Microbiology for Nursing Exam Materials
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a comprehensive introduction to microbiology, emphasizing the role of microorganisms in health and disease. Students will explore fundamental concepts including microbial structure, function, classification, and genetics, as well as the mechanisms of infection, immunity, and the body's defenses. Special focus is placed on the transmission and control of pathogens in healthcare settings, aseptic techniques, and the principles of antimicrobial treatments. By understanding the interactions between microbes and humans, nursing students will be better equipped to prevent infection, support patient care, and participate in effective infection control practices within clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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25 Chapters
818 Verified Questions
818 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microscope that provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen is a
A)dark-field microscope.
B)transmission electron microscope.
C)bright-field microscope.
D)scanning electron microscope.
Answer: D
Q2) Microorganisms of various species are often organized into complex communities on a surface and are called __________.
Answer: biofilms
Q3) Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora?
A)Intestine
B)Skin
C)Vagina
D)Blood
Answer: D
Q4) The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are __________.
Answer: prions
Q5) The cleanup of various industrial wastes by living organisms is referred to as __________.
Answer: bioremediation
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The atomic number equals the number of A)protons.
B)neutrons.
C)electrons.
D)protons and neutrons.
Answer: A
Q2) Two glucose molecules form A)galactose.
B)lactose.
C)maltose.
D)fructose.
Answer: C
Q3) Glucose and fructose are examples of A)monosaccharides.
B)disaccharides.
C)polysaccharides.
D)lipids.
Answer: A
Q4) Chemically,ATP is a(n)__________.
Answer: nucleic acid
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The allosteric site is a component of __________.
Answer: enzymes
Q2) Stroma is a component of
A)mitochondria.
B)chloroplasts.
C)lysosomes.
D)peroxisomes.
Answer: B
Q3) Observed cells of a cork
A)Robert Hooke
B)Rudolph Kölliker
C)Naegeli and Cramer
D)Schleiden and Schwann
E)Antony van Leeuwenhoek
F)Richard Altmann
G)Ernst Ruska
Answer: A
Q4) Movement of bacteria toward or away from a particular stimulus is called
Answer: taxis
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of A)gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci.
B)anaerobic gram-negative rods.
C)anaerobic gram-negative cocci.
D)spirochetes.
Q2) Microorganisms that acquire energy from light are called __________.
Q3) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Q4) Rod-shaped bacteria,some of which are endospore forming,are referred to as A)cocci.
B)bacilli.
C)spirals.
D)vibrios.
Q5) Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called A)diplococci.
B)streptococci. C)tetrads.
D)sarcinae.
Q6) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q7) Methanogens are __________ that grow in anaerobic environments such as swamps.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by A)flavoviruses.
B)virusoids.
C)prions.
D)orthomyxoviruses.
Q2) Capsids forming multifaced structures having 20 triangular faces are called __________.
Q3) A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)slow
D)transforming
Q4) The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is
A)order, genus, family, subfamily, species.
B)species, genus, family, subfamily, order.
C)order, family, subfamily, genus, species.
D)genus, order, family, subfamily, species.
Q5) According to the Baltimore classification,Retroviridae belong to group __________ viruses.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
A)Enterobius vermicularis
B)Necator americanus
C)Ascaris lumbricoides
D)Ancylostoma duodenale
Q2) The process by which the nucleus of protozoans undergoes multiple divisions before the cell divides is called
A)budding.
B)mitosis.
C)schizogony.
D)fragmentation.
Q3) The fungal saclike structure that contains sporangiospores is called a(n)__________.
Q4) Trematodes are commonly called __________.
Q5) A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature?
A)15° C
B)20° C
C)25° C
D)37° C
Q6) The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
A)Time of exposure, wavelength
B)Intensity, frequency, thickness of sample
C)Distance, frequency, nature of sample
D)Chemical composition, intensity, shielding
Q2) The term "zone of inhibition" is used in which of the following procedures?
A)Use-dilution test
B)Growth inhibition test
C)Disk-diffusion test
D)Multiple inhibition test
Q3) Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except A)UV light
B)Gamma rays
C)Electron beams
D)X-rays
Q4) The lowest temperature by which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed within 10 minutes is the __________.
Q5) Sterilization using dry heat requires a temperature of __________° C for a period of __________.
Page 9
Q6) Food irradiation destroys the __________ of the cell.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saucer-shaped liquefaction of gelatin stabs is said to have a __________ appearance.
Q2) The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the
A)acid-fast stain.
B)methylene blue stain.
C)Gram stain.
D)negative stain.
Q3) A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as A)napiform.
B)saccate.
C)crateriform.
D)stratiform.
Q4) In correct sequence,the five "I's" in microbiology stand for
A)Inoculation, Inspection, Identification, Incubation, and Isolation.
B)Isolation, Inoculation, Inspection, Identification, and Incubation.
C)Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, Inspection, and Identification.
D)Inspection, Inoculation, Incubation, Isolation, and Identification.
Q5) A common laboratory medium is nutrient broth,which contains beef extract and
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A unique number assigned to each chemical to aid in searching computerized databases
A)Chemical name
B)Structural formula
C)Synonyms
D)Trade name
E)CAS number
F)RTECS number
G)DOT ID number
Q2) All of the following are bloodborne pathogens in the healthcare setting except
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)HIV
Q3) Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only,until the victim reaches another safety unit?
A)Emergency shower
B)Personal eyewash
C)Handheld drench hose
D)Combination unit
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schedule II controlled substance
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q2) Prodrug
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q3) Drug administration,absorption,distribution,and clearance are collectively called
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q2) Which of the following is an antiviral agent?
A)Amantadine
B)Vancomycin
C)Chloramphenicol
D)Macrolides
Q3) The findings of the antibacterial properties of Penicillium notatum were first published by
A)Mosse.
B)Joubert.
C)Pasteur.
D)Fleming.
Q4) A drug that kills pathogenic bacteria is referred to as __________.
Q5) In the MIC method of determining antibiotic effectiveness,the lowest concentration containing no living organisms is called the __________.
Page 13
Q6) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of new cases of a disease over a certain period of time compared with the general healthy population is a referred to as A)incidence.
B)prevalence.
C)virulence.
D)mortality.
Q2) The virulence factors of bacteria include A)size, adhesion, resistance, and mutation. B)colonization, invasion, toxins, and adhesion.
C)toxins, evasion of body defenses, motility, and size. D)colonization, chemotaxis, fermentation, and toxins.
Q3) A disease that breaks out only occasionally,such as typhoid fever in the United States,is referred to as a(n)__________ disease.
Q4) A nonliving object such as a tissue,towel,or even money that can be used to transmit a pathogen to a host is called a(n)__________.
Q5) Animals,usually arthropods,that carry pathogens from one host to another are called __________.
Q6) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pentamer
A)Basophil
B)IgM
C)IgE
D)Monocyte
E)IgD
F)T cell
G)IgA
H)IgG
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true for antigens?
A)An antigen is any agent that can bind specifically to components of the immune system.
B)Epitopes are the smallest part of an antigen molecule capable to bind with an antibody.
C)Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids can all be antigens under certain circumstances.
D)Proteins are the least immunogenic molecules due to very few epitopes for antibody recognition.
Q3) The body's decreased ability to fight infections is called __________.
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivity is a result of ___________.
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Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by A)Sporothrix schenckii.
B)Actinomyces.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Malassezia furfur.
Q2) "Athlete's foot" is referred to as A)tinea capitis.
B)tinea corporis.
C)tinea versicolor.
D)tinea pedis.
Q3) The organism often called "flesh-eating bacteria" is
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Propionibacterium acnes
Q4) Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as __________.
Q5) Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
Q6) Leprosy is caused by __________.
Q7) Leprosy is also known as ____________________________. Page 16
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whooping cough
A)Streptococcus pyogenes
B)Coxiella burnetii
C)Klebsiella oxytoca
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E)Streptococcus faecalis
F)Legionella pneumophila
G)Bordetella pertussis
Q2) Tuberculosis is caused by an organism of the genus
A)Klebsiella.
B)Bordetella.
C)Chlamydia.
D)Mycobacterium.
Q3) Anthrax is caused by A)Haemophilus anthracis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Streptococcus anthracis.
D)Klebsiella anthracis.
Q4) Legionellosis affects mainly the __________.
Q5) Rheumatic fever is a rare complication of __________.
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pinworm
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q2) Bacillus intoxication is caused by
A)Bacillus subtilis.
B)Bacillus thuringiensis.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus.
Q3) Cholera is a serious gastrointestinal illness caused by bacteria of the genus
A)Escherichia.
B)Salmonella.
C)Vibrio.
D)Acinetobacter.
Q4) Botulism is caused by __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the causative agent for fungal meningitis,mostly in immunocompromised patients?
A)Trypanosoma brucei
B)Listeria meningitis
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Trypanosoma cruzi
Q2) American trypanosomiasis is also referred to as __________.
Q3) African trypanosomiasis is caused by __________.
Q4) One of the first signs of the onset of tetanus is trismus,also referred to as __________.
Q5) Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by __________.
Q6) The arbovirus that causes West Nile encephalitis is transmitted by A)rodents.
B)birds.
C)ticks.
D)mosquitoes.
Q7) Chemically,prions are __________.
20
Q8) The nervous system is divided into two components: the __________ and the
Q9) The most common bacterial infection/inflammation of the eye is
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The toxic condition caused by the multiplication of bacteria in the blood is referred to as
A)bacteremia.
B)septicemia.
C)shock.
D)bloodborne infection.
Q2) Which of the following is a disease caused by a protozoan?
A)Cat scratch disease
B)Toxoplasmosis
C)Relapsing fever
D)Plague
Q3) The term used to describe an inflammation of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart is
A)peritonitis.
B)pericarditis.
C)myocardial infarction.
D)anemia.
Q4) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
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Q5) Trypanosoma cruzi causes American trypanosomiasis,which is also known as
Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of bacteria in the urine is called A)toxemia.
B)bacteriuria.
C)mycoses.
D)urethritis.
Q2) The group most susceptible to recurring UTIs is
A)teen-aged boys.
B)women.
C)teen-aged girls.
D)normally healthy elderly men.
Q3) The method of collecting urine in which the patient washes the genital area and collects a midstream sample in a sterile container is called the __________ procedure.
Q4) Glomerulonephritis is also referred to as __________.
Q5) Which of the following has not been shown to be preventive against UTIs in women?
A)Taking a daily dose of 81 mg of aspirin
B)Urinating soon after sexual intercourse
C)Taking showers instead of baths
D)Urinating when the urge occurs
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaginal infections that are resulting from an overgrowth of normal flora are called
A)endogenous infections.
B)chronic infections.
C)iatrogenic infections.
D)fatal infections.
Q2) Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include
A)Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens.
C)Clostridium tetani, Bacillus cereus, and Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Helicobacter pylori, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) __________ is a collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs.
Q4) Although normally caused by sexually transmitted organisms,pelvic inflammatory disease is sometimes caused by __________,which is a common part of the vaginal microflora.
Q5) PID infections may be asymptomatic but often exhibit the symptoms of __________, __________,and __________ .
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Q1) Typically the first step in testing for the presence of HIV antibodies in a blood sample is the __________.
Q2) Hepatitis is an infection of the __________,even though transmission of the virus can occur through sexual activity.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true for STDs?
A)STDs are an unending epidemic in the U.S.
B)All viral STIs can be prevented by vaccination.
C)There are currently about 20 million new cases reported to the CDC annually.
D)Many STDs are undiagnosed.
Q4) Vaccination is available for the sexually transmitted hepatitis __________ virus.
Q5) The STI caused by Klebsiella granulomatis is A)syphilis.
B)donovanosis.
C)chancroid.
D)chlamydia.
Q6) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
Q7) Granuloma inguinale is also called __________.
Q8) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q9) HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) All of the following infections may recur during pregnancy except
A)Epstein-Barr virus infections.
B)herpes simplex virus infections.
C)streptococcal infections.
D)polyomavirus infections.
Q2) Congenital CMV infections are caused by A)coronavirus.
B)herpes simplex virus.
C)cytomegalovirus.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q3) Malformations of the heart
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q4) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
Q5) The common name for rubella is __________.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) The incubation time for Ebola is 2 to __________ days.
Q2) Sulfur dissimilation
A)Biomass
B)Eutrophication
C)Denitrification
D)Thiobacillus
E)Yersinia
F)Biodiversity
G)Rhizobium
Q3) The process by which amino groups are converted to ammonia is referred to as __________.
Q4) Which of the following is a Category A agent?
A)Bacillus anthracis
B)Escherichia coli
C)Vibrio cholerae
D)Chlamydia psittaci
Q5) Brucellosis is a Category __________ disease.
Q7) The physical location where organisms are found is called a(n)__________. Page 27
Q6) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The Marburg virus was originally spread by
A)laboratory rats.
B)birds.
C)green monkeys.
D)wild turkeys.
Q2) CDC
A)Program to reinforce the identification and response to emerging diseases around the world
B)Primary responsibility is to protect people in the United States from infectious diseases
C)Regulations to address a global approach to prevent, detect, and respond to any public health threat of international concern
D)Classifies infectious diseases into three categories
E)Provides instructions for destroying bioterrorism weapons
F)Assigns hospitals as primary response sites in cases of pandemic
Q3) The lead federal agency whose primary responsibility is to protect the people of the United States from infectious diseases is the __________.
Q4) Small changes in the viral coat that happen over time are referred to as antigenic
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Q2) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
Q3) The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature into red blood cells is __________.
Q4) A sense strand is a __________ to __________ mRNA or DNA molecule.
Q5) Synthetic proteins that can be used in the treatment of hepatitis C are
Q6) The synthetic interferon that is used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis is
A)interferon alfa-2b.
B)interferon beta-1a.
C)interferon alfa-2a.
D)interferon gamma-1b.
Q7) Which of the following is a true statement about recombinant DNA technology?
A)It is a single technique for genetic manipulation.
B)It involves the modification of an organism's genome.
C)It will replace biotechnology in the future.
D)It manipulates only the genotype.
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Q8) The process of copying a plate to identify a specific colony is called __________.