Microbiology for Nursing
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course introduces nursing students to fundamental concepts of microbiology, emphasizing the relevance to healthcare and patient care settings. Topics include the structure and function of microorganisms, modes of transmission, the role of microbes in disease and health, infection control, immunology, and the principles of antimicrobial therapy. Special attention is given to the prevention and management of healthcare-associated infections, laboratory diagnostics, and the importance of sterile techniques. Through lectures and practical exercises, students gain the essential microbiological knowledge necessary for effective nursing practice and for promoting patient safety in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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1432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To design a good experiment,an investigator must consider all variables that might affect the outcome. What is a variable?
A) the record of all the observations
B) everything that a scientist can not control
C) an outcome that will result if the hypothesis is true
D) anything that can change for the purpose of the experiment
Answer: D
Q2) Microbiology is the study of microorganisms which include all of the following except
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) plants
D) protozoa
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?
A) chicken pox
B) measles
C) smallpox
D) mumps
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium hydroxide,a strong base,is added to water,the pH of the solution
A) goes up.
B) remains the same.
C) goes down.
D) cannot be determined.
Answer: A
Q2) The specific sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the protein's
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
Answer: A
Q3) Polysaccharides
A) include ribose, fuctose and glucose
B) include cholesterol and vitamin D
C) are monosaccharides joined by glycoside bonds
D) are found only in eukaryotic cells
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) What is true about the index of refraction?
A) if light rays are taken up by the object then it has a high index of refraction
B) it measures the frequency of the light as it reflects from a material
C) oil immersion lenses increase the problem of refraction
D) light will bend as it passes through two substances with different indices of refraction
Answer: D
Q2) A compound microscope
A) has two eyepieces
B) has a total magnification of 5,000X
C) has only fine adjustment and no coarse adjustment
D) has more than one lens
Answer: D
Q3) Diffraction occurs when
A) light is reflected by an object
B) light passes through a small opening
C) light changes wavelengths
D) light is absorbed by a normally transparent object (like a glass slide)
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Bacteria which show a wide variety of shapes within a single species are said to be
A) pleomorphic
B) axenic
C) acellular
D) monomorphic
Q2) Which of the following statements about the endosymbiotic hypothesis is false?
A) eukaryotic cells have both 70S and 80S ribosomes
B) mitochondria have their own DNA
C) when removed from cells, mitochondria continue to grow and divide
D) mitochondria are about the same size as prokaryotic cells
Q3) The charged,phosphate end of a membrane phospholipid is
A) water-fearing
B) hydrophilic
C) hydrophobic
D) none of the above
Q4) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions?
A) Iron
B) FAD
C) Niacin
D) NAD
Q2) Enzymes work by
A) lowering the energy of the reactants
B) raising the energy of the products
C) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction
D) increasing the activation energy of the reaction
Q3) The initial breakdown of glucose in a eukaryotic cell takes place in
A) cytoplasm
B) golgi
C) nucleus
D) cell membranes
Q4) Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. Is fermentation aerobic or anaerobic respiration? Can you think of any advantage afforded to those microorganisms that can carry out fermentation?
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) A growth medium consisting of only known amounts of water,magnesium,calcium chloride,potassium and glucose would be considered
A) a defined synthetic medium
B) a complex medium
C) a chemically nondefined medium
D) two of the above
Q2) Microbial growth
A) refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell
B) refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division
C) in a single generation's time leads to double the cell size
D) in a single generation's time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q3) A growth medium consisting of only water,glucose and beef extract would be considered
A) a defined synthetic medium
B) a complex medium
C) a chemically defined medium
D) two of the above
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) During DNA replication
A) the leading strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction
B) the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously
C) the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5' to 3' direction
D) both strands are synthesized discontinuously
Q2) Protein synthesis
A) in bacteria can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA molecule
B) uses very little of a bacterial cell's energy
C) can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed D) two of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) during DNA replication the leading strand serves as a template for replication of the lagging strand
B) fragments on the lagging strand are joined together by ligase
C) a bacterial chromosome is made up of individual units called Okazaki fragments
D) two strands of a double helix combine by base pairing in a parallel fashion
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) RFLP's are the result of
A) treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls
B) fusing two cells together
C) genes being transferred by a virus
D) cutting DNA with restriction enzymes
Q2) Which of the following processes increases variation seen in bacteria?
A) transformation
B) conjugation
C) transduction
D) all of the above
Q3) When genes are passed on from parent to offspring,which of the following events has taken place?
A) horizontal gene transfer
B) transduction
C) vertical gene transfer
D) retrograde gene transfer
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strain is a subgroup of a
A) phylum
B) class
C) family
D) species
Q2) Classification is necessary to
A) establish criteria for identifying organisms
B) arrange related organisms into groups
C) provide information on how organisms evolved
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a reason that bacteria cannot be classified in the same way as animals?
A) some bacteria are not motile
B) bacteria don't reproduce sexually
C) bacteria are single celled organisms
D) bacteria are prokaryotic organisms
Q4) Which of the following organisms shows the proper use of binomial nomenclature?
A) Escherichia Coli
B) Escherichia coli
C) escherichia coli
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a
A) lytic cycle
B) temperate cycle
C) lysogenic cycle
D) induction
Q2) A latent viral infection is an infection in which
A) a viral replication is slow
B) a virus remains within host cells without causing a disease
C) a viral infection causes a disease progression gradually over a long period
D) a viral replication has stopped
Q3) You have isolated an unknown virus. It is a double-stranded DNA and does not have an envelope. To which virus family does it mostly likely belong?
A) paramyxoviridae
B) retroviridae
C) adenoviridae
D) parvoviridae
Q4) How are computer viruses similar to and different from biological viruses? Are computer viruses alive? Why or why not?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Malaria is a result of infection by a A) mastigophoran
B) sarcodine
C) apicomplexan
D) ciliate
Q2) Fungi with no sexual stage in their life cycle are found in the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
Q3) Parasites which live within the bodies of other organisms are classified as A) accidental parasite
B) endoparasites
C) facultative parasites
D) ectoparasites
Q4) Wuchereria bancrofti is the causative agent of A) trichinosis
B) malaria
C) sleeping sickness
D) elephantitis
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What sterilization technique should be used for sterilizing instruments
A) filtration
B) direct flame
C) pasteurization
D) autoclaving
Q2) High concentrations of solutes such as sugar or salt results in plasmolysis of cells due to the onset of which phenomenon.
A) cavitation
B) ultrahigh temperature
C) low lyophilization
D) high osmotic pressure
Q3) What is the most susceptible phase of growth for most microorganisms by an antimicrobial agent?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to you from a nursing home with a high fever. Is it better to start the patient on a broad spectrum drug or a narrow spectrum drug? Is it better to start the patient on one antibiotic or multiple antibiotics? Defend your decision.
Q2) The mode of action of an antimicrobial agent refers to
A) killing of all microorganisms.
B) inhibition of growth of bacteria.
C) how it exerts its effects upon microorganisms.
D) the broad spectrum of activity of the antimicrobial agent.
Q3) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:
A) act as antimetabolites
B) inhibit ribosome function
C) disrupt cell membrane function
D) inhibit cell wall function
Q4) Why are resistant organisms found often in hospitalized patients?
A) stringent efforts maintain sanitary conditions
B) many infections in patients are being treated with different antibiotics
C) doctors are treating outpatients with multiple antibiotics
D) two of the above
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Which of the following is not a stage of an infectious disease?
A) invasive
B) incubation
C) syndrome
D) prodromal
Q2) Sudden or severe onset of signs and symptoms during acme is referred to as
A) incubation
B) fulminating
C) prodrome
D) decline
Q3) Botulinum Toxin
A) when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox
B) relieves muscle spasms in dystonia
C) is produced by Clostridium botulinum
D) all of the above
Q4) A symptom
A) is present during the convalescent stage
B) can be observed or felt only by the patient
C) can be observed by examination of the patient
D) only occurs during invasive infections
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Factors that increase the likelihood of an epidemic include all of the following except A) overcrowding
B) migration
C) lack of vaccination
D) access to medical care
Q2) A zoonoses refers to an infectious disease that is transmitted
A) to a vertebrate animal from a human
B) from a water reservoir to a human
C) from a human to their pets
D) to a human from vertebrate animal
Q3) All of the following pertain to analytical studies except A) control groups
B) retrospective studies
C) cause-and-effect relationships of disease occurrences
D) data on socioeconomic status
Q4) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) The lymphatic system does all of the following except
A) carries plasma to tissue
B) transports digested fats to the cardiovascular system
C) drains excess fluid from space between cells
D) allows for the circulation of cellular defenses
Q2) Which statement about chemical barriers is false?
A) high salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
B) chemical barriers include mechanisms to limit free iron
C) secreted defensins form pores in microbes' membranes
D) chemical barriers include acute phase proteins and interferons
Q3) A leukocyte-endogenous mediator
A) elevates body temperature
B) lowers the plasma iron concentration
C) decreases the host's metabolic rate
D) two of the above
Q4) Blood contains cells including all of the following except
A) red blood cells
B) plasma
C) platelets
D) lymphocytes
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Adaptive immunity is
A) the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent
B) only acquired artificially
C) only acquired naturally
D) immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity
Q2) A compromised host
A) may have a poor diet
B) may have an impairment in cell mediated immunity but not humoral immunity
C) usually has increased resistance to infectious diseases
D) two of the above
Q3) After differentiation how do B cells migrate?
A) bone marrow blood cirulation lymph nodes
B) bone marrow thymus blood circulation
C) bone marrow bursa of Fabricius lymph nodes
D) lymph node bone marrow blood circulation
Q4) All of the following statements about immunization are true except
A) live vaccines are potentially hazardous to pregnant females
B) passive immunization can provide immediate immunity to an exposed person
C) vaccines need to be practical in terms of stability and use
D) recombinant DNA vaccines inject the entire genomes of nonvirulent pathogens
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the _______ antigen(s)on their surface.
A) CD4
B) HLA-B27
C) CD8
D) two of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements related to serum sickness is false?
A) serum sickness was initially associated with injections of anti-toxin for diphtheria
B) patient's immune system makes antibody against horse proteins
C) glomerulus function is impaired due to immune complexes
D) most patients die rather quickly from the condition
Q3) An Arthus reaction is
A) a local reaction at the site of injection with edema and hemorrhage
B) a systemic reaction in which immune complexes increase activating complement
C) a deposition of antibody and interleukin on the membrane of epithelial tissues
D) a local reaction in a large mass of cells which leads to granuloma formation
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) All of the following are reasons why the eyes have no normal microflora except
A) eyelids present a physical barrier to colonization
B) viruses are unable to penetrate the conjunctiva
C) lacrimal gland secretes fluid that continuously flushes the cornea
D) tears contain an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell wall
Q2) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
Q3) Pediculosis is an infestation of
A) lice
B) ticks
C) chiggers
D) mites
Q4) Aspergillosis
A) in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections
B) causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin
C) is responsible for thrush and vaginitis
D) can require amputation
21
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Which is an immune complex disease?
A) cystitis
B) glomerulonephritis
C) prostatitis
D) pyelonephritis
Q2) Leptospirosis is characterized by all of the following except
A) a zoonosis
B) humans are infected by contact with contaminated water
C) Weil's syndrome might develop
D) an abscess develops at the site of entry
Q3) A person with fever blisters from HSV 1
A) is still susceptible to herpes simplex virus type 2 which causes genital herpes
B) will always have herpes virus in the ganglia of their sensory nerves
C) cannot shed the virus when asymptomatic
D) two of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Legionellosis is controlled by
A) vaccine administration
B) limited exposure to infected patients
C) regular disinfection of aerosolized water sources
D) prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Q2) Coccidioides immitis
A) causes San Joaquin Valley Fever
B) is part of the normal microflora
C) causes influenza-like illness but can disseminate to meninges and bones
D) two of the above
Q3) Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes A) azithromycin
B) fluroquinolone
C) penicillin
D) two of the above
Q4) Cyanosis,which may occur during whooping cough,is
A) a fainting spell
B) a vomiting incident
C) a bluing of the skin
D) formation of a red rash
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which term refers to severe diarrhea that often contains large quantities of mucus and sometimes blood?
A) enteritis
B) hepatitis
C) dysentery
D) enterotoxicosis
Q2) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Q3) Which of the following infections is due to prokaryotic organisms?
A) stomach ulcers
B) hepatitis
C) duodenal ulcers
D) two of the above
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) Lyme disease is characterized by all of the following except A) etiology is Borrelia burgdorferi
B) bull's eye rash
C) genetic predisposition with HLA-DR4 or RLA-DR2
D) debilitating hepatitis is a common sequelae
Q2) Ehrlichiosis is characterized by all of the following except A) symptoms include fever, headache, hepatitis, and muscle pain
B) reduction in white blood cells
C) a rash similar to Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
D) ehrlichial intracytoplasmic inclusions in WBCs suggest presence of Ehrlichia
Q3) Which of the following causes hemorrhagic fever?
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Leishmania donovani
C) Ebola virus
D) Colorado Tick Fever
Q4) Which term refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood stream?
A) bacteremia
B) septic shock
C) septicemia
D) lymphangitis
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is
A) antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B) dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C) the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D) the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q2) _______ is the only bacterial species known to destroy peripheral nerve cells.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Herpes simplex I
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Mycobacterium leprae
Q3) While over 90% of populations that live in closed environments (such as military bases,dormitories and day-care centers)are carriers,only 1 of 1000 carriers will have meningitis. This statement refers to
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Haemophilus influenzae type B
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae type F
Q4) What are all the animals that can get rabies? Which animals can transmit to humans and what determines human transmission ability? How should one treat an animal bite?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) A niche includes all of the following except
A) the taxonomy of an organism
B) the role an organism plays in the ecosystem
C) an organism's use of abiotic factors in its environment
D) the interactions an organism has with other organisms
Q2) The predominant genus of microbe found in ambient air is
A) Cladosporium
B) Bacillus
C) Staphylococcus
D) Candida
Q3) Which statement about septic tanks is correct?
A) pouring poisons and grease down the drain may kill the tank's beneficial microbes
B) sludge is pumped continually into a drainage leaching field
C) drainage fields last for more than 50 years
D) two of the above
Q4) Why are soil microorganisms so important to the nitrogen cycle? Describe the 3 roles bacteria play in the nitrogen cycle.
Q5) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which statement about single-cell proteins is incorrect?
A) single-cell proteins are whole organisms rich in protein
B) they are used in the production of steroid hormones
C) they can make protein from cheap sources such as pulp or petroleum waste
D) are currently used in animal feed
Q2) Which of the following contaminations is incorrectly matched with the food it affects?
A) Fusarium fungus- tomatoes infected from fruit flies
B) Leuconostoc and Lactitrous bacteria - fresh fruit juice acts as a high sugar media
C) Monilia fructicola - brown rot in peaches
D) Erwinia carotovora - microbial invasion of melons
Q3) Canned goods
A) will not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory
B) will not spoil because of the high salt content
C) will remain edible for years
D) have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment
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