the year 2050 more than __________ of the world's population will live in urban areas.
A)35%
B)56%
C)60%
D)69%
Q4) "Fifth disease" is caused by __________.
Q5) The Hendra virus is transmitted by __________.
Q6) Acanthamebiasis is a group __________ emerging/reemerging infectious disease.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) When a single bacterium can produce millions of identical cells,the population is called a(n)__________.
Q2) The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is
A)interferon alfa-2b.
B)interferon beta-1a.
C)interferon alfa-2a.
D)interferon gamma-1b.
Q3) The term "biotechnology" was created in 1919 by
A)Robert Koch.
B)Karl Ereky.
C)Robert Bud.
D)Louis Pasteur.
Q4) Which of the following tools of genetic engineering is used to make multiple copies of DNA?
A)PCR
B)Gel electrophoresis
C)Reverse transcription
D)Recombinant DNA
Q5) Enzymes that can cleave DNA at a particular site are __________.
Q6) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Page 30
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