Microbiology for Healthcare Professionals Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides healthcare professionals with a comprehensive foundation in microbiology, focusing on the characteristics, classification, and control of microorganisms relevant to human health. It explores the roles of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites in disease, addresses principles of infection transmission, and examines the bodys immune response. Emphasis is placed on clinical applications, such as aseptic techniques, antimicrobial agents, laboratory diagnostics, and infection prevention strategies vital to patient care and public health. Through case studies and practical examples, students learn to apply microbiological concepts to real-world healthcare scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) An example of an organism's genotypic characteristic is its:
A) macroscopic morphologic structure.
B) microscopic morphologic structure.
C) nucleic acid composition.
D) antigenic properties.
Answer: C
Q2) An organism is serologically identified in the clinical laboratory.This is an example of which phenotypic property?
A) Subcellular properties
B) Antigenic properties
C) Resistant profiles
D) Nucleic acid sequence analysis
Answer: B
Q3) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:
A) classifies, names, and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.
B) classifies microorganisms, based on their genetic makeup.
C) classifies microorganisms, based on their phenotypic makeup.
D) classifies microorganisms, based on their cellular and colonial traits.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) The mechanism for adenosine triphosphate (ATP)production in which high-energy phosphate bonds produced by the central metabolic pathways are donated to adenosine diphosphate (ADP)to form ATP is:
A) substrate-level phosphorylation.
B) fermentative metabolism.
C) oxidative phosphorylation.
D) aerobic respiration.
Answer: A
Q2) A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (ribonucleic acid [RNA] or protein)is defined as a:
A) gene.
B) genome.
C) nucleotide.
D) deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Swelling, redness, heat, and pain are all manifestations of:
A) nosocomial infection.
B) inflammation.
C) bacterial colonization.
D) coagulation.
Answer: B
Q2) Botulism and tetanus have the ability to interfere with neuromuscular functions.The toxins they produce are classified as:
A) endotoxins.
B) enterotoxins.
C) exotoxins.
D) emetic toxins.
Answer: C
Q3) The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called a(n):
A) infection.
B) colonization.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) reservoir.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) The agency that has published guidelines regarding the packaging of biohazardous specimens is known as:
A) DHEC.
B) International Air Transport Association (IATA).
C) CDC.
D) EPA.
Q2) Working with biosafety Level 3 agents requires:
A) U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) credentials and a postgraduate degree in microbiology or a related field.
B) laboratory design features that control air movement.
C) personnel to wear protective clothing and devices and enter a decontaminating chamber before leaving.
D) workers to have blood samples routinely tested to rule out infection or contamination.
Q3) Biosafety Level 1 agents:
A) include those that are the common agents of an infectious disease.
B) require only standard good laboratory techniques.
C) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. gordonae, and Brucella.
D) require the use of maximum containment facilities.
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6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Specimens for microbiologic studies should be:
A) transported to the laboratory within 48 hours of collection.
B) collected in nonsterile specimen containers.
C) transported in sealable, leak-proof plastic bags with a separate section for paperwork.
D) sent to the laboratory on ice, no matter what type of specimen.
Q2) Reduced O (5% to 10%)and increased CO (8% to 10%)produce an environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A) Aerobes
B) Anaerobes
C) Capnophiles
D) Microaerophiles
Q3) Holding media, such as Stuart's medium and Amie's transport medium, are used to:
A) maintain the viability of microorganisms present in a specimen.
B) support the growth and multiplication of any pathogenic organisms that are present.
C) prevent clotting of specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid.
D) allow pathogenic organisms to grow while nonpathogenic organisms die.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The fluorochrome stain used to study a fungus is:
A) calcofluor white.
B) acridine orange.
C) auramine.
D) immunofluorescence.
Q2) In the Kinyoun acid-fast staining method, ______ replaces _____ in the primary stain solution.
A) increased phenol; heat
B) heat; increased phenol
C) mycolic acid; heat
D) carbolfuchsin; phenol
Q3) Magnifications in excess of 100,000 ´ are achieved by ________ microscopy?
A) bright-field
B) electron
C) dark-field
D) phase-contrast
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Which medium can be described as a nutritionally rich medium used to grow various microorganisms, either as a broth or as an agar, with or without added blood?
A) Chocolate
B) Colistin, nalidixic acid (CNA) blood
C) Brain-heart infusion (BHI)
D) Thioglycollate
Q2) In which category of media would blood agar best fit?
A) Selective
B) Differential
C) Selective and differential
D) Supportive only
Q3) What name is given to the type of hemolysis that produces complete hemolysis and a clearing of the medium?
A) Beta
B) Gamma
C) Alpha
D) Kappa
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) The enzyme that has the ability to synthesize DNA from ribonucleic acid (RNA)is called:
A) DNA polymerase.
B) RNAse.
C) helicase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
Q2) An organism whose genetic makeup is 50% C-G bonds would have a(n)_________ melting temperature (Tm), compared with an organism with 20% C-G bonds.
A) higher
B) lower
C) equal
D) similar
Q3) The optimal way to detect PCR amplicons is to use which stain?
A) Methylene blue
B) Malachite green
C) Bromothymol blue
D) Ethidium bromide
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet, is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) A positive latex agglutination test was observed in a sample containing Cryptococcus neoformans.The specimen of choice to identify this pathogen is: A) urine.
B) blood.
C) stool.
D) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):
A) solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B) direct fluorescent antibody test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D) radioimmunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A patient was suspected of having a rickettsial infection after hiking in the Rocky Mountains.A Weil-Felix test was performed, which resulted in no agglutination observed.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Detection of rickettsial infections using strains of Proteus is not as specific as other serologic tests; therefore the infections should be retested with a newer method.
B) The Weil-Felix test is not the appropriate test to order; it cannot detect cross-reacting antibodies.
C) Rickettsial antibodies should be tested using the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test, not the Weil-Felix test.
D) No discrepancy is present. Rickettsial antibodies do not agglutinate with Proteus antigens.
Q2) The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
A) Immunoglobulin (Ig) G
B) IgA
C) IgM
D) IgE
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) The mechanism of acquired, high-level resistance to vancomycin involves:
A) enzymatic destruction of the antibiotic.
B) altered antibiotic targets.
C) decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D) production of altered cell wall precursors that do not bind the antibiotic with sufficient avidity.
Q2) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but generally do not kill the organism are known as:
A) bactericidal.
B) antibiotic.
C) bacteriostatic.
D) antagonistic.
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what is the standard agar base medium used for testing most bacterial organisms?
A) 5% blood agar
B) Mueller-Hinton agar
C) Mueller-Hinton broth
D) Brain-heart infusion broth
Q2) Staphylococcal resistance to oxacillin is used to determine and report resistance to:
A) vancomycin.
B) aminoglycoside.
C) cephalosporin.
D) amikacin.
Q3) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for:
A) action of beta-lactamase inhibitors.
B) intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
C) production of beta-lactamase by the infecting organism.
D) intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by altered antibiotic targets.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which group of bacteria is described as catalase positive and is gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and form grapelike clusters?
A) Neisseria
B) Rothia (stomatococci)
C) Staphylococcus
D) Micrococcus
Q2) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:
A) catalase-negative micrococci.
B) coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C) catalase-negative stomatococci.
D) coagulase-negative staphylococci.
Q3) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is:
A) S. saprophyticus.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. epidermidis.
D) S. intermedius.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The colonial morphologic features of this organism resemble a donut as it ages, and it has a polysaccharide capsule that is responsible for its virulence.What two characteristics describe this organism?
A) Beta-hemolytic and susceptible to optochin
B) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-negative
C) Gamma-hemolytic and resistant to optochin
D) Alpha-hemolytic and bile solubility-positive
Q2) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as:
A) resistant to bile and optochin.
B) beta-hemolytic.
C) catalase-positive.
D) often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
Q3) The major etiologic agent of bacterial endocarditis in the United States is:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) viridans streptococci.
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs)are available that can serologically identify which Bacillus species?
A) B. cereus
B) B. subtilis
C) B. thuringiensis
D) B. anthracis
Q2) Which of the following is described as a spore-forming, gram-positive Bacillus that is beta-hemolytic, motile, Voges-Proskauer (VP)-positive, and citrate-positive and causes two types of food poisoning as a result of toxin release?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheria
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Bacillus cereus
D) Corynebacterium jeikeium
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A) 5% sheep blood
B) PLET acetate
C) bicarbonate
D) urea
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A gram-positive bacillus, which grew on Tinsdale agar, is esculin hydrolysis-negative, urease-positive, and nonlipophilic.The organism can be identified as:
A) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis).
B) C. imitans.
C) C. xerosis.
D) C. ulcerans.
Q2) Patients who are immunocompromised and women who are pregnant should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style, feta, Brie, Camembert, and blue-veined cheeses to prevent:
A) foodborne listeriosis.
B) staphylococcal food poisoning.
C) gastric gangrene.
D) Salmonella infection.
Q3) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?
A) C. ulcerans and C. diphtheria (subsp. mitis)
B) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis) and C. diphtheria (subsp. intermedius)
C) C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis
D) C. diphtheria (subsp. belfanti) and C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis)
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
Q2) Which organism is nonhemolytic on 5% sheep blood agar but hemolytic on human blood?
A) Weissella confusa
B) Arcanobacterium haemolyticum
C) Lactobacillus spp.
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
Q3) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, nonbranching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A) Corynebacterium.
B) Bacillus.
C) Actinomyces.
D) Erysipelothrix.
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Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues, which is caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts, is referred to as:
A) actinomycetoma.
B) infectious granulomas.
C) lymphocytoma.
D) Actinomadura.
Q2) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A) Rhodococcus.
B) Nocardia.
C) Gordonia.
D) Tsukamurella.
Q3) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface, which are called _____ hyphae.
A) surface
B) substrate
C) aerial
D) topical
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) A gram-negative bacillus that is hydrogen sulfide (H S)-positive, citrate-positive, spot indole-negative, and associated with gastroenteritis in the United States is most likely:
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B) Proteus vulgaris.
C) Salmonella enteritidis.
D) Shigella sonnei.
Q2) A green colony with a black center is isolated on HE agar from a stool specimen.It is most likely which organism?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella spp.
C) Shigella spp.
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
Q3) Most strains of Escherichia coli can be presumptively identified on the basis of which characteristic?
A) Spot indole-positive
B) Citrate-positive
C) Methyl red-negative
D) Urease-positive
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is oxidase-negative, oxidizes glucose, and is a nonlactose fermenter?
A) Escherichia
B) Pseudomonas
C) Acinetobacter
D) Moraxella
Q2) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Bordetella trematum
C) Burkholderia gladioli
D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Q3) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of:
A) multiple rounds of penicillin or a similar antibiotic.
B) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
C) repeated high-level doses of gentamycin.
D) single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Production of exotoxin A and several proteolytic enzymes and hemolysins are factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of which organism?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B) Burkholderia cepacia
C) Ralstonia pickettii
D) Burkholderia mallei
Q2) Not including organisms in the Enterobacteriaceae family, the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens are:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Burkholderia.
C) Ralstonia.
D) Vibrio.
Q3) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A) Burkholderia ralstonia
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia cepacia
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Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) peritonitis.
B) endocarditis.
C) meningitis.
D) bacteremia.
Q2) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism that rarely causes human infection, grows poorly at 35º C; however, grows optimally between 20º and 25º C?
A) Psychrobacter immobilis
B) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
C) Rhizobium radiobacter
D) Shewanella putrefaciens
Q3) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A) CDC group Ic
B) Ochrobactrum anthropi
C) Shewanella putrefaciens
D) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
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Q1) Which two organisms should be used for quality control purposes to determine the validity of the indole reagent?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Empedobacter brevis
B) Chryseobacterium spp. and Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
C) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica and Sphingobacterium multivorum
D) Agrobacterium group and Sphingobacterium spiritivorum
Q2) The natural habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium is:
A) environment.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) human normal flora.
Q3) A patient with a bacteremia identified as Elizabethkingia meningoseptica infection was placed on intravenous penicillin; however, the patient did not improve after 5 days.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A) The dose was abbreviated and therefore did not have time to work.
B) The patient is most likely allergic to penicillin and is not responding.
C) Penicillin is ineffective against this organism.
D) An aminoglycoside should be given along with the penicillin to increase its effects.
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Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q2) The biochemical description of Myroides is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:
A) Bordetella.
B) Oligella.
C) Achromobacter.
D) Roseomonas.
Q4) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as:
A) person-to-person contact.
B) exposure to contaminated water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with animals.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) Which organism, which is oxidase positive, does not grow on TCBS agar, has the ability to decarboxylate lysine and ornithine but cannot utilize arginine, and would have the following colonial characteristics on sheep blood agar and MacConkey agar?
A) Beta-hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
B) Alpha-hemolytic and is a lactose fermenter
C) Gamma-hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
D) Alpha-hemolytic and is a nonlactose fermenter
Q2) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:
A) exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B) ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C) inhalation of contaminated air.
D) close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp.or Yersinia enterocolitica.Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?
A) String test
B) Sucrose fermentation
C) Glucose fermentation
D) Oxidase
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A) Pseudomonas.
B) Vibrio.
C) Stenotrophomonas.
D) Sphingomonas.
Q3) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar that is oxidase-positive, motile by wet mount, and has the ability to oxidize glucose, xylose, and sucrose is most likely which of the following?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Sphingomonas
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella lacunata will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
Q2) Testing for differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be performed by:
A) the ability to utilize acetate.
B) the ability to liquefy serum.
C) glucose utilization tests.
D) growth on MacConkey agar.
Q3) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is:
A) M. catarrhalis.
B) M. lacunata.
C) M. canis.
D) M. atlantae.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A) pink pigmentation.
B) grapelike odor.
C) large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D) bleachlike odor.
Q2) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A) 4º C
B) 25º C
C) 35º C
D) 56º C
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one of the following organisms is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase, resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A) The catalase reagent could be expired.
B) This organism is normally negative for catalase; therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C) A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D) No error is present. This organism is catalase-positive.
Q2) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is slightly alpha-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A) Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis
C) Actinobacillus suis
D) Capnocytophaga spp.
Q2) To test the validity of catalase reagent, which two organisms should be used?
A) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis and Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
C) Kingella denitrificans and Kingella kingae
D) Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Q3) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Aggregatibacter aphrophilus by its:
A) negative test for catalase.
B) positive test for lactose fermentation.
C) positive test for catalase.
D) negative test for oxidase.
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A) 5% sheep blood agar
B) Brain-heart infusion agar
C) Chocolate agar
D) Nutrient agar
Q2) Which of the following media provides the factors necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
A) 5% sheep blood agar
B) Brain-heart infusion agar
C) Chocolate agar
D) Nutrient agar
Q3) With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which of the following media ingredients for in vitro growth?
A) Vitamin K and hemin
B) Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C) Vitamin K and NAD
D) Hemin and cysteine
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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A) Gram stain
B) Wright stain
C) Trichrome stain
D) Warthin-Starry silver stain
Q2) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q3) Of the clinically significant Bartonella species, which is transmitted via a fleabite with the reservoir being rats?
A) B. bacilliformis
B) B. henselae
C) B. elizabethae
D) B. clarridgeiae
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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Which organisms should be used to perform quality control on hippurate reagent?
A) Campylobacter coli and C. concisus
B) C. curvus and C. hyointestinalis
C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. jejuni subsp. doylei
D) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni and C. coli
Q2) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many:
A) large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B) small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C) small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) plump, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:
A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.
B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.
C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.
D) azithromycin alone.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as:
A) Philadelphia pneumonia.
B) legionnaires' disease.
C) tuberculosis.
D) rheumatic fever.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A) Penicillin and azithromycin
B) Ampicillin and gentamycin
C) Doxycycline and rifampin
D) Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A) cattle.
B) sheep or goats.
C) swine.
D) dogs.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) Which of the following toxins contributes to the virulence of Bordetella pertussis and works by hemolyzing red cells and activating cyclic adenosine monophosphate, which inactivates several types of host immune cells?
A) Endotoxin
B) Pertussis toxin
C) Tracheal cytotoxin
D) Adenylate cyclase toxin
Q2) Acceptable specimens for the detection of Bordetella pertussis are:
A) throat swabs.
B) sputum.
C) nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D) anterior nose swabs.
Q3) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are:
A) runny nose and mild cough.
B) severe and violent coughing.
C) vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past a swollen glottis.
D) lymphocytosis and fever.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of Francisella tularensis is:
A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
C) lymph nodes.
D) urine.
Q2) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A) is oxidase-negative.
B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q3) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) Cysteine and cystine
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Spirillum minus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is: A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive, glucose-negative, maltose-negative, sucrose-negative, lactose-negative, and DNase-positive is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Moraxella catarrhalis.
C) N. cinerea.
D) N. gonorrhoeae.
Q2) MTM, Martin-Lewis (ML), and New York City (NYC)media were all developed for the selective isolation of which organism?
A) Moraxella catarrhalis
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) N. gonorrhoeae
D) N. mucosa
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-negative diplococci.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Egg-yolk agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q2) Bronchial washing collected with a double lumen-plugged catheter is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q3) LKV blood agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q4) Aspiration of peritoneal fluid using a needle and syringe is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) Porphyromonas spp.
A)Are kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate, and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin, and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) Bacteroides fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate, and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin, and fluoresce a chartreuse color
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43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The fluorochrome method of staining Mycobacterium:
A) is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B) enables the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C) results in a lower yield of positive smears.
D) increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.
Q2) The recent emergence of epidemic multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, in conjunction with the end of the downward trend of reported cases of tuberculosis in the United States, has been largely attributed to:
A) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) epidemic.
B) ineffective treatment regimens.
C) political factors.
D) shortened treatment regimens.
Q3) One drawback associated with the fluorochrome stain method for detecting Mycobacterium is that:
A) it is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B) it requires the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C) many rapid growers may not appear fluorescent with these reagents.
D) it increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Tropheryma whipplei is characterized by the presence of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-staining macrophages, which indicates mucopolysaccharide or glycoprotein, in almost every organ system.Without treatment, this disease is uniformly fatal.Identification is achieved using:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) IFA.
C) immunoblotting.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q2) Of the following organisms, which can be described as a fastidious obligate intracellular parasite that multiplies by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells and infects humans as accidental hosts in most cases?
A) Rickettsia
B) Chlamydia
C) Calymmatobacterium
D) Coxiella
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Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Rickettsia
D) Coxiella
Q2) Incorporation of urea into media is used to enhance the detection of which organism?
A) Ureaplasma urealyticum
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) M. hominis
D) M. genitalium
Q3) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma genitalium
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) Long, slender, helically curved, gram-negative bacilli with hooked ends are identified as belonging to which species?
A) Treponema
B) Leptospira
C) Borrelia
D) Coxiella
Q3) An automated system uses bead-capture technology in the detection of which of the following spirochetes?
A) Treponema
B) Borrelia
C) Leptospira
D) Brachyspira
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) Babesia spp.is transmitted via the bite of a tick and can cause severe disease in patients who have been splenectomised or who are immunocompromised.To diagnose accurately these patient populations, the specimen of choice is:
A) stool.
B) urine.
C) genital sample.
D) blood.
Q2) A urine sample from a 26-year-old woman is examined, and an organism is observed that displays "jerky" motility.This organism is classified as a(n):
A) amebae.
B) coccidia.
C) flagellate.
D) ciliate.
Q3) A modified acid-fast stain is performed on lung tissue.The most likely organism that will be observed is:
A) Naegleria fowleri.
B) Mansonella streptocerca.
C) Giardia lamblia.
D) Cryptosporidium spp.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) A tissue sample is sent to the laboratory and microscopically examined for the presence of amebae.To differentiate between the host cells and the organism, _______ stain is used to allow the organisms to appear bright pink with a green-blue background.
A) trichrome
B) Giemsa
C) Wright
D) periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
Q2) Entamoeba coli, a protozoan that ranges from 15 to 25 microns in diameter, can contain up to eight nuclei in mature cysts.How would the karyosome expect to appear on a stained slide?
A) Small, usually compact
B) Large, usually compact
C) Small, irregularly shaped
D) Large, not compact
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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) In cases of malaria, the primary exoerythrocytic cycle occurs in the:
A) blood.
B) lung.
C) liver.
D) lymph nodes.
Q2) Resistance to chloroquine and mefloquine has been identified in which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. ovale
B) P. vivax
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
Q3) Stage I of trypanosomiasis characteristically involves systemic trypanosomiasis infection without central nervous system (CNS)involvement.Lymphadenopathy is also a feature of this disease.The trypomastigotes of which protozoa are involved?
A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) T. rangeli
C) T. brucei rhodesiense
D) T. brucei gambiense
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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) A 26-year-old woman has an odorous vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and difficulty urinating.Vaginal secretions are collected and sent to the laboratory for examination 3 hours after collection.No motile organisms are observed on the wet preparation; however, Trichomonas vaginalis is suspected.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The infection is most likely bacterial; therefore a Gram stain should have been performed.
B) The specimen should have been refrigerated before examination; consequently, the organism was compromised.
C) The time between collection and the microscopic examination was prolonged, resulting in loss of motility.
D) No discrepancy is present; this organism in nonmotile.
Q2) Primates, as well as dogs, sheep, and horses, have died of central nervous system (CNS)infections with which organism?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Acanthamoeba spp.
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Balamuthia mandrillaris
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Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A 36-year-old man entered the emergency department with bleeding and weight loss several weeks after returning from a trip to South America.A stool sample was taken and microscopically examined.Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs were observed.The organism can be identified as:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Ancylostoma duodenale.
C) Necator americanus.
D) Strongyloides stercoralis.
Q2) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment, blood loss, and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?
A) Whipworm
B) Pinworm
C) Threadworm
D) Hookworm
Q3) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Strongyloides stercoralis.
C) Ascaris lumbricoides.
D) Necator americanus.
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Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) A child is believed to have a Toxocara cati infection in his eye, which he acquired after playing with a stray cat for several weeks.A serum titer was performed, which revealed a titer of 1:8.This laboratory value can be interpreted as:
A) normal.
B) insignificant.
C) diagnostic.
D) negative.
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
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Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A) mosquito.
B) microfilaria.
C) humans.
D) tabanid fly.
Q2) Wuchereria bancrofti
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
Q3) Brugia spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
E)Biting midges.
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54
Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm can reach up to 10 meters in length and can have more than 3000 to 4000 proglottids.The definitive host and reservoir host, respectively, are:
A) fish and copepods.
B) crustaceans and humans.
C) copepods and crustaceans.
D) humans and fish.
Q2) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.
A) Diphyllobothrium latum
B) Hymenolepis nana
C) Taenia saginata
D) Taenia solium
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism, Echinococcus multilocularis, are:
A) foxes.
B) coyotes.
C) rodents.
D) humans.
Q2) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A) Coenurosis
B) Cysticercosis
C) Hydatid disease
D) Sparganosis
Q3) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
Q2) A 36-year-old man who has traveled for several weeks in the orient is experiencing abdominal pain and diarrhea with a large amount of mucus.A Heterophyes heterophyes egg measuring 28 by 15 microns is identified in the stool.The treatment of choice for this intestinal trematode is:
A) metronidazole.
B) chloroquine.
C) albendazole.
D) praziquantel.
Q3) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater:
A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q2) Sheep liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
Q3) The eggs of Paragonimus mexicanus measure approximately 80 microns by 40 microns, are unembryonated and operculated, and have thick shells that are brownish yellow.An individual with this infection has most likely traveled to which endemic area?
A) Japan
B) Africa
C) New Guinea
D) South America
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
Q2) An egg of the organism of Schistosoma mansoni is isolated from the feces of an adult man who has been traveling in Africa.An unoperculated egg with a large lateral spine is recovered.The patient is administered the standard dose of praziquantel; however, his infection does not improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) Metrifonate should have been administered.
B) Bilarcil is the drug of choice for this type of infection.
C) Steroids should have been initially administered.
D) A larger dose may be required to be effective against this organism.
Q3) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
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Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) Which stain requires the use of a fluorescent microscope?
A) Calcofluor white
B) India ink
C) Potassium hydroxide
D) Masson-Fontana
Q2) All mold cultures and clinical samples should always be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) An example of a thermally monomorphic mold is:
A) Penicillium marneffei.
B) Sporothrix schenckii.
C) Epidermophyton.
D) Histoplasma capsulatum.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) A hair perforation test is performed using Trichophyton mentagrophytes and T.rubrum.The expected results are:
A) positive for both organisms.
B) positive for T. rubrum and negative for T. mentagrophytes.
C) positive for T. mentagrophytes and negative for T. rubrum.
D) negative for both organisms.
Q2) A fungus is recovered from a nail scrapping.Microscopic examination reveals numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate macroconidia; however, microconidia are absent.The organism can be identified as:
A) Microsporum canis.
B) Epidermophyton floccosum.
C) Trichophyton rubrum.
D) Microsporum gypseum.
Q3) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular, white-to-blue green colony?
A) A. niger
B) A. flavus
C) A. fumigatus
D) A. terreus
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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) Black-grain mycetoma
A)Exophiala jeanselmei
B)Pseudallescheria boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q2) Feltlike, filamentous colonies produce dematiaceous hyphae and conidiophores that are cylindrical and have a tapered tip.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q3) Which dematiaceous fungus causes a condition known as chromoblastomycosis?
A) Pseudallescheria boydii
B) Hortaea werneckii
C) Phialophora spp.
D) Exophiala jeanselmei
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A) Malaria
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q2) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?
A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q3) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A) Bradyzoite
B) Trophozoite
C) Sporocyte
D) Cyst
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Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) The most commonly isolated yeast in clinical specimens is:
A) Candida albicans.
B) C. tropicalis.
C) C. dubliniensis.
D) C. krusei.
Q2) A fungal infection found mostly in the tropics and temperate regions is characterized by the development of soft, yellow or pale-brown aggregations around hair shafts in the axillary, facial, genital, and scalp regions.The fungus that would most likely be isolated is:
A) Candida.
B) Malassezia.
C) Cryptococcus.
D) Trichosporon.
Q3) In general, yeast reproduce asexually by the formation of:
A) ascospores.
B) basidiospores.
C) blastoconidia.
D) arthroconidia.
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64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Alters membrane permeability
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) A patient who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is diagnosed with a Cryptococcus neoformans infection.The attending resident prescribed Griseofulvin; however, the patient's condition did not seem to improve.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The dose should be increased to penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
B) Nystatin, which would have been more effective, should have been prescribed.
C) Griseofulvin is not effective against C. neoformans; therefore the therapy should be changed.
D) Potassium iodide is the therapy of choice, not griseofulvin.
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Hemadsorption
A)RSV
B)HIV
C)CMV
D)Adenovirus
E)HSV
F)Pediatric respiratory virus
G)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
H)Influenzas A and B
Q2) Primary cell line
A)HEp-2 culture cells
B)Monkey kidney cells
C)Fibroblast cells
Q3) If a virus is referred to as naked, it means it lacks which structure?
A) Protein coat
B) Capsid
C) Envelope
D) Nucleocapsid
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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and monkeys.It is identified in the laboratory using which type of assay?
A) Immunodiffusion
B) Peptide nucleic acid fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) A 45-year-old man living in the western United States begins experiencing headache, fever, and body aches, which he attributes to the flu.His symptoms, however, become worse, and he later develops kidney disease and acute respiratory failure.He is most likely infected with which virus?
A) Rabies virus
B) Adenovirus
C) Norovirus
D) Hantavirus
Q3) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) Ribavirin
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q2) When performing antiviral susceptibility testing, a standard inoculum must be used.If the inoculum quantity is too large, then the isolate will appear:
A) susceptible.
B) intermediate.
C) resistant.
D) indeterminate.
Q3) Viable cells take up neutral red dye.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Which virus found in the blood involves infecting certain T lymphocytes and possibly macrophages?
A) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
C) Rubella virus
D) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Q2) If tachyzoites are found circulating in blood, then the infection would be classified as a:
A) parasitemia.
B) bacteremia.
C) viremia.
D) fungemia.
Q3) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A) Histoplasma capsulatum
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Candida albicans
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69
Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B) adults younger than 30 years of age.
C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D) school-age children.
Q2) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:
A) Haemophilus influenzae type B.
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C) Streptococcus pyogenes.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q3) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults, regardless of age, is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes is:
A) epiglottitis.
B) pharyngitis.
C) Vincent angina.
D) rhinitis.
Q2) Inflammation of the larynx that is usually associated with the common cold or influenza syndromes and that is caused almost exclusively by viruses is:
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngotracheobronchitis.
C) epiglottitis.
D) Vincent angina.
Q3) An inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity caused mostly by herpes simplex virus is:
A) laryngitis.
B) pharyngitis.
C) Vincent angina.
D) stomatitis.
Page 71
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Chapter
Meningitis,
Nervous System
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Q1) An increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis)in the CSF and negative bacterial and fungal cultures is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) pleocytosis.
Q2) Infection within the subarachnoid space or throughout the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is referred to as:
A) meningoencephalitis.
B) aseptic meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) meningitis.
Q3) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Orbital cellulitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q2) Dacryoadenitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Bacteroides fragilis.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Moraxella lacunata.
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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Urethritis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) The most frequent cause of uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infections is:
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B) Klebsiella spp.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Proteus.
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A) lactobacilli.
B) Streptococcus agalactiae.
C) Enterobacteriaceae.
D) staphylococci.
Q2) Vaginitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in an abnormal discharge and offensive odor or itching
B)Polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)Infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy
D)Mild-to-severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by bloodborne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q3) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as:
A) endogenous infections.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) exogenous infections.
D) upper tract infections.
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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:
A) anaerobic species.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Enterococcus.
D) Enterobacteriaceae.
Q3) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) Myositis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) Necrotizing fasciitis
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with the involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)Slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)Chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture, provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C) Citrate
D) Coumadin
Q2) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus mitis.
Q3) A 68-year-old man has an osteomyelitis infection as a result of bacteremia.The most common etiologic agent found in this infection is:
A) Haemophilus spp.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Fusobacterium necrophorum.
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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Eliminating redundant motion, recognizing waste, and identifying what creates value from the patient's perspective is considered which type of process?
A) Lean methodology
B) Total Quality Management
C) Continuous Quality Improvement
D) Performance Improvement
Q2) Introducing a continuous flow of events between steps of the process where continuous flow is possible
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q3) If a clinical laboratory receives a "blind unknown" for proficiency testing (PT), it is most likely sent by which private accrediting agency?
A) CLSI
B) National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
D) American Society of Consultant Pharmacists (ASCP)
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Page 79
Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) A 76-year-old man attends a meeting at his condominium association where many of his neighbors are sick with respiratory symptoms.He later develops a Haemophilus influenza infection, which is classified as a _________ infection.
A) nosocomial
B) hospital-acquired
C) community-acquired
D) heath care-related
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
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Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A) Clinical
B) Sentinel
C) Reference
D) National
Q3) If a pinpoint colony on blood agar after 24 hours of incubation is isolated, and if the colony is oxidase-, urease-, and indole-negative and also exhibits bipolar staining on Gram stain, then the suspect bioterror agent is most likely:
A) Bacillus anthracis.
B) Francisella tularensis.
C) Brucella spp.
D) Yersinia pestis.
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