Microbiology for Medical Laboratory Science Final Exam Questions - 1136 Verified Questions

Microbiology for Medical Laboratory Science

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on clinical applications relevant to medical laboratory science. It covers the morphology, physiology, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in human disease. Students will learn methods for the isolation, identification, and characterization of clinically significant microorganisms using traditional and modern molecular techniques. The course also discusses antimicrobial susceptibility testing, infection control, and the interpretation of laboratory results in the context of patient care. Laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience in aseptic techniques, culturing, and microscopic analysis, preparing students for professional roles in medical diagnostics.

Recommended Textbook

Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy

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Q1) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:

A) macroscopic morphologic structure.

B) microscopic morphologic structure.

C) nucleic acid composition.

D) antigenic properties.

Answer: C

Q2) The taxon that is composed of similar species that have several important features in common but differ sufficiently to still maintain their status as individual species is which one of the following?

A) Class

B) Order

C) Family

D) Genus

Answer: D

Q3) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:

A) classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.

B) classifies microorganisms, based on their genetic makeup.

C) classifies microorganisms, based on their phenotypic makeup.

D) classifies microorganisms, based on their cellular and colonial traits.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure

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Q1) Pieces of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)that move from one genetic element to another and contain genes for movement and genes for other features are called:

A) transposons.

B) insertion sequences.

C) plasmids.

D) chromatoids.

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following processes takes place in the cytoplasm and involves the transfer RNA (tRNA)mediating the sequential addition of amino acids in a specific sequence that is dictated by the codon sequence of the messenger RNA (mRNA)molecule?

A) Transcription

B) Initiation

C) Elongation

D) Termination

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions

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Q1) Which stage of infection is characterized by host deterioration and possibly death?

A) Prodromal

B) Clinical

C) Decline

D) Convalescent

Answer: C

Q2) Which immune system cells destroy infected or malignant host cells?

A) B lymphocytes

B) T lymphocytes

C) Natural killer cells

D) Neutrophils

Answer: C

Q3) The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n):

A) infection.

B) colonization.

C) nosocomial infection.

D) reservoir.

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety

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Q1) The agency that requires health care facilities to provide employees with all devices and mechanisms necessary to protect them from the hazards encountered in the laboratory is:

A) Department of Health and Environmental Control (DHEC).

B) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

D) Health Emergency Planning Advisor (HEPA).

Q2) Standard precautions in the microbiology laboratory apply to:

A) all clinical specimens.

B) clinical specimens that contain blood or body fluids.

C) blood, body fluids, feces, sputum, saliva, urine, and vomitus.

D) only specimens that are visibly bloody.

Q3) Class III biological safety cabinets:

A) sterilize the air as it passes over the material in the cabinet.

B) protect the environment from contamination by biological agents by filtering the air as it is exhausted from the cabinet.

C) are completely enclosed and have gloves that enable the worker to manipulate the material in the cabinet.

D) are often called laminar flow hoods.

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Specimen Management

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Q1) Colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae appear alpha-hemolytic on blood agar media.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The lot of blood agar may be expired.

B) Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae since it should be beta-hemolytic on blood agar.

C) Something may be wrong with the strain of S. pneumoniae; it should be gamma-hemolytic on blood agar.

D) No discrepancy is present. S. pneumoniae should be alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.

Q2) The best anticoagulant to prevent clotting of specimens, such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid, which are submitted for recovery of all types of microorganisms, is:

A) sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).

B) heparin.

C) citrate.

D) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).

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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy

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Q1) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is:

A) calcofluor white.

B) acridine orange.

C) auramine.

D) immunofluorescence.

Q2) In microscopy, resolution can be defined as the:

A) magnification power.

B) extent to which detail in the magnified object is maintained.

C) ability of objects to stand out from the background.

D) ability to see objects against a black background.

Q3) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain:

A) teichoic acids.

B) mycolic acids.

C) peptidoglycan.

D) disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.

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8

Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification

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Q1) An oxidase test was performed on two organisms for quality control purposes.Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Stenotrophomonas maltophilia tested positive and negative, respectively.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The oxidase reagent is most likely expired.

B) The organisms are most likely old and therefore are not properly reacting.

C) These organisms are poor choices for quality control purposes; both are oxidase-negative organisms.

D) No discrepancy is present. The correct results are obtained.

Q2) The most medically important bacteria sought in the medical laboratory are cultivated using incubators with temperatures maintained in what range?

A) 35° to 37° C

B) 30° to 35° C

C) 37° to 39° C

D) 25° to 35° C

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9

Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for

Microbial Identification and Characterization

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Q1) The ability of two nucleic acid strands, a probe and a target, which have complementary base sequences that specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule, drives which of the following methods?

A) Hybridization

B) Sequencing

C) Amplification (PCR)

D) Genotypic

Q2) Gen-Probe Mycobacterium tuberculosis direct test uses which type of nucleic acid amplification test?

A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)

B) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

C) Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)

D) Standard displacement amplification (SDA)

Q3) The optimal way to detect PCR amplicons is to use which stain?

A) Methylene blue

B) Malachite green

C) Bromothymol blue

D) Ethidium bromide

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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism

Detection

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Q1) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up the migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as:

A) double immunodiffusion.

B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.

C) particle agglutination.

D) enzyme immunoassay.

Q2) A positive latex agglutination test was observed in a sample containing Cryptococcus neoformans.The specimen of choice to identify this pathogen is:

A) urine.

B) blood.

C) stool.

D) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

Q3) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:

A) extensive training is not necessary.

B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.

C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.

D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases

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Q1) Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by:

A) lymphocytes of the T class.

B) lymphocytes of the B class.

C) neutrophils.

D) basophils.

Q2) A positive test was observed on a serum sample that resulted in the formation of a fine precipitate on a reaction card.The most likely organism serologically identified is:

A) Chlamydia trachomatis.

B) Bacillus anthracis.

C) Treponema pallidum.

D) Toxoplasma gondii.

Q3) The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called:

A) immunology.

B) immunohematology.

C) serology.

D) immunocytology.

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12

Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance

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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive organism that produces the enzyme beta-lactamase, which renders certain types of antibiotics inactive.The mode of action that is prevented in certain antibiotics sensitive to this enzyme is:

A) cell wall synthesis.

B) protein synthesis to the 30S ribosomal subunit.

C) protein synthesis to the 50S ribosomal subunit.

D) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Q2) Vancomycin

A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition

B)Cell membrane function inhibition

C)Protein synthesis inhibition

D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition

Q3) The mechanism of acquired, high-level resistance to vancomycin involves:

A) enzymatic destruction of the antibiotic.

B) altered antibiotic targets.

C) decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.

D) production of altered cell wall precursors that do not bind the antibiotic with sufficient avidity.

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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

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Q1) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate the categories of susceptible, intermediate, and resistant are called:

A) MICs.

B) tolerance limits.

C) breakpoints.

D) border concentrations.

Q2) The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)result recorded in antimicrobial testing can be defined as the:

A) maximum concentration of antimicrobial agent that should be used for optimal therapy.

B) minimum concentration of antimicrobial agent that should be used for optimal therapy.

C) lowest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth.

D) highest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth.

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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which group of bacteria is described as catalase positive and is gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and form grapelike clusters?

A) Neisseria

B) Rothia (stomatococci)

C) Staphylococcus

D) Micrococcus

Q2) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:

A) penicillin test.

B) Gram stain.

C) oxidase test.

D) coagulase test.

Q3) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?

A) Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis

B) S. epidermidis and Enterococcus

C) Aerococcus and Enterococcus

D) Micrococcus and Aerococcus

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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces incomplete hemolysis and a greening discoloration of the medium?

A) Beta hemolysis

B) Gamma hemolysis

C) Alpha hemolysis

D) Kappa hemolysis

Q2) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages, and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?

A) Beta-hemolytic and susceptible to optochin

B) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-negative

C) Gamma-hemolytic and resistant to optochin

D) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-positive

Q3) Erythrogenic toxin, hyaluronidase enzyme, and hemolysins S and O are extracellular products of:

A) Enterococcus faecalis.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) S. pyogenes.

D) S. agalactiae.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) A U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-cleared immunochromatographic test produces a red line on the cassette and can presumptively identify which gram-positive Bacillus that is nonhemolytic and morphologically has a "Medusa head" appearance when grown on 5% sheep blood agar?

A) Bacillus subtilis

B) B. cereus

C) B. mycoides

D) B. anthracis

Q2) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?

A) B. cereus

B) B. subtilis

C) B. thuringiensis

D) B. anthracis

Q3) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus species can be accomplished with _____ agar.

A) 5% sheep blood

B) PLET acetate

C) bicarbonate

D) urea

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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?

A) C. ulcerans and C. diphtheria (subsp. mitis)

B) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis) and C. diphtheria (subsp. intermedius)

C) C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis

D) C. diphtheria (subsp. belfanti) and C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis)

Q2) The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for:

A) listeriosis.

B) diphtheria.

C) pertussis.

D) tetanus.

Q3) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style, feta, Brie, Camembert, and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:

A) foodborne listeriosis.

B) staphylococcal food poisoning.

C) gastric gangrene.

D) Salmonella infection.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) To test the validity of TSI media, quality control should be performed using which two organisms?

A) Gardnerella and Lactobacillus

B) Erysipelothrix and Gardnerella

C) Propionibacterium and Lactobacillus

D) Actinomyces and Arcanobacterium

Q2) A gram-positive bacillus identified as Lactobacillus is isolated in large quantities from the urine of a 16-year-old female.Based on this information, the patient should receive which antibiotic?

A) Penicillin

B) Tetracycline

C) Vancomycin

D) No antibiotics should be administered.

Q3) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, nonbranching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:

A) Corynebacterium.

B) Bacillus.

C) Actinomyces.

D) Erysipelothrix.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The organism that has been most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in patients who are immunocompromised, such as those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), is:

A) Rhodococcus.

B) Gordonia.

C) Tsukamurella.

D) Streptomyces.

Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called _____ hyphae.

A) surface

B) substrate

C) aerial

D) topical

Q3) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:

A) Nocardia.

B) Rhodococcus.

C) Streptomyces.

D) Gordona.

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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae

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Q1) Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified on the basis of which characteristic?

A) Spot indole-positive

B) Citrate-positive

C) Methyl red-negative

D) Urease-positive

Q2) On MacConkey agar, Serratia spp.would appear:

A) red.

B) colorless.

C) green.

D) yellow.

Q3) The major etiologic agent of urinary tract infections is:

A) Escherichia coli.

B) Shigella spp.

C) Salmonella spp.

D) Vibrio spp.

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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms

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Q1) Which organism is oxidase-negative, oxidizes glucose, and is a nonlactose fermenter?

A) Escherichia

B) Pseudomonas

C) Acinetobacter

D) Moraxella

Q2) Of the following species, which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?

A) Pseudomonas luteola

B) Acinetobacter spp.

C) Pseudomonas oryzihabitans

D) Bordetella trematum

Q3) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?

A) Acinetobacter spp.

B) Bordetella trematum

C) Burkholderia gladioli

D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) An organism described as oxidase-positive, (K/NC)on TSI media, growth at 42° C, and produces a bright bluish-green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely:

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

B) Ralstonia pickettii.

C) Burkholderia mallei.

D) Burkholderia pseudomallei.

Q2) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain, which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?

A) Burkholderia mallei

B) Pseudomonas pseudomallei

C) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group

D) Brevundimonas diminuta

Q3) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?

A) Burkholderia ralstonia

B) Burkholderia pseudomallei

C) Burkholderia mallei

D) Burkholderia cepacia

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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?

A) Psychrobacter immobilis

B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans

C) Rhizobium radiobacter

D) Shewanella putrefaciens

Q2) Which of the following organisms has clear colonies on MacConkey agar, oxidizes glucose and xylose, and has the ability to hydrolyze esculin?

A) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans

B) Paracoccus yeei

C) Rhizobium radiobacter

D) Shewanella putrefaciens

Q3) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as the:

A) mucous membranes of animals.

B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.

C) natural environment.

D) genitourinary tract of animals.

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Page 24

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Q1) A patient receiving hemodialysis began spiking a fever shortly after his treatment.Blood cultures were drawn and grew out the following gram negative rods that were indole positive with variable results for urea, nitrate reduction and gelatin.The organism is most likely:

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica.

B) Empedobacter brevis.

C) CDC group O-1.

D) Chryseobacterium spp.

Q2) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?

A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis

B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum

D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum

Q3) On Gram stain, which organism appears thin in the center and thicker at the ends?

A) Agrobacterium yellow group

B) CDC groups EO-3 and EO-4

C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

D) Empedobacter brevis

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Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,

Comamonas, and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The biochemical description of Myroides is:

A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.

B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.

C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.

D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.

Q2) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?

A) Bordetella bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus

B) Achromobacter denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis

C) Achromobacter piechaudii and Bordetella bronchiseptica

D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Alcaligenes-like group 1 and Cupriavidus pauculus

Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the _________ species.

A) Brucella

B) Bordetella

C) Pasteurella

D) Francisella

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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms

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Q1) Stool specimens suspected of containing which of the following enteric pathogens should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?

A) Vibrio

B) Salmonella

C) Shigella

D) Plesiomonas

Q2) The selective medium, thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)agar, is especially formulated for isolating what pathogen from stool cultures?

A) Vibrio

B) Salmonella

C) Shigella

D) Plesiomonas

Q3) Vibrio cholera and V.alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?

A) Green

B) Black

C) Yellow

D) Blue

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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?

A) Penicillin

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Flagyl

D) Imipenem

Q2) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:

A) Pseudomonas.

B) Vibrio.

C) Stenotrophomonas.

D) Sphingomonas.

Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?

A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.

B) Habitats are unknown.

C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.

D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms

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Q1) Testing for differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be performed by:

A) the ability to utilize acetate.

B) the ability to liquefy serum.

C) glucose utilization tests.

D) growth on MacConkey agar.

Q2) The virulence of this organism(s), which is transmitted via a dog bite, is attributed to:

A) protease production.

B) various toxins.

C) hemolysins.

D) something unknown.

Q3) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella)catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:

A) comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.

B) subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.

C) identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobial agents.

D) performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test.

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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?

A) 4º C

B) 25º C

C) 35º C

D) 56º C

Q2) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?

A) Eikenella corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.

B) Weeksella virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum

C) Bergeyella zoohelcum and Escherichia coli

D) Eikenella corrodens and Weeksella virosa

Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?

A) Eikenella corrodens

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pseudomonas maltophilia

D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms

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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving:

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis.

B) Eikenella corrodens.

C) Pasteurella multocida.

D) Weeksella virosa.

Q2) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the nitrate reduction test?

A) Pasteurella aerogenes and Pasteurella dagmatis

B) Mannheimia haemolytica and Pasteurella pneumotropica

C) Pasteurella multocida and Suttonella indologenes

D) Pasteurella canis and Pasteurella bettyae

Q3) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?

A) Indole

B) Catalase

C) Nitrate

D) Sucrose

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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,

Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar

Organisms

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Q1) Which organism is slightly alpha-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?

A) Kingella kingae

B) Cardiobacterium hominis

C) Actinobacillus suis

D) Capnocytophaga spp.

Q2) Which organism can cause granulomatous disease in animals and has been associated with soft-tissue infection in humans after animal bites?

A) Sphingomonas paucimobilis

B) Weeksella virosa

C) Pasteurella multocida

D) Actinobacillus spp.

Q3) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?

A) Actinobacillus

B) Capnocytophaga

C) Cardiobacterium

D) Kingella

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Haemophilus

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Q1) Chancroid is the sexually transmitted disease caused by:

A) Haemophilus influenzae.

B) H. ducreyi.

C) H. aphrophilus.

D) H. parainfluenzae.

Q2) Haemophilus ducreyi requires what special media to grow?

A) Heart-infusion-based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

B) Mueller-Hinton-based chocolate agar, supplemented with 1% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

C) Heart infusion-based chocolate agar, supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum and vancomycin

D) Mueller-Hinton-based agar, supplemented with 10% IsoVitaleX and vancomycin

Q3) Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?

A) 5% sheep blood agar

B) Brain-heart infusion agar

C) Chocolate agar

D) Nutrient agar

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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia

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Q1) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?

A) B. bacilliformis

B) B. henselae

C) B. elizabethae

D) B. clarridgeiae

Q2) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:

A) probes.

B) polymerases.

C) primers.

D) restriction enzymes.

Q3) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:

A) Afipia felis.

B) Bartonella quintana.

C) B. clarridgeiae.

D) B. henselae.

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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter

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Q1) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?

A) 37º C under microaerobic conditions

B) 37º C under anaerobic conditions

C) 42º C under microaerobic conditions

D) 42º C under anaerobic conditions

Q2) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by:

A) direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.

B) contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.

C) multiplication of the organism in food products.

D) direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.

Q3) Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria?

A) Campylobacter

B) Helicobacter

C) Arcobacter

D) Enterobacter

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Chapter 34: Legionella

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Q1) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative, faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?

A) Fluoroquinolones

B) Erythromycin

C) Penicillin

D) Aminoglycosides

Q2) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:

A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).

B) Regan-Lowe agar.

C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.

D) blood and chocolate agars.

Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?

A) L-cysteine and iron

B) Blood and cysteine

C) Dopa-cysteine

D) Nicotinic adenine

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Chapter 35: Brucella

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Q1) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?

A) Penicillin and azithromycin

B) Ampicillin and gentamycin

C) Doxycycline and rifampin

D) Gentamycin and vancomycin

Q2) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:

A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.

B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.

C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.

D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.

Q3) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:

A) dairy farmers.

B) fishermen.

C) prison guards.

D) those working with exotic birds.

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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and

Related Species

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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough)is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the:

A) Brucella spp.

B) Bordetella spp.

C) Pasteurella spp.

D) Francisella spp.

Q2) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar, and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain, which is also positive.On the basis of these findings, the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:

A) azithromycin.

B) gentamycin.

C) streptomycin.

D) imipenem.

Q3) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:

A) runny nose and mild cough.

B) severe and violent coughing.

C) neutrocytosis and fever.

D) lymphadenitis.

Page 38

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Chapter 37: Francisella

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Q1) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:

A) is oxidase-negative.

B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.

C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.

D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.

Q2) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:

A) blood.

B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

C) lymph nodes.

D) urine.

Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?

A) Brucella

B) Bordetella

C) Pasteurella

D) Francisella

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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum

Minus

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Q1) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, which is characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, as well as a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities?

A) Streptobacillus moniliformis

B) Brucella abortus

C) Bordetella spp.

D) Pasteurella spp.

Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is: A) Sodoku.

B) Haverhill fever.

C) monillic fever.

D) monillic gastritis.

Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:

A) Sodoku.

B) Haverhill fever.

C) monillic fever.

D) monillic gastritis.

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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis

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Q1) Gram-negative diplococci are isolated from a genital specimen and yield the following results: · Glucose: positive

· Maltose: negative

· Lactose: negative

The organism can be identified as:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

B) N. meningitidis.

C) N. lactamica.

D) Moraxella catarrhalis.

Q2) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.

A) hydrogen (H2)

B) carbon dioxide (CO2)

C) nitrogen (N2)

D) nitrate (NO3)

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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations

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Q1) Nasopharyngeal swab is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q2) Thioglycollate broth

A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.

B)Inhibits gram-negative rods

C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes

D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria

E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile

Q3) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:

A) acceptable.

B) not acceptable.

Q4) LKV blood agar

A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.

B)Inhibits gram-negative rods

C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes

D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria

E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile

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Page 42

Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms

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Q1) Fecal cultures to isolate Clostridium difficile are plated on:

A) anaerobic blood agar.

B) LKV blood agar.

C) aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.

D) cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA).

Q2) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:

A) nonpigmented Prevotella.

B) Porphyromonas spp.

C) Bacteroides fragilis group.

D) Fusobacterium spp.

Q3) The ethanol shock or heat shock test will separate which two bacteria?

A) Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium ramosum

B) Clostridium and Bifidobacterium

C) Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium

D) Eubacterium and Eggerthella

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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria

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Q1) Mycobacterium fortuitum, M.chelonae, and M.abscessus are:

A) responsible for approximately 90% of clinical mycobacterial disease.

B) unable to grow on routine bacteriologic media.

C) gram-negative rods resembling Escherichia coli on Gram stain.

D) slow growers requiring a minimum of 14 days to grow.

Q2) The type of specimen collected for mycobacterial studies that must be neutralized with 10% sodium carbonate is:

A) spontaneously produced sputum.

B) gastric lavage.

C) transtracheal aspiration.

D) bronchial lavage.

Q3) Quality control is performed to test the validity of catalase production at 68° C.M.fortuitum and M.tuberculosis are used, which yield a positive and negative reaction, respectively.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) Both organisms were most likely incubated at the wrong temperature.

B) Both organisms were most likely incubated on the wrong media before testing.

C) The catalase reagent is most likely expired.

D) No discrepancy is present. M. fortuitum is catalase-positive and M. tuberculosis is catalase-negative at 68° C.

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Page 44

Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents

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Q1) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages, which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein, in almost every organ system.Without treatment, this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:

A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

B) IFA.

C) immunoblotting.

D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Q2) Of the following organisms, which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?

A) Rickettsia

B) Chlamydia

C) Calymmatobacterium

D) Coxiella

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Chapter

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Q1) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:

A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).

C) latex agglutination.

D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

Q2) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?

A) Ureaplasma urealyticum

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) M. hominis

D) M. genitalium

Q3) Media that can be used for the isolation of Mycoplasma include:

A) Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.

B) 5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.

C) beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.

D) hemin and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) supplements.

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Page 46

Chapter 45: The Spirochetes

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Q1) A specific treponemal serologic test performed by overlaying whole treponemes that are fixed to a slide with serum from patients suspected of having syphilis and using fluorescein-conjugated antihuman antibody reagent to detect specific antitreponemal antibodies is called the _________ test.

A) RPR

B) FTA-ABS

C) VDRL

D) TP-PA

Q2) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?

A) Treponema

B) Borrelia

C) Leptospira

D) Brachyspira

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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic

Infections: Overview

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Q1) The parasite Toxoplasma gondii is acquired via the ingestion of infected oocysts from cat feces.A diagnosis is primarily made through:

A) examination of stool.

B) examination of blood films.

C) observance of "jerky" motility.

D) serologic means.

Q2) A bone marrow aspirate is examined for the presence of parasites from a patient who has been traveling in Latin America for several months and who came in contact with a triatomid bug.Which parasite will most likely be identified?

A) Trypanosoma cruzi

B) Dientamoeba fragilis

C) Fasciola hepatica

D) Chilomastix mesnili

Q3) A modified acid-fast stain is performed on lung tissue.The most likely organism that will be observed is:

A) Naegleria fowleri.

B) Mansonella streptocerca.

C) Giardia lamblia.

D) Cryptosporidium spp.

Page 48

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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa

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Q1) A tissue sample is sent to the laboratory and microscopically examined for the presence of amebae.To differentiate between the host cells and the organism, _______ stain is used to allow the organisms to appear bright pink with a green-blue background.

A) trichrome

B) Giemsa

C) Wright

D) periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)

Q2) A patient is diagnosed with a severe intestinal disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica.Which of the following treatments should be administered?

A) Diloxanide furoate

B) Metronidazole

C) Metronidazole plus iodoquinol

D) Iodoquinol and diloxanide furoate

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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa

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Q1) The vector Glossina palpalis group transmits the Trypanosoma brucei gambiense organism.The diagnostic stage is the:

A) amastigote.

B) epimastigote.

C) trypomastigote.

D) promastigote.

Q2) P.malariae

A)Normal shape and size

B)Normal shape; size may be normal or slightly smaller

C)1.5 to 2.0 times larger than normal; oval to normal

D)60% of cells are larger than normal and oval

Q3) The most frequent clinical signs of chronic Chagas disease involve the enlargement of which organ?

A) Heart

B) Liver

C) Spleen

D) Lung

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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa

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Q1) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?

A) Naegleria fowleri

B) Acanthamoeba spp.

C) Toxoplasma gondii

D) Balamuthia mandrillaris

Q2) Bradyzoites

A)Crescent-shaped

B)Oocysts from cat feces

C)Tissue cysts

Q3) Sporozoites

A)Crescent-shaped

B)Oocysts from cat feces

C)Tissue cysts

Q4) Trichomoniasis is the primary nonviral sexually transmitted disease worldwide.One complication of this infection is:

A) keratitis.

B) endometritis.

C) meningitis.

D) appendicitis.

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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) A short buccal capsule, large bulb on the esophagus, and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?

A) Trichuris trichiura

B) Capillaria philippinensis

C) Strongyloides stercoralis

D) Ascaris lumbricoides

Q2) Rhabditiform larvae measuring 275 mmicrons with a long buccal capsule and a small genital primordium was identified as hookworm.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) A technical error occurred in identification.

B) The larvae characteristics represent Strongyloides stercoralis; therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.

C) The larvae characteristics represent pinworm; therefore the organism was incorrectly reported out.

D) No error occurred. Hookworm is the correct identification for an organism with these characteristics.

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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms

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Q1) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:

A) normal.

B) insignificant.

C) diagnostic.

D) negative.

Q2) Copepods

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

Q3) Snails

A)Dracunculus medinensis

B)Parastrongylus cantonensis

C)Trichinella spp.

D)Parastrongylus costaricensis

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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes

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Q1) Onchocerca volvulus

A)Tabanid fly

B)Biting midges

C)Anopheles mosquito

D)Black fly

E)Biting midges.

Q2) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by Wuchereria bancrofti is:

A) calabar swelling.

B) elephantiasis.

C) river blindness.

D) pruritic rash.

Q3) Loa loa

A)Tabanid fly

B)Biting midges

C)Anopheles mosquito

D)Black fly

E)Biting midges.

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54

Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes

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Q1) The double-pored tapeworm, Diphyllobothrium caninum, consisting of many small proglottids, measures 10 to 70 cm in length as an adult.The scolex contains four suckers and an armed rostellum.The intermediate host in which infective cysticercoids develop is the:

A) dog.

B) cat.

C) flea.

D) human.

Q2) The Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm can reach up to 10 meters in length and can have more than 3000 to 4000 proglottids.The definitive host and reservoir host, respectively, are:

A) fish and copepods.

B) crustaceans and humans.

C) copepods and crustaceans.

D) humans and fish.

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55

Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes

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Q1) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?

A) Taenia solium

B) Echinococcus granulosus

C) Spirometra mansonoides

D) Echinococcus multilocularis

Q2) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:

A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.

B) observance of eggs in the stool.

C) positive India ink stain.

D) identification of cysts in tissue.

Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?

A) Coenurosis

B) Cysticercosis

C) Hydatid disease

D) Sparganosis

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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes

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Q1) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater:

A) fish.

B) snails.

C) crabs.

D) crayfish.

Q2) The adult form of the fluke, Fasciolopsis buski, is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is:

A) snails.

B) birds.

C) rodents.

D) dogs.

Q3) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:

A) snails.

B) fish.

C) crabs.

D) shrimp.

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Page 57

Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes

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Q1) Southeast Asian liver fluke

A)Opisthorchis viverrini

B)Fasciola spp.

C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis

D)Paragonimus westermani

Q2) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?

A) Snail

B) Crustacean

C) Copepod

D) Freshwater fish

Q3) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:

A) praziquantel.

B) bithionol.

C) albendazole.

D) benzimidazole.

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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes

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Q1) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 microns long by 40 to 70 microns wide and have a sharp, pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?

A) Ascites fluid

B) Sputum

C) Bile

D) Urine

Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?

A) S. mansoni

B) S. japonicum

C) S. haematobium

D) S. mekongi

Q3) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?

A) S. japonicum

B) S. haematobium

C) S. mansoni

D) S. intercalatum

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59

Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies

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Q1) Urea agar is set up for quality control purposes using two Trichophyton spp.-T.mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.After the appropriate amount of incubation, both organisms are negative.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) The medium is most likely expired.

B) These two Trichophyton spp. are poor choices for quality control.

C) The phenol red indicator is not working because both organisms are positive for urea.

D) No discrepancy is present; both organisms are negative for urease activity.

Q2) Which phylum exhibits both a teleomorph and an anamorph form?

A) Ascomycota

B) Basidiomycota

C) Deuteromycota

D) Zygomycota

Q3) An example of a dimorphic fungus is:

A) Candida albicans.

B) Coccidioides immitis.

C) Cryptococcus neoformans.

D) Aspergillus fumigatus.

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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,

Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses

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Q1) A fungus is recovered from a nail scrapping.Microscopic examination reveals numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate macroconidia; however, microconidia are absent.The organism can be identified as:

A) Microsporum canis.

B) Epidermophyton floccosum.

C) Trichophyton rubrum.

D) Microsporum gypseum.

Q2) Which organism produces mostly shades of green or blue-green colonies? Microscopically, hyphae are hyaline and septate and produce brushlike conidiophores.

A) Paecilomyces

B) Acremonium

C) Scopulariopsis

D) Penicillium

Q3) A pulmonary fungus ball and external otomycosis and onychomycosis are all infections caused by which genera?

A) Fusarium

B) Penicillium

C) Paecilomyces

D) Aspergillus

Page 61

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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds

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Q1) Macroscopic examination of granules from lesions of mycetoma reveal them to be white to yellow and 0.2 to 2 mm in diameter.Microscopically, the granules consist of loosely arranged, intertwined septate hyaline hyphae cemented together.Which organism can cause a mycetoma infection?

A) Fonsecaea spp.

B) Exophiala dermatitidis

C) Cladosporium spp.

D) Pseudallescheria boydii

Q2) This fundus exhibits cup- or flask-shaped collarette.

A)Phialophora

B)Fonsecaea

C)Alternaria

D)Bipolaris

E)Cladosporium

F)Culvaria

G)Exophiala

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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis

Jiroveci

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Q1) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?

A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)

B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)

C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)

D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Q2) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?

A) Metronidazole

B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination

C) Aminoglycosides with fluconazole

D) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

Q3) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?

A) Malaria

B) Cystic fibrosis

C) Cytomegalovirus

D) Myasthenia gravis

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Chapter 62: The Yeasts

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Q1) Tinea versicolor is a skin infection characterized by superficial brownish scaly areas most often on the trunk, arms, or shoulders.Which type of replacement therapy places patients at risk for developing this type of skin infection?

A) Hormone

B) Lipid

C) Saccharide

D) Gene

Q2) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.Cultures are performed, and yeast is recovered.His diagnosis is most likely:

A) paronychia.

B) onychomycosis.

C) candidemia.

D) thrush.

Q3) Creamy, white patches

A)Trichosporon spp.

B)Candida albicans

C)Malassezia furfur

D)Cryptococcus neoformans

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64

Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention

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Q1) The Reference Method for Broth Dilution Antifungal Susceptibility Testing of Filamentous Fungi; Approved Standard (M38-A)describes the guidelines for antifungal susceptibility testing for molds.The suspension must be standardized with a spectrophotometer.Susceptibility testing is determined by which method?

A) Disk diffusion

B) Microdilution

C) Broth dilution

D) Immunodiffusion

Q2) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

Q3) Alters membrane permeability

A)Amphotericin B

B)Griseofulvin

C)5-Fluorocytosine

D)Echinocandin

E)Azole

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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology

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Q1) Primary cell line

A)HEp-2 culture cells

B)Monkey kidney cells

C)Fibroblast cells

Q2) List these six steps of viral replication in order of appearance. Assembly Uncoating Attachment

Release Synthesis Penetration

Q3) Respiratory

A)Adenovirus

B)HSV

C)HBV

D)Arbovirus

Q4) Vesicular

A)Adenovirus

B)HSV

C)HBV

D)Arbovirus

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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease

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Q1) Herpangina

A)Coxsackie A

B)Coxsackie B

Q2) Burkitt lymphoma

A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1

B)HSV type 2

C)Zoster

D)Varicella

E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

F)CMV

G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8

Q3) Adenoviruses are responsible for causing diseases such as keratoconjunctivitis, pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, and gastroenteritis in children.Transmission is usually via:

A) contact with rodent urine.

B) respiratory secretions.

C) arthropod vector.

D) sexual contact.

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Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention

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Q1) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA)or neuraminidase (NA)genes during viral ribonucleoprotein (RNP)replication give rise to new strains.This mechanism is known as the antigenic:

A) drift.

B) shift.

C) re-assortment.

D) modification.

Q2) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.

A)Phenotypic assay

B)Plaque reduction assay

C)Du assay

D)Flow cytometry

E)Genotypic susceptibility assay

F)Pyrosequencing

Q3) Saquinavir

A)HSV

B)Influenza A

C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

E)HIV

68

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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections

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Q1) A 26-year-old woman who has a Gardnerella vaginalis infection becomes immunocompromised, which causes the organism to enter the bloodstream.She has several fever spikes; therefore blood cultures are drawn and placed in blood culture media containing sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).After 5 days of incubation, the blood cultures are negative.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?

A) G. vaginalis stays localized in the female genital tract and does not enter the bloodstream.

B) The blood culture media is most likely expired.

C) The automated blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.

D) G. vaginalis is usually inhibited by this anticoagulant, making recovery difficult.

Q2) The BACTEC automated blood culture system detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon dioxide (CO )levels using which type of sensor?

A) Fluorescence

B) Colorimetric

C) Isotopic

D) Saponin

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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract

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Q1) Adenoviruses are one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among:

A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.

B) adults younger than 30 years of age.

C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.

D) school-age children.

Q2) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates:

A) nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.

B) promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.

C) can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.

D) reduce colonization of normal bacterial flora.

Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:

A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.

B) adults younger than 30 years of age.

C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.

D) school-age children.

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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other

Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck

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Q1) Also called acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or trench mouth, which condition is a mixed bacterial spirochetal infection of the gingival edge?

A) Laryngitis

B) Laryngotracheobronchitis

C) Epiglottitis

D) Vincent angina

Q2) An inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus is:

A) laryngitis.

B) pharyngitis.

C) Vincent angina.

D) stomatitis.

Q3) Most cases of pharyngitis occur during the colder months and are primarily caused by:

A) Streptococcus pyogenes.

B) viruses.

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

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Chapter

Nervous System

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Q1) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:

A) meningoencephalitis.

B) aseptic meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) pleocytosis.

Q2) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:

A) dura mater.

B) meninges.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

Q3) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:

A) dura mater.

B) meninges.

C) arachnoid.

D) pia mater.

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Page 72

Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses

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Q1) Canaliculitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

Q2) Orbital cellulitis

A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria

B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal

C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema

D)Infection of the cornea

Q3) Blepharitis

A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae

B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice

C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic

E)Chlamydia

F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium

G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract

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Q1) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is:

A) Escherichia coli.

B) Klebsiella spp.

C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

D) Streptococcus pyogenes.

Q2) Cystitis

A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract

B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection

C)Infection of the bladder

D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture

E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis

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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections

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Q1) The predominant organisms in vaginal secretions from normal prepubescent girls and postmenopausal women are:

A) lactobacilli.

B) Streptococcus agalactiae.

C) Enterobacteriaceae.

D) staphylococci.

Q2) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 38-year-old woman would likely grow primarily:

A) group B beta-hemolytic streptococci.

B) staphylococci and corynebacteria.

C) lactobacilli, Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, and staphylococci.

D) Gardnerella vaginalis, Prevotella spp., Peptostreptococcus spp., and Mobiluncus spp.

Q3) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching is referred to as:

A) chorioamnionitis.

B) bartholinitis.

C) cervicitis.

D) vaginitis.

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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

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Q1) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Q2) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

Q3) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?

A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species

B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others

C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens

D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others

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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections

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Q1) A 36-year-old man enters the emergency department with lesions that are painful, red, swollen, and indurated.He is febrile and exhibiting regional lymphadenopathy (swollen glands).The lesions are marked and well demarcated with a raised border.Which organism is most likely responsible for causing this infection?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Microsporum spp.

D) Bacteroides fragilis group

Q2) If a Wood's lamp examination of skin lesions reveals a golden-yellow fluorescence, then what superficial mycoses are expected?

A) Malassezia furfur

B) Trichosporon spp.

C) Candida albicans

D) Cryptococcus neoformans

Q3) The causative agents of lumpy jaw are:

A) Clostridium spp.

B) Bacteroides spp.

C) Prevotella spp.

D) Actinomyces spp.

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Page 77

Marrow, and Solid Tissues

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Q1) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:

A) grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.

B) placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.

C) centrifugation with glass beads.

D) filtration under pressure.

Q2) Fluids should be processed for direct microscopic examination.If one organism is observed per oil immersion field, then at least _____ organisms per milliliter of specimen are present.

A) 102

B) 103

C) 104

D) 105

Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

C) Haemophilus influenzae.

D) Streptococcus agalactiae.

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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory

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Q1) Nonfastidious (rapidly growing), aerobic bacterial organisms can be saved up to 1 year on __________ slants.

A) mycosel agar

B) MacConkey agar

C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium

D) trypticase soy agar (TSA)

Q2) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is, potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):

A) elevated thyroid level.

B) positive urine culture.

C) positive blood culture.

D) elevated sodium level.

Q3) Protocol for testing susceptibility test systems include testing _____ consecutive days.

A) daily for 7

B) bi-weekly for 30

C) every other day for 14

D) with use for 20

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Chapter 78: Infection Control

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Q1) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?

A) Haemophilus influenza

B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

C) Parvovirus B19

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q2) Surveillance cultures are in place to monitor infections implicated in cooling towers or hot water sources.Health care professionals are interested in limiting outbreaks with which organism in water supplies?

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B) Legionella spp.

C) Shigella spp.

D) Cyclospora spp.

Q3) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins)is:

A) biotyping.

B) antibiograms.

C) serotyping.

D) bacteriocin typing.

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Page 80

Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism

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Q1) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:

A) biosecurity.

B) biocrime.

C) microterrorism.

D) cactiterrorism.

Q2) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):

A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.

B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.

C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.

D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.

Q3) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?

A) Clinical

B) Sentinel

C) Reference

D) National

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