Microbiology for Nursing Exam
Answer Key
Course Introduction
Microbiology for Nursing is a foundational course that explores the principles of microbiology with a focus on their application to the nursing profession. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in health and disease. Students learn about infection control, antimicrobial agents, immune responses, and the transmission of pathogens in clinical settings. The course also highlights methods for specimen collection, laboratory diagnosis, and safety protocols to prevent hospital-acquired infections, equipping future nurses with essential skills and knowledge to deliver safe patient care and support public health initiatives.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement correctly compares the sizes of different microorganisms?
A)Bacteria are larger than eukaryotic microorganisms.
B)Archaea are larger than eukaryotic microrganisms but smaller than bacteria.
C)Bacteria are larger than viruses.
D)Eukaryotic microorganisms are smaller than viruses.
Answer: C
Q2) All proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of A)biotechnology.
B)bioremediation.
C)decomposition.
D)immunology.
E)epidemiology.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agar is an important component of media because
A)bacteria require agar to grow.
B)agar inhibits mold growth.
C)agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth.
D)agar prevents contamination.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A)differential
B)selective
C)enumeration
D)enriched
E)reducing
Answer: A
Q3) Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If during the Gram stain procedure,the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied,gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Flagella move in a whiplike motion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Both gram-positive and gram-negative cells have outer membranes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motile,feeding stage of protozoa is called the A)trophozoite.
B)cyst.
C)sporozoite.
D)oocyst.
E)food vacuole.
Q2) All of the following are helminths except A)pinworms.
B)flukes.
C)trypanosomes.
D)roundworms.
E)tapeworms.
Q3) All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A)motility.
B)ectoplasm and endoplasm.
C)heterotrophic nutrition.
D)formation of a cyst stage. E)cell wall.
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6
Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses are simple,noncellular,and lack mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses are unable to multiply outside of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RSV disease is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).RSV is a(n)
A)DNA virus.
B)RNA virus.
C)prion.
D)bacteriophage.
Q4) Viral tissue specificities are called A)ranges. B)virions.
C)receptacles.
D)tropisms.
E)uncoating.
Q5) Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is A)iron.
B)zinc.
C)calcium.
D)magnesium.
E)potassium.
Q2) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is A)iron.
B)zinc.
C)calcium.
D)magnesium.
E)potassium.
Q4) Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions,such as nitrate,by some bacteria is called A)aerobic respiration.
B)denitrification.
C)nitrification.
D)fermentation.
E)deamination.
Q2) The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid,N-acetylglucosamine,and peptides is an example of A)anabolism.
B)catabolism.
C)phosphorylation.
D)fermentation.
E)synthesis.
Q3) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product,this control is called A)feedback inhibition (negative feedback).
B)competitive inhibition.
C)enzyme induction.
D)enzyme repression.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacteria,initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following terms would best describe a mutation that leads to the deletion of two bases from a DNA sequence?
A)frame shift mutation
B)back mutation
C)silent mutation
D)point mutation
Q3) Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.
A)DNA
B)libraries
C)clones
D)digests
E)books
Q4) When DNA is heated,the two strands will separate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?
A)virucide
B)bactericide
C)germicide
D)sporicide
E)fungicide
Q2) Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Following successful placement of the central venous line,you are diligent to prevent infection when accessing and administering medications.Which of the following actions should be completed prior to use of the line?
A)hand washing
B)disinfection of the access port with alcohol or chlorhexidine prior to use
C)application of gloves
D)Hand washing,application of gloves,and disinfection of the access port should all be completed prior to use of the line.
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Side effects that occur in patient's tissues while on antimicrobial drugs include all the following except
A)development of resistance to the drug.
B)hepatotoxicity.
C)nephrotoxicity.
D)diarrhea.
E)deafness.
Q2) Antimicrobials that are effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
A)antibiotics.
B)narrow-spectrum drugs.
C)semisynthetic drugs.
D)synthetic drugs.
E)broad-spectrum drugs.
Q3) Each of the following affect cell walls except A)penicillin.
B)isoniazid.
C)vancomycin.
D)erythromycin.
E)cephalosporin.
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Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keritinase has the greatest effect on the A)respiratory system.
B)gastrointestinal system.
C)urinary system.
D)genital system.
E)skin.
Q2) Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A)hemolysin
B)hyaluronidase
C)toxinosis
D)collagenase
E)lipopolysaccharide
Q3) The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.
A)morbidity
B)mortality
C)incidence
D)endemic
E)pandemic
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13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?
A)MALTs
B)RES
C)PAMPs
D)BALTs
E)lysosomes
Q2) The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
A)complement.
B)interferons.
C)leukotrines.
D)pyrogens.
E)lysozymes.
Q3) During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?
A)inflammation
B)phagocytosis
C)interferon production
D)complement production
E)bradykinin
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of natural passive immunity would be A)chickenpox infection followed by lifelong immunity.
B)chickenpox vaccine which triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C)giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D)a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q3) The secondary response to an antigen is faster and bigger than the primary response.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
A)degranulation
B)bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
C)binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
D)histamine acts on smooth muscle
E)prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Q2) Which of the following allergic mediators are being currently activated in Mark's system?
A)mast cells
B)leukotrienes
C)serotonin
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy except A)drug allergy.
B)eczema.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)allergic asthma.
E)systemic lupus erythematosus.
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16
Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biochemical tests include all of the following except A)presence of catalase.
B)presence of oxidase.
C)colony morphology.
D)sugar fermentation.
E)gas production.
Q2) Each of the following are appropriate specimens for bacterial culture except A)saliva.
B)skin.
C)spinal fluid.
D)hair.
E)throat.
Q3) Which test is used to confirm scarlet fever?
A)ELISA
B)Western blot
C)Widal test
D)complement fixation
E)antistreptolysin O
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you suspect,the doctor diagnoses the lesions as S.aureus impetigo.The mother then asks you why her daughter's affected skin seems so fragile and blisters so easily.What will be your response to her question?
A)"The constant exposure to moisture makes your daughter's skin very fragile,and blistering is the natural response."
B)"Your daughter's constant itching irritates the skin,making it very fragile and irritable."
C)"The blood beneath the surface of the skin is broken down by waste products from S.aureus,and superficial blisters are the clinical sign."
D)"An exotoxin produced by S.aureus targets a protein responsible for cell-to-cell binding,and blisters are the result."
Q2) What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
A)peroxidase
B)catalase
C)lysozyme
D)coagulase
E)lipase
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best defense against arborviruses is A)prophylactic rifampin.
B)vector control.
C)vaccination.
D)prompt treatment with acyclovir.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a A)bacteria.
B)protozoan.
C)virus.
D)helminth.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is A)Streptococcus agalactiae.
B)Escherichia coli K1.
C)Listeria monocytogenes.
D)Haemophilus influenzae.
E)Neisseria meningitidis.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota. A)True
B)False
Q2) Bubonic plague is transmitted by A)mosquitos.
B)flies.
C)animal bites.
D)sexual contact.
E)fleas.
Q3) The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the A)epicardium. B)myocardium.
C)endocardium.
D)pericardium. E)ectocardium.
Q4) In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever,the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal biota of the upper respiratory tract include
A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Neisseria meningitidis.
D)Alpha-hemolytic streptococci.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Superantigens
A)include streptolysin O.
B)include erythrogenic toxin.
C)induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
D)can initiate a cascade of immune responses.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Treatment for diphtheria requires only penicillin or erythromycin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helicobacter pylori causes A)gastritis.
B)duodenal ulcers.
C)stomach ulcers.
D)increased risk for stomach cancer.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The main causes of dental caries seem to be
A)Streptococcus pyogens.
B)Streptococcus mutans.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
Q3) Enterobius vermicularis is
A)a whipworm.
B)common only to the tropics and subtropics.
C)an intestinal worm that easily contaminates fingers and fomites.
D)often fatal in heavy infestations.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of A)gonorrhea.
B)chlamydia.
C)genital herpes.
D)syphilis.
E)HIV.
Q2) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)does not produce cysts.
B)in males causes urethritis.
C)in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge.
D)has four flagella and an undulating membrane.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is A)endotoxin.
B)exotoxin.
C)kinase.
D)fimbriae.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 22: One Health: The Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called
A)decomposition.
B)synergism.
C)mineralization.
D)bioremediation.
E)recycling.
Q2) One of the goals of wastewater treatment is to _____________ the biological oxygen demand (BOD).
A)increase
B)decrease
C)neutralize
Q3) Which of the following may be removed by tertiary water treatment?
A)ammonia
B)nitrate
C)phosphate
D)pathogenic microorganisms
E)All of the above are correct.
Q4) The presence of coliforms necessarily indicates the presence of fecal matter.
A)True
B)False
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