Microbiology for Life Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamentals of microbiology and its significance within the life sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, and diversity of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Emphasis is placed on microbial physiology, genetics, metabolism, and the role of microbes in health, disease, and the environment. The course also covers practical techniques for the safe handling and study of microorganisms, as well as current applications in biotechnology, medicine, and environmental science. Through lectures and laboratory activities, students gain essential knowledge and skills that form the basis for advanced studies and research in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Q1) In general,eukaryotic cells are about ______ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells.
A) 2
B) 10
C) 50
D) 1000
Answer: B
Q2) Organisms called parasites are ______.
A) the decomposers in ecosystems
B) always viruses
C) always harmful to their host
D) free-living
Answer: C
Q3) The number one worldwide infectious diseases are ______.
A) AIDS-related diseases
B) malaria and other protozoan diseases
C) respiratory diseases
D) measles and other rash diseases
E) diarrheal diseases
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Q1) Nucleic acids have primary,secondary,tertiary,and quaternary levels of organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The building blocks of an enzyme are ______.
A) nucleotides
B) monosaccharides
C) amino acids
D) glycerol and fatty acids
E) phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids
Answer: C
Q3) The electrons of an atom are
A) moving in pathways called orbitals.
B) used to determine atomic number.
C) positively charged.
D) always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
E) found in the nucleus.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A) Bright-field
B) Fluorescence
C) Electron
D) Dark-field
E) Phase-contrast
Answer: C
Q2) The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ______.
A) identification
B) isolation
C) incubation
D) infection
E) inoculation
Answer: D
Q3) A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment,the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the ______.
A) slime layer
B) capsule
C) endospore
D) cell membrane
E) cell wall
Q2) Bacterial endospores are produced by ______.
A) Entamoeba
B) Bacillus
C) Mycoplasma
D) Staphylococcus
Q3) Mycobacterium and Nocardia are distinguished from other bacteria by the ______ stain.
A) endospore
B) basic
C) methylene blue
D) Gram
E) acid-fast
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) Protozoan cysts are
A) analogous to bacterial endospores.
B) part of all protozoan life cycles.
C) the primary form of replication.
D) necessary for transmission to a new host.
E) are produced by binary fission.
Q2) A saprobe differs from a parasite in that
A) a saprobe has the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores.
B) a saprobe derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals.
C) a saprobe has a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite has true hyphae.
D) a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan.
Q3) A group of protozoa that are not motile are the ______.
A) Plasmodium sp.
B) ciliates
C) amoebas
D) dimorphics
E) trophozoites
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Q1) Viral classification has changed over the years and while they are given genus names,the use of species names has not been widely accepted.This is because
A) viruses are not organisms.
B) viruses change over time making species characteristics difficult to stabilize.
C) viruses that could be classified into a single species may have many, but not all, properties in common.
D) All of the above are arguments against using species designations for viruses.
Q2) Select the statement that most accurately describes the action of antimicrobial drugs today.
A) Antiviral drug treatment is more effective than vaccination against a viral disease.
B) Effective antiviral drugs have a long history of development and use.
C) Antiviral drugs often result in toxic side effects due to their inhibition of host cell activity.
D) The development of antiviral drug resistance has not been observed, as compared to the high rate of antibiotic resistance seen today.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C,but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a(n)______.
A) thermophile
B) psychrophile
C) thermoduric microbe
D) extremophile
E) facultative psychrophile
Q2) In a close relationship,a change in one partner that results from a change in the other partner is termed ______.
A) mutualism
B) symbiosis
C) synergism
D) coevolution
E) antibiosis
Q3) Which of the following require the cell to use energy?
A) Osmosis
B) Diffusion
C) Facilitated diffusion
D) Endocytosis
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Q1) The light-harvesting units in the thylakoid membranes are the ______.
A) ATP synthases
B) electrons
C) ATP molecules
D) photosystems
E) grana
Q2) One turn of the Calvin cycle fixes a molecule of CO<sub>2</sub> gas and is driven by 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH from the light reactions.Which of the following is true?
A) It takes 3 turns of the cycle, 9 molecules of ATP, and 6 molecules of NADPH to make one molecule of glucose.
B) It takes 6 turns of the cycle, 18 molecules of ATP, and 12 molecules of NADPH to make a glucose molecule.
C) The cycle must be carried out in the dark.
D) The cycle is exergonic.
Q3) ATP is composed of deoxyribose,adenine,and three phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an
A) codon
B) exon
C) anticodon
D) intron
E) triplet
Q2) Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires
A) repressor alone bound to operator.
B) substrate bound to repressor.
C) substrate bound to promoter.
D) corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
Q3) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Introns have no detectable functions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Q1) One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome is because
A) it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an organism is constantly changing.
B) the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to understanding phenotypes.
C) it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly changing.
D) once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood.
Q2) Of the following choices,which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype?
A) Western Blot analysis
B) PCR
C) Microarray analysis
D) Transformation
E) Oryza sativa
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors will influence the action of microbial agents?
A) The number of microorganisms
B) The type of microorganisms present
C) Temperature and pH
D) Mode and dosage of the agent
E) All of the choices will influence the action.
Q2) Soaps and detergents are very effective as sterilants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the
A) thermal death point (TDP).
B) thermal death time (TDT).
C) sporicidal time.
D) death phase point.
Q4) Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Q1) There are fewer antifungal,antiprotozoan,and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi,protozoa,and helminths
A) do not cause many human infections.
B) are not affected by antimicrobials.
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve.
D) are parasites found inside human cells.
E) have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria.
Q2) Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)?
A) Sulfonamides
B) Sulfones
C) Fluoroquinolones
D) Polymyxins
E) Streptomyces
Q3) Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?
A) Penicillin G
B) Vancomycin
C) Tetracycline
D) Synercid
E) Isoniazid
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following genera are considered resident biota of skin sites except ______.
A) Escherichia
B) Staphylococcus
C) Corynebacterium
D) Micrococcus
E) Candida
Q2) Which of the following is a direct contact method of microbe transmission?
A) Fomites
B) Water
C) Droplet nuclei
D) Aerosols
E) Droplets
Q3) The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is ______.
A) pathology
B) clinical microbiology
C) medicine
D) immunology
E) epidemiology
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Q1) The second line of defense includes inflammation,phagocytosis,fever,and antimicrobial proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Your 81-year old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus.The doctor is urging surgical removal of the cancer,but you and the family are worried about the consequences of removing an entire organ such as the thymus.Which statement is correct?
A) Your grandfather would not be able to produce complement proteins necessary for pathogen control and inflammation.
B) Your grandfather will have a loss of T lymphocytes and will have an immune deficiency.
C) Your grandfather would not have sufficient phagocytic cells and would not be able to contain bacterial infections.
D) There is nothing to worry about; thymus removal will not affect your grandfather's immune status at his age.
Q3) The alternate complement pathway uses complement proteins C1,C2,and C4.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A) a booster.
B) gamma globulin.
C) an adjuvant.
D) a "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.
E) antibodies to toxin.
Q2) Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A) Delayed hypersensitivity T cells
B) Natural killer (NK) cells
C) Suppressor T cells
D) Helper T cells
E) Cytotoxic T cells
Q3) The structural and functional differences that distinguish immunoglobulin isotypes are due to variations associated with their Fc fragments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) You were out in the garage going through boxes when you were bitten by an a spider.You tell the doctor that the spider was tiny and black,causing the doctor to think perhaps that it was a black widow spider The doctor gives you an injection of antibody to the spider venom to give you immediate protection.The antibody is produced in horses by injecting them with small doses of the spider venom,causing the horse's immune system to make large amounts of specific antibody to the antigen.The horse serum is then purified before being given to humans.
A. a Staphylococcus infection related to the spider bite.
B. serum sickness.
C. a delayed type hypersensitivity mediated by cytotoxic T cells along with helper T cells.
D. Arthus reaction.
E. anaphylactic shock.
Q2) DiGeorge syndrome is the result of
A) autoantibodies.
B) a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
C) delayed hypersensitivity.
D) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
E) failure of B-cell development and maturity.
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine and fecal specimens require
A) sterile collection conditions.
B) incubation in differential media.
C) incubation in selective media.
D) Both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media are correct.
E) Both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not a genotypic method of identification?
A) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis
B) DNA analysis with probes
C) G + C composition
D) Direct antigen testing
E) rRNA sequencing
Q3) Nucleic acid testing is appropriate as a testing method when one is not sure what microorganisms are present in the specimen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct?
A) A child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease.
B) A pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child.
C) Administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella.
D) The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding vaccines as disease preventatives is incorrect?
A) Zostavax is recommended for older adults to prevent shingles.
B) The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river blindness.
C) There is currently no smallpox vaccine available to the general public.
D) Immunization is currently not possible against Clostridium perfringens.
Q3) All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Q1) Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases exhibits the highest mortality rate?
A) La Crosse encephalitis
B) Jamestown Canyon encephalitis
C) Eastern equine encephalitis
D) West Nile encephalitis
Q3) Place the following components of the nervous system anatomy in order from skull to brain.
A) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B) Subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
C) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
D) Arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
E) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space
Q4) No cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The presence of viruses in the blood is called ______.
A) septicemia
B) fungemia
C) viremia
D) hemovirus
Q2) Anthrax is not routinely diagnosed in the U.S.because
A) it is a rare infection.
B) infections are usually asymptomatic.
C) infection is generally only seen in late-stage AIDS patients.
D) health care workers haven't been trained to detect it.
Q3) Humans should be routinely vaccinated against Lyme disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Q1) What features of the respiratory system protect it from infection?
A) Nasal hairs
B) Cilia
C) Mucus
D) Macrophages
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to _______.
A) enterotoxins
B) hemolysins
C) toxic shock syndrome toxin
D) exfoliative toxin
E) erythrogenic toxin
Q3) The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are no infectious agents that can penetrate intact skin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following antigen types found in gram-negative enterics is mismatched?
A) H antigen - flagellar
B) K antigen - capsule
C) O antigen - cell wall
D) All of the choices are correct matches.
Q3) Which of the following is not a virulence factor associated with helminths?
A) Degradative enzymes to damage host tissue
B) Specialized structures for attachment to host tissues
C) Secretion of toxins
D) Thick cuticle to escape detection from the host immune system
Q4) Because the gut microbiome is a tremendously diverse population,an infection can be viewed as
A) the presence of helminths instead of the normal bacteria in the gut.
B) an increase in the overall number of microbes in the gut.
C) a shift in the relative proportions of the microbes in this environment.
D) a change in a person's enterotype.
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of ______.
A) Chlamydia infection
B) genital herpes
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) HIV infection
Q2) During which stage of syphilis does fever,lymphadenopathy,and a red to brown rash occur?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Latent
Q3) The most common cause of vaginitis is ______.
A) Staphlococcus aureus
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Escherichia coli
E) Candida albicans
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)is
A) removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
B) a source of carbon for autotrophs.
C) returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.
D) used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>)to ammonia (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>)occurs during ______.
A) denitrification
B) nitrogen fixation
C) ammonification
D) nitrification
E) photosynthesis
Q3) A group of organisms of the same genus within a community is called a ______.
A) biome
B) community
C) habitat
D) niche
E) population
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Media used for coliform enumeration include chemicals that change color depending on the enzymes present in the microbes,thereby allowing a count of total bacteria and total coliforms from a single plate.This type of medium is termed ______.
A) defined
B) selective
C) complex
D) differential
Q2) Secondary metabolites are essential molecules needed by the microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which step in wine production involves crushing fruit?
A) Malting
B) Preparation of must
C) Aging
D) Storage
E) Fermentation
Q4) Dehydration is an excellent microbicidal method.
A)True
B)False
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