Microbiology for Medical Technologists Exam Preparation Guide - 1136 Verified Questions

Microbiology for Medical Technologists

Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental concepts and practical applications of microbiology as they pertain to medical technology. Students will study the morphology, physiology, classification, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, with a focus on those of clinical significance. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for the identification, culturing, and antimicrobial susceptibility testing of pathogens commonly encountered in the medical laboratory. The course also covers principles of infection control, specimen collection, and handling, as well as the interpretation of diagnostic results, preparing students for roles in clinical settings where accurate detection and management of infectious diseases are essential.

Recommended Textbook

Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

79 Chapters

1136 Verified Questions

1136 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2162 Page 2

Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43094

Sample Questions

Q1) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:

A) macroscopic morphologic structure.

B) microscopic morphologic structure.

C) nucleic acid composition.

D) antigenic properties.

Answer: C

Q2) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?

A) Subcellular properties

B) Antigenic properties

C) Resistant profiles

D) Nucleic acid sequence analysis

Answer: B

Q3) Which binomial name is correctly written?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Escherichia coli.

C) Escherichia coli..

D) Escherichia Coli..

Answer: A

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 3

Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43095

Sample Questions

Q1) Recombination is defined as the:

A) change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another.

B) internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism's genome.

C) process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another.

D) uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA.

Answer: A

Q2) Miniature chromosomes composed of several genes in double-stranded, closed, circular structures are called:

A) transposons.

B) insertion sequences.

C) plasmids.

D) chromatoids.

Answer: C

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4

Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43096

Sample Questions

Q1) A human infection that results from a microorganism that primarily infects animal populations is referred to as a(n)_________ infection.

A) accidental

B) zoonotic

C) secondary

D) vector

Answer: B

Q2) IgM is the:

A) first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.

B) antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.

C) antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.

D) second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.

Answer: A

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5

Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43097

Sample Questions

Q1) Class III biological safety cabinets:

A) sterilize the air as it passes over the material in the cabinet.

B) protect the environment from contamination by biological agents by filtering the air as it is exhausted from the cabinet.

C) are completely enclosed and have gloves that enable the worker to manipulate the material in the cabinet.

D) are often called laminar flow hoods.

Q2) The agency that has published guidelines regarding the packaging of biohazardous specimens is known as:

A) DHEC.

B) International Air Transport Association (IATA).

C) CDC.

D) EPA.

Q3) Standard precautions in the microbiology laboratory apply to:

A) all clinical specimens.

B) clinical specimens that contain blood or body fluids.

C) blood, body fluids, feces, sputum, saliva, urine, and vomitus.

D) only specimens that are visibly bloody.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

6

Chapter 5: Specimen Management

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43098

Sample Questions

Q1) Ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O )and a small amount (0.03%)of carbon dioxide (CO ), is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?

A) Aerobes

B) Anaerobes

C) Capnophiles

D) Microaerophiles

Q2) A principal role of the clinical microbiologist includes:

A) quickly and accurately communicating information about the patient in both verbal and written formats.

B) assisting nurses and/or phlebotomists on the floor when drawing blood cultures.

C) diagnosing and treating patients.

D) designing software for microbial databases.

Q3) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?

A) Selective

B) Nutritive

C) Differential

D) Definitive

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43099

Sample Questions

Q1) In microscopy, resolution can be defined as the:

A) magnification power.

B) extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.

C) ability of objects to stand out from the background.

D) ability to see objects against a black background.

Q2) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ______ replaces _____ in the primary stain solution.

A) increased phenol; heat

B) heat; increased phenol

C) mycolic acid; heat

D) carbolfuchsin; phenol

Q3) A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to bond chemically the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is:

A) safranin.

B) crystal violet.

C) Gram's iodine.

D) Gram's decolorizer.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

8

Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43100

Sample Questions

Q1) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin, hemin (X factor), and the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)(V factor)?

A) Chocolate

B) CNA blood

C) BHI

D) Thioglycollate

Q2) Reduced O (5% to 10%)and increased CO (8% to 10%)produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?

A) Aerobes

B) Anaerobes

C) Capnophiles

D) Microaerophiles

Q3) Escherichia coli, a member of the family Enterobacteriaceae, was resistant to the antibiotic vancomycin.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The vancomycin disk has most likely expired.

B) Vancomycin should only be used in viral infections, not bacterial infections.

C) The plate is most likely contaminated with another organism.

D) No discrepancy is present. E. coli is resistant to vancomycin.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9

Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for

Microbial Identification and Characterization

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43101

Sample Questions

Q1) The probe in the hybridization assay can be described as:

A) originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.

B) a reporter molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

C) originating from an organism of known identity with a known sequence.

D) the enzyme needed to elongate the strand.

Q2) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on:

A) the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.

B) detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.

C) the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.

D) determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.

Q3) The optimal way to detect PCR amplicons is to use which stain?

A) Methylene blue

B) Malachite green

C) Bromothymol blue

D) Ethidium bromide

Page 10

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism

Detection

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43102

Sample Questions

Q1) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):

A) solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.

B) direct fluorescent antibody test.

C) indirect fluorescent antibody test.

D) radioimmunoassay.

Q2) Polyclonal antibodies are those that:

A) react with many different types of antigens.

B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.

C) react with many different antigens of one specific organism.

D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.

Q3) Monoclonal antibodies are those that:

A) react with many different types of antigens.

B) react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.

C) are produced by the offspring of a single hybrid cell.

D) can be produced from many different species of host organisms.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43103

Sample Questions

Q1) For most pathogens to be diagnostic of current infection, there must be a(n)_____ in the patient's antibody titer of _____ doubling dilutions.

A) decrease; two

B) increase; two

C) decrease; four

D) increase; four

Q2) Elevations of which of the following antibodies may indicate a parasitic infection?

A) IgG

B) IgA

C) IgM

D) IgE

Q3) Cell-mediated immune responses, such as attacking and killing microorganisms or host cells that are damaged or infected, are carried out by:

A) lymphocytes of the thymus-derived (T) class.

B) lymphocytes of the bone marrow-derived (B) class.

C) neutrophils.

D) nasophils.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12

Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43104

Sample Questions

Q1) Klebsiella spp.were isolated from a sputum sample, and susceptibility testing was performed.The isolates were sensitive to several antibiotics; however, they were resistant to ampicillin.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The ampicillin disk is most likely expired.

B) Because Klebsiella spp. should be sensitive to ampicillin, a technical error is to blame.

C) Ampicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis. In addition, because Klebsiella spp. do not have a cell wall, they should not have been tested for ampicillin.

D) No discrepancy is present; Klebsiella spp. are normally resistant to ampicillin.

Q2) Mycoplasmas are organisms without cell walls.Which antimicrobial agents would be ineffective in treating infections involving this bacterium?

A) Tetracycline

B) Aminoglycosides

C) Penicillin

D) Rifampin

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

13

Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43105

Sample Questions

Q1) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to:

A) vancomycin.

B) aminoglycoside.

C) cephalosporin.

D) amikacin.

Q2) Daptomycin, whose mode of action is to inhibit cell membrane function, is ineffective against which organism?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Enterococcus

C) Escherichia coli

D) Streptococcus spp.

Q3) The primary goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is to:

A) determine whether the pathogen is capable of expressing resistance to the potential choices of antimicrobial agents.

B) determine the extent of an organism's intrinsic resistance.

C) determine in vivo whether the administered antibiotic is killing the pathogen.

D) identify toxins associated with bacterial pathogens.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 14

Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43106

Sample Questions

Q1) In clinical isolates, the most likely identification of coagulase-positive, catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that are penicillin resistant would be:

A) Staphylococcus aureus.

B) Staphylococcus intermedius.

C) Stomatococcus luteus.

D) Micrococcus aureus.

Q2) The species of Staphylococcus, which is one of the most important human pathogens, is:

A) S. lentus.

B) S. aureus.

C) S. mucilaginosus.

D) S. intermedius.

Q3) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?

A) Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis

B) S. epidermidis and Enterococcus

C) Aerococcus and Enterococcus

D) Micrococcus and Aerococcus

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15

Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43107

Sample Questions

Q1) The drugs of choice for most enterococcal infections are:

A) vancomycin and a penicillin.

B) clindamycin and vancomycin.

C) penicillin and an aminoglycoside.

D) septra.

Q2) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?

A) Beta hemolysis

B) Gamma hemolysis

C) Alpha hemolysis

D) Kappa hemolysis

Q3) The development of glomerulonephritis is a problem that may be encountered by patients infected with:

A) Enterococcus faecalis.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) S. pyogenes.

D) S. agalactiae.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 16

Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43108

Sample Questions

Q1) Suspect spore-forming, gram-positive Bacillus species that is nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible and that produces a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as:

A) Corynebacterium diphtheria.

B) Bacillus anthracis.

C) Bacillus cereus.

D) Corynebacterium jeikeium.

Q2) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?

A) B. cereus

B) B. subtilis

C) B. thuringiensis

D) B. anthracis

Q3) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:

A) Thayer-Martin agar.

B) 5% sheep blood agar.

C) MacConkey agar.

D) Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

17

Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43109

Sample Questions

Q1) After 48 hours of incubation, black colonies with a dark brown halo are observed on Tinsdale agar.What type of toxin does this organism produce?

A) Emetic toxin

B) Exotoxin

C) Enterotoxin

D) Endotoxin

Q2) A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)culture was performed on a newborn in distress.After overnight incubation, small gram-positive bacilli with a soft zone of beta hemolysis grew on sheep blood agar.Based on this information, what results would be expected on the following tests: hippurate; Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP); and motility?

A) Negative hippurate, positive CAMP, and negative motility

B) Positive hippurate, negative CAMP, and positive motility

C) Positive hippurate, positive CAMP, and positive motility

D) Negative hippurate, negative CAMP, and negative motility

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

18

Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43110

Sample Questions

Q1) Which organism is nonhemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar but hemolytic on human blood?

A) Weissella confusa

B) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

C) Lactobacillus spp.

D) Gardnerella vaginalis

Q2) A farmer has a localized, painful skin infection.Cultures are set up, and alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information, which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease, H S production in TSI, and nitrate reduction?

A) Positive urease, positive TSI, and positive nitrate

B) Positive urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate

C) Negative urease, positive TSI, and negative nitrate

D) Negative urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate

Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?

A) Gardnerella vaginalis

B) Lactobacillus

C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum

Page 19

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43111

Sample Questions

Q1) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:

A) Nocardia.

B) Mycobacteria.

C) Streptomyces.

D) Actinomadura.

Q2) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?

A) Mycetoma

B) Lymphocutaneous infections

C) Skin abscesses or cellulites

D) Invasive pulmonary infections

Q3) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:

A) actinomycetoma.

B) infectious granulomas.

C) lymphocytoma.

D) Actinomadura.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20

Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43112

Sample Questions

Q1) This organism, belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae, grows best at 25º to 30º

C.Domestic and wild rats and other animals can carry this organism.What is the medium of choice?

A) MacConkey agar

B) Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate (XLD) agar

C) Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar

D) Hektoen enteric (HE) agar

Q2) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?

A) Salmonella spp.

B) Escherichia coli

C) Proteus spp.

D) Pseudomonas spp.

Q3) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella enteritidis

C) Shigella sonnei

D) Yersinia pestis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

21

Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43113

Sample Questions

Q1) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:

A) Bordetella spp.

B) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia.

C) Acinetobacter spp.

D) Pseudomonas oryzihabitans.

Q2) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is:

A) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.

B) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.

C) ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.

D) chloramphenicol.

Q3) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?

A) Acinetobacter spp.

B) Pseudomonas luteola

C) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

D) Bordetella holmesii

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22

Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43114

Sample Questions

Q1) Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Burkholderia cepacia

C) Ralstonia pickettii

D) Burkholderia mallei

Q2) A convenient and reliable identification scheme for Pseudomonas aeruginosa involves which of the following conventional tests?

A) Oxidase, triple sugar iron (TSI) slant, growth at 42° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

B) Catalase, lysine iron agar (LIA) slant, growth at 42° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

C) Oxidase, TSI slant, growth at 24° C on Mueller-Hinton agar or trypticase soy agar

D) Catalase, TSI slant, growth at 42° C on sheep blood agar or blood trypticase soy agar

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23

Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43115

Sample Questions

Q1) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms, in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?

A) Ochrobactrum anthropi

B) Shewanella putrefaciens

C) Paracoccus yeei

D) Rhizobium radiobacter

Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:

A) peritonitis.

B) endocarditis.

C) meningitis.

D) bacteremia.

Q3) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar, oxidizes glucose and xylose, and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?

A) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans

B) Paracoccus yeei

C) Rhizobium radiobacter

D) Shewanella putrefaciens

Page 24

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43116

Sample Questions

Q1) Which organism is indole- and gelatin-positive but does not have the ability to oxidize mannitol?

A) Sphingobacterium multivorum

B) CDC group O-1

C) Empedobacter brevis

D) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

Q2) A patient receiving hemodialysis began spiking a fever shortly after his treatment.Blood cultures were drawn and grew out the following gram negative rods that were indole positive with variable results for urea, nitrate reduction and gelatin.The organism is most likely:

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica.

B) Empedobacter brevis.

C) CDC group O-1.

D) Chryseobacterium spp.

Q3) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as the:

A) mucous membranes of animals.

B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.

C) natural environment.

D) genitourinary tract of animals.

Page 25

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,

Comamonas, and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43117

Sample Questions

Q1) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:

A) Bordetella.

B) Oligella.

C) Achromobacter.

D) Roseomonas.

Q2) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:

A) person-to-person contact.

B) exposure to contaminated water.

C) inhalation of contaminated air.

D) close contact with animals.

Q3) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:

A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.

B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.

C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.

D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.

Q4) Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all:

A) urea-positive.

B) oxidase-negative.

C) nonglucose utilizers.

D) lactose fermenters.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26

Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43118

Sample Questions

Q1) Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp.or Yersinia enterocolitica.Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?

A) String test

B) Sucrose fermentation

C) Glucose fermentation

D) Oxidase

Q2) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:

A) exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.

B) ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.

C) inhalation of contaminated air.

D) close contact with carriers of the organism.

Q3) Vibrio cholerae and Photobacterium damsela are used to perform quality control on TCBS agar.After overnight incubation, no growth is observed.What is the next course of action?

A) Reinoculate the TCBS agar, and incubate for 36 hours.

B) Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.

C) Reincubate the plates for another 24 hours.

D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control on TCBS agar.

Page 27

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43119

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?

A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

B) Habitats are unknown.

C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.

D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.

Q2) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?

A) Penicillin

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Flagyl

D) Imipenem

Q3) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?

A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.

B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe

C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii

D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis

Page 28

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43120

Sample Questions

Q1) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:

A) M. catarrhalis.

B) M. lacunata.

C) M. canis.

D) M. atlantae.

Q2) The virulence of this organism(s), which is transmitted via a dog bite, is attributed to:

A) protease production.

B) various toxins.

C) hemolysins.

D) something unknown.

Q3) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella atlantae will appear as:

A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.

B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.

C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.

D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43121

Sample Questions

Q1) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?

A) 4º C

B) 25º C

C) 35º C

D) 56º C

Q2) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:

A) pink pigmentation.

B) grapelike odor.

C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.

D) bleachlike odor.

Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?

A) Eikenella corrodens

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pseudomonas maltophilia

D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43122

Sample Questions

Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis

B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica

C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes

D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae

Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Eikenella corrodens

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Weeksella virosa

Q3) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?

A) Indole

B) Catalase

C) Nitrate

D) Sucrose

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,

Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar

Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43123

Sample Questions

Q1) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by its:

A) negative test for catalase.

B) positive test for lactose fermentation.

C) positive test for catalase.

D) negative test for oxidase.

Q2) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Actinobacillus spp.

Q3) Kingella denitrificans, which is nonhemolytic and tends to pit the agar, also grows on selective media that support the growth of which gram-negative diplococci?

A) Capnocytophaga spp.

B) Cardiobacterium hominis

C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Page 32

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 31: Haemophilus

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43124

Sample Questions

Q1) Performance of the "factor requirement test" for Haemophilus involves the:

A) inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of X and V factor disks on the agar surface

B) inoculation of liquid media, unsupplemented and supplemented with X and V factors

C) detection of the presence of enzymes that convert delta--aminolevulinic acid (ALA) into porphyrins.

D) growth of the organism in the presence of bacterial species that produce X and V factors as metabolic byproducts.

Q2) Which of the following opportunistic organisms is associated with slowly progressive subacute bacterial endocarditis?

A) Haemophilus ducreyi

B) H. influenzae

C) Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

D) H. parahaemolyticus

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43125

Sample Questions

Q1) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:

A) probes.

B) polymerases.

C) primers.

D) restriction enzymes.

Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:

A) Afipia felis.

B) Bartonella quintana.

C) B. clarridgeiae.

D) B. henselae.

Q3) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?

A) B. bacilliformis

B) B. henselae

C) B. elizabethae

D) B. clarridgeiae

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

34

Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43126

Sample Questions

Q1) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?

A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions

B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions

C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions

D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions

Q2) Virulence determinants of Helicobacter pylori include:

A) proteases.

B) urease enzyme.

C) hemolysins.

D) exotoxins.

Q3) Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?

A) Campylobacter coli and C. concisus

B) C. curvus and C. hyointestinalis

C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei

D) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. coli

Q4) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:

A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.

B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

C) multiplication of the organism in food products.

D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35

Chapter 34: Legionella

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43127

Sample Questions

Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) L-cysteine and iron

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

Q2) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?

A) Fluoroquinolones

B) Erythromycin

C) Penicillin

D) Aminoglycosides

Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:

A) gram-positive diplococci.

B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 35: Brucella

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43128

Sample Questions

Q1) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:

A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.

B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.

C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.

D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.

Q2) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:

A) cattle.

B) sheep or goats.

C) swine.

D) dogs.

Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:

A) gram-positive diplococci.

B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) gram-negative bacilli.

Q4) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:

A) dairy farmers.

B) fishermen.

C) prison guards.

D) those working with exotic birds.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37

Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and

Related Species

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43129

Sample Questions

Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as:

A) person-to-person contact.

B) exposure to contaminated water.

C) inhalation of contaminated air.

D) close contact with animals.

Q2) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:

A) throat swabs.

B) sputum.

C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.

D) anterior nose swabs.

Q3) Because of its longer shelf life, the medium of choice to cultivate Bordetella spp.is:

A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

B) thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar.

C) Bordet-Gengou agar.

D) Regan-Lowe agar.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 37: Francisella

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43130

Sample Questions

Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:

A) blood.

B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

C) lymph nodes.

D) urine.

Q2) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?

A) Brucella

B) Bordetella

C) Pasteurella

D) Francisella

Q3) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) Cysteine and cystine

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum

Minus

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43131

Sample Questions

Q1) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is:

A) Sodoku.

B) Haverhill fever.

C) monillic fever.

D) monillic gastritis.

Q2) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?

A) Streptobacillus moniliformis

B) Spirillum minus

C) Bordetella spp.

D) Pasteurella spp.

Q3) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:

A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.

B) a granulomatous lesion.

C) septic arthritis.

D) endocarditis.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40

Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43132

Sample Questions

Q1) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.

A) hydrogen (H2)

B) carbon dioxide (CO2)

C) nitrogen (N2)

D) nitrate (NO3)

Q2) Moraxella catarrhalis may be described as:

A) oxidase-positive.

B) a glucose utilizer.

C) a major cause of venereal disease.

D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.

Q3) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) Moraxella catarrhalis.

C) N. cinerea.

D) N. gonorrhoeae.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43133

Sample Questions

Q1) Percutaneous lung aspirate is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q2) An acceptable specimen for anaerobic culture is:

A) nasopharyngeal swab.

B) tissue obtained at biopsy.

C) small bowel contents.

D) catheterized urine.

Q3) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q4) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q5) PEA agar

A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.

B)Inhibits gram-negative rods

C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes

D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria

E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42

Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43134

Sample Questions

Q1) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-positive bacillus that produces spores is:

A) Bifidobacterium.

B) Eubacterium.

C) Eggerthella.

D) Clostridium.

Q2) A diabetic patient has developed gas gangrene of the right foot.The most likely anaerobe causing this infection is:

A) Clostridium tetani.

B) C. perfringens.

C) C. botulinum.

D) C. difficile.

Q3) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that will fluoresce brick red or has a brown-to-black-pigment is:

A) nonpigmented Prevotella.

B) Porphyromonas spp.

C) Bacteroides fragilis group.

D) Fusobacterium spp.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

43

Chapter 42: Mycobacteria

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43135

Sample Questions

Q1) One drawback associated with the fluorochrome stain method for detecting Mycobacterium is that:

A) it is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.

B) it requires the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.

C) many rapid growers may not appear fluorescent with these reagents.

D) it increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.

Q2) When culturing for Mycobacterium, rapid growers usually produce colonies within how many days after subculture?

A) At least 7 days

B) Longer than 7 days

C) 3 to 4 days

D) 2 to 3 days

Q3) The specimen of choice for detecting tuberculous pulmonary mycobacterial disease is:

A) spontaneously produced sputum.

B) gastric lavage.

C) transtracheal aspiration.

D) bronchoscopy.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43136

Sample Questions

Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale, which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, and part of South America, is:

A) clindamycin.

B) doxycycline.

C) imipenem.

D) gentamycin.

Q2) The Coxiella burnetii, an acute systemic infection, primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:

A) immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).

B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).

C) Western blot.

D) latex agglutination.

Q3) Binary fission within vacuoles divides which of the following forms of Chlamydia?

A) RB

B) EB

C) Replicate body

D) Initial body

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45

Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43137

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?

A) Chlamydia

B) Mycoplasma

C) Rickettsia

D) Coxiella

Q2) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used; however, both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?

A) The urea agar is most likely expired.

B) The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.

C) A technical error has occurred.

D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.

Q3) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?

A) Ureaplasma urealyticum

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) M. hominis

D) M. genitalium

Page 46

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 45: The Spirochetes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43138

Sample Questions

Q1) Erythrocytes

A)TP-PA

B)MHA-TP

C)PaGIA

D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

E)Magnetic beads

Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by the appearance of a chancre is known as __________ syphilis.

A) primary

B) secondary

C) late

D) tertiary

Q3) Gelatin particles

A)TP-PA

B)MHA-TP

C)PaGIA

D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

E)Magnetic beads

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic

Infections: Overview

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43139

Sample Questions

Q1) The concentration protocol of the ova and parasite (O&P)examination:

A) requires freshly passed, unpreserved stool.

B) is designed to allow the detection of protozoan cysts, coccidian oocysts, microsporidial spores, and helminth eggs and larvae.

C) is microscopically examined at low, high dry, and oil immersion magnifications.

D) is designed to facilitate the identification of intestinal protozoa.

Q2) Some strains of leishmaniae have reservoir hosts, including dogs and wild rodents.Transmission is via the bite of a:

A) tsetse fly.

B) tick.

C) sandfly.

D) triatomid bug.

Q3) The Entero-Test capsule technique involves the collection of duodenal contents to examine the presence of which of the following parasites?

A) Toxoplasma gondii

B) Giardia lamblia

C) Entamoeba histolytica

D) Trichinella spiralis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48

Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43140

Sample Questions

Q1) Entamoeba coli, a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 microns in diameter, can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?

A) Small, usually compact

B) Large, usually compact

C) Small, irregularly shaped

D) Large, not compact

Q2) Outbreaks of infection with the organism Cyclospora are linked to contaminated raspberries, lettuce, and snow peas.The stain of choice to identify the oocysts in stool samples is:

A) trichrome.

B) Wright.

C) periodic acid-Schiff.

D) modified acid-fast.

Q3) Asexual amplification, called merogony, is associated with the life cycle of which organism?

A) Cyclospora

B) Cryptosporidium

C) Toxoplasma

D) Sarcocystis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49

Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43141

Sample Questions

Q1) T.rangeli

A)Anopheles mosquito

B)Tsetse fly

C)Sandfly

D)Reduviid bug

Q2) Ring forms and a "Maltese cross" were observed in a blood smear.The vector that transmits this disease is a(n):

A) tick.

B) tsetse fly.

C) anopheles mosquito.

D) sandfly.

Q3) Trypanosoma cruzi

A)Anopheles mosquito

B)Tsetse fly

C)Sandfly

D)Reduviid bug

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50

Chapter 49: Other Protozoa

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43142

Sample Questions

Q1) Bradyzoites

A)Crescent-shaped

B)Oocysts from cat feces

C)Tissue cysts

Q2) A 26-year-old woman has an odorous vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and difficulty urinating.Vaginal secretions are collected and sent to the laboratory for examination 3 hours after collection.No motile organisms are observed on the wet preparation; however, Trichomonas vaginalis is suspected.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The infection is most likely bacterial; therefore a Gram stain should have been performed.

B) The specimen should have been refrigerated before examination; consequently, the organism was compromised.

C) The time between collection and the microscopic examination was prolonged, resulting in loss of motility.

D) No discrepancy is present; this organism in nonmotile.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43143

Sample Questions

Q1) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment, blood loss, and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?

A) Whipworm

B) Pinworm

C) Threadworm

D) Hookworm

Q2) A 4-year-old boy attended day care 3 days per week.He was irritable, and his parents noticed that he had persistent perianal itching.A sticky paddle was pressed against the perianal region and sent to the laboratory for testing.The eggs microscopically observed would most likely have which one of the following morphologic features?

A) Long with a short buccal cavity

B) Thin shell with internal granules

C) Bipolar plugs

D) Flat-sided, football-shaped

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43144

Sample Questions

Q1) Crabs

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

Q2) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:

A) normal.

B) insignificant.

C) diagnostic.

D) negative.

Q3) Swine

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 53

Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43145

Sample Questions

Q1) Loa loa

A)Tabanid fly

B)Biting midges

C)Anopheles mosquito

D)Black fly

E)Biting midges.

Q2) Brugia spp.

A)Tabanid fly

B)Biting midges

C)Anopheles mosquito

D)Black fly

E)Biting midges.

Q3) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:

A) Wuchereria bancrofti.

B) Onchocerca volvulus.

C) Loa loa.

D) Brugia malayi.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54

Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43146

Sample Questions

Q1) A stool specimen is examined, and the following characteristics are observed: 15 to 18 lateral branches on each side

Scolex with four suckers

No hooklets

The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:

A) cattle.

B) humans.

C) cats.

D) swine.

Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.

A) Diphyllobothrium latum

B) Hymenolepis nana

C) Taenia saginata

D) Taenia solium

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43147

Sample Questions

Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?

A) Taenia solium

B) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Spirometra mansonoides

D) Echinococcus multilocularis

Q2) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:

A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.

B) observance of eggs in the stool.

C) positive India ink stain.

D) identification of cysts in tissue.

Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?

A) Coenurosis

B) Cysticercosis

C) Hydatid disease

D) Sparganosis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43148

Sample Questions

Q1) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater: A) snails.

B) fish.

C) crabs.

D) shrimp.

Q2) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A) fish.

B) snails.

C) crabs.

D) crayfish.

Q3) The adult form of the fluke, Fasciolopsis buski, is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A) snails.

B) birds.

C) rodents.

D) dogs.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 57

Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43149

Sample Questions

Q1) Lung fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q2) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:

A) praziquantel.

B) bithionol.

C) albendazole.

D) benzimidazole.

Q3) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?

A) Snail

B) Crustacean

C) Copepod

D) Freshwater fish

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43150

Sample Questions

Q1) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Metrifonate should have been administered.

B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.

C) Steroids should have been initially administered.

D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.

Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?

A) S. mansoni

B) S. japonicum

C) S. haematobium

D) S. mekongi

Q3) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?

A) S. japonicum

B) S. haematobium

C) S. mansoni

D) S. intercalatum

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 59

Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43151

Sample Questions

Q1) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:

A) Penicillium marneffei.

B) Sporothrix schenckii.

C) Epidermophyton.

D) Histoplasma capsulatum.

Q2) Which phylum exhibits both a teleomorph and an anamorph form?

A) Ascomycota

B) Basidiomycota

C) Deuteromycota

D) Zygomycota

Q3) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:

A) Candida albicans.

B) Coccidioides immitis.

C) Cryptococcus neoformans.

D) Aspergillus fumigatus.

Q4) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:

A) inoculation.

B) inhalation.

C) arthropod.

D) blood.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 60

Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,

Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43152

Sample Questions

Q1) The slow-growing organism Trichophyton rubrum produces a flat or heaped-up colony, generally white to reddish with a cottony or velvety surface.The cherry-red color is best observed on the reverse side of the colony.This organism is capable of infecting which of the following?

A) Hair and nails

B) Skin and nails

C) Hair and skin

D) Hair, skin, and nails

Q2) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular, white-to-blue green colony?

A) A. niger

B) A. flavus

C) A. fumigatus

D) A. terreus

Q3) The term used to describe ringworm of the nail is:

A) Tinea cruris.

B) Tinea pedis.

C) Tinea capitis.

D) Tinea unguium.

Page 61

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43153

Sample Questions

Q1) Macroscopic examination of granules from lesions of mycetoma reveal them to be white to yellow and 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter.Microscopically, the granules consist of loosely arranged, intertwined septate hyaline hyphae cemented together.Which organism can cause a mycetoma infection?

A) Fonsecaea spp.

B) Exophiala dermatitidis

C) Cladosporium spp.

D) Pseudallescheria boydii

Q2) Mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that involves the lower extremities but may also occur in any part of the body.Swelling, purplish discoloration, and tumorlike deformities of the subcutaneous tissue are all symptoms associated with mycetoma.Which organism can cause this disease?

A) Bipolaris spp.

B) Exserohilum spp.

C) Pseudallescheria boydii

D) Exophiala dermatitidis

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

62

Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis

Jiroveci

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43154

Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?

A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)

B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)

C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Q2) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.

A) sterols; cholesterol

B) ergosterol; sterols

C) cholesterol; ergosterol

D) sitosterol; sterols

Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?

A) Metronidazole

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole

D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 63

Chapter 62: The Yeasts

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43155

Sample Questions

Q1) Polysaccharide capsule

A)Trichosporon spp.

B)Candida albicans

C)Malassezia furfur

D)Cryptococcus neoformans

Q2) In general, yeast reproduce asexually by the formation of:

A) ascospores.

B) basidiospores.

C) blastoconidia.

D) arthroconidia.

Q3) Cryptococcus neoformans is widely distributed in nature, and aerosolization is a prerequisite to most infections.This organism is most often associated with exposure to:

A) contaminated soil.

B) pigeon excreta.

C) contaminated food.

D) rat excreta.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 64

Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43156

Sample Questions

Q1) Alters membrane permeability

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

Q2) A patient who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is diagnosed with a Cryptococcus neoformans infection.The attending resident prescribed Griseofulvin; however, the patient's condition did not seem to improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The dose should be increased to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.

B) Nystatin, which would have been more effective, should have been prescribed.

C) Griseofulvin is not effective against C. neoformans; therefore the therapy should be changed.

D) Potassium iodide is the therapy of choice, not griseofulvin.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43157

Sample Questions

Q1) pp65 protein

A)RSV

B)HIV

C)CMV

D)Adenovirus

E)HSV

F)Pediatric respiratory virus

G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

H)Influenzas A and B

Q2) Continuous cell line

A)HEp-2 culture cells

B)Monkey kidney cells

C)Fibroblast cells

Q3) To detect immunoglobulin M (IgM)antibodies in an acute phase, blood should be collected in _____ days after the onset of infection.

A) 2 to 5

B) 5 to 7

C) 7 to 14

D) longer than 21

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 66

Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43158

Sample Questions

Q1) Fever and leucopenia

A)Yellow fever

B)Dengue fever

C)West Nile virus

D)Hepatitis C

Q2) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and monkeys.It is identified in the laboratory using which type of assay?

A) Immunodiffusion

B) Peptide nucleic acid fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH)

C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

D) Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Q3) Which cell line has demonstrated a consistent season-to-season isolation frequency of influenza viruses?

A) Primary monkey kidney

B) Lung fibroblasts

C) HeLa

D) HEp-2

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43159

Sample Questions

Q1) Amantadine

A)HSV

B)Influenza A

C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

E)HIV

Q2) Inhibits viral plaque formation.

A)Phenotypic assay

B)Plaque reduction assay

C)Du assay

D)Flow cytometry

E)Genotypic susceptibility assay

F)Pyrosequencing

Q3) Acyclovir

A)HSV

B)Influenza A

C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

E)HIV

68

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43160

Sample Questions

Q1) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?

A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

C) Rubella virus

D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Q2) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?

A) Vitamin K

B) Vitamin B6

C) Vitamin B12

D) Vitamin D

Q3) A 76-year-old man with intermittent fevers has blood cultures drawn three times.The second set is positive and grew out of a Corynebacterium spp.This organism is considered:

A) pathogenic.

B) virulent.

C) a contaminant.

D) normal flora.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 69

Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43161

Sample Questions

Q1) Adenoviruses are one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:

A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.

B) adults younger than 30 years of age.

C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.

D) school-age children.

Q2) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:

A) Chlamydophila pneumoniae.

B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

D) respiratory syncytial virus.

Q3) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults, regardless of age, is:

A) Neisseria meningitidis.

B) Streptococcus pyogenes.

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other

Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43162

Sample Questions

Q1) An infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues above the vocal cords, whose presentation typically includes fever and difficulty in swallowing because of the pain, drooling, and respiratory obstruction with inspiratory stridor, is:

A) epiglottitis.

B) pharyngitis.

C) Vincent angina.

D) rhinitis.

Q2) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes is:

A) epiglottitis.

B) pharyngitis.

C) Vincent angina.

D) rhinitis.

Q3) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is: A) pharyngitis.

B) Vincent angina.

C) rhinitis.

D) thrush.

Page 71

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of

the Central Nervous System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43163

Sample Questions

Q1) The middle layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:

A) dura mater.

B) meninges.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

Q2) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) meningitis.

Q3) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) pleocytosis.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 72

Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43164

Sample Questions

Q1) Orbital cellulitis

A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice

C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic

E)Chlamydia

F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium

G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Q2) Orbital cellulitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

Q3) Keratitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 73

Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43165

Sample Questions

Q1) The most frequent cause of uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infections is:

A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

B) Klebsiella spp.

C) Escherichia coli.

D) Proteus.

Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:

A) Enterobacteriaceae.

B) yeast.

C) Propionibacterium acnes.

D) Corynebacteria.

Q3) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.

A) digestive

B) upper respiratory

C) urinary

D) genital

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43166

Sample Questions

Q1) Chorioamnionitis

A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching

B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge

C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy

D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by bloodborne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus

Q2) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called:

A) PID.

B) bartholinitis.

C) cervicitis.

D) chorioamnionitis.

Q3) The flora of the female genital tract:

A) consists primarily of staphylococci, corynebacteria, and Neisseria.

B) consists primarily of Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, and staphylococci.

C) consists primarily of Streptococcus agalactiae and staphylococci.

D) varies with the pH and estrogen concentration of the mucosa.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 75

Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43167

Sample Questions

Q1) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Q2) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Q3) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43168

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is diagnosed with gas gangrene in the skin as a result of bullous lesions associated with sepsis.The Gram-stain reaction and morphologic features of the most probable pathogen causing this infection is:

A) gram-positive cocci.

B) gram-positive bacilli.

C) gram-negative coccobacilli.

D) gram-negative bacilli.

Q2) Meleney ulcer

A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents

B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue

C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin

D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Marrow, and Solid Tissues

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43169

Sample Questions

Q1) Human bites and animal bites caused by ________ and _________, respectively, can ultimately lead to an underlying bone infection.

A) Eikenella corrodens; Actinomyces spp.

B) Pasteurella multocida; Peptostreptococcus spp.

C) Prevotella spp.; Staphylococcus aureus

D) Eikenella corrodens; Pasteurella multocida

Q2) Fluids should be processed for direct microscopic examination.If one organism is observed per oil immersion field, then at least _____ organisms per milliliter of specimen are present.

A) 102

B) 103

C) 104

D) 105

Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

C) Haemophilus influenzae.

D) Streptococcus agalactiae.

Page 78

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43170

Sample Questions

Q1) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT), it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?

A) CLSI

B) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)

C) College of American Pathologists (CAP)

D) American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)

Q2) Eliminating redundant motion, recognizing waste, and identifying what creates value from the patient's perspective is considered which type of process?

A) Lean methodology

B) Total Quality Management

C) Continuous Quality Improvement

D) Performance Improvement

Q3) Test performance, tolerance limits, reagent preparation, required quality control, result reporting, and references are areas included in the:

A) Total Quality Management Manual.

B) Standard Operating Procedure Manual (SOPM).

C) Continuous Quality Improvement Manual.

D) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) Manual.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 78: Infection Control

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43171

Sample Questions

Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:

A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) serotyping.

D) bacteriocin typing.

Q2) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?

A) Haemophilus influenza

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) Parvovirus B19

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q3) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:

A) lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.

B) surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.

C) surgical wound that has become grossly infected.

D) large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43172

Sample Questions

Q1) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:

A) biosecurity.

B) biocrime.

C) microterrorism.

D) cactiterrorism.

Q2) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated, and if the colony is oxidase-, urease-, and indole-negative and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain, then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:

A) Bacillus anthracis.

B) Francisella tularensis.

C) Brucella spp.

D) Yersinia pestis.

Q3) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?

A) Clinical

B) Sentinel

C) Reference

D) National

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 81