Microbiology for Health Sciences
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Course Introduction
Microbiology for Health Sciences is an introductory course that explores the foundational concepts of microbiology with a specific focus on their relevance to human health, disease prevention, and clinical practice. The course covers the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on microbial genetics, metabolism, pathogenicity, immunological responses, and principles of sterilization and infection control. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain an understanding of how microbes affect the human body, contribute to infectious diseases, and influence practices in health sciences and healthcare professions.
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Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The accumulation of the _______ layer from increased levels of oxygen in the atmosphere offered protection from ultraviolet light to terrestrial microbes growing on Earth's surface.
Answer: ozone
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A) All cells contain DNA as the main informational macromolecule.
B) All cells contain mitochondria for energy production.
C) All cells possess a plasma membrane.
D) All cells utilize a similar genetic code.
E) All cells contain ribosomes for protein synthesis.
Answer: B
Q4) The __________ Theory is used to explain the origins of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.
Answer: endosymbiotic,endosymbiont,endosymbiosis
Q5) The three domains of life are ________,________,and ________.
Answer: Bacteria,Archaea,Eukarya.
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) What is the main function of the FtsZ protein in the bacterial cell?
A) DNA replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) cell division
E) meiosis
Answer: D
Q2) What is the main function of peptidoglycan?
A) Controlling movement of nutrients into and outof the cell.
B) Protecting the cell from harmful chemicals.
C) Regulating the transport of water into the cell.
D) Protecting against osmotic stress.
E) Generating energy through electron transport phosphorylation.
Answer: D
Q3) Diaminopimelic acid is an amino acid naturally found in peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) Which statement below is FALSE regarding mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) Both contain DNA.
B) Both replicate independently of the host cell.
C) Both function in energy generation.
D) Both contain the enzymes for the glycolytic pathway.
E) Both contain inner membranes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these diseases is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?
A) severe dysentery
B) malaria
C) pneumonia
D) tuberculosis
E) African sleeping sickness
Answer: A
Q3) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.
Answer: malaria
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) Many cultured and characterized strains from the phylum Crenarchaeota were isolated from _____ .
A) the ocean
B) freshwater lakes
C) thermal hot springs
D) dry soil
E) sea ice
Q2) The Archaea contain a cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Archaeal cells get most of their protection against osmotic pressure differences from their _____.
Q4) What are chaperonins ("molecular chaperones")?
A) Channels in the membrane for protein secretion.
B) Proteins used for the secretion of other proteins.
C) Proteins used for the correct folding of other proteins.
D) Proteins involved in the regulation of gene expression at the level of transcription.
E) Sensory proteins found in the cytoplasmic membrane to sense various environmental signals.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Viruses have been used extensively to further our knowledge on the molecular biology of the human cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a prion?
A) An infectious RNA particle.
B) A particle similar to a satellite virus.
C) An infectious DNA particle.
D) An infectious protein particle.
E) A type of virus.
Q3) The discovery of oncogenes in this virus group led to the discovery of proto-oncogenes in human cells and an understanding of how tumors form.
A) Poliovirus
B) Retrovirus
C) Rhinovirus
D) Orthomyxovirus
E) Paramyxovirus
Q4) The zone of clearing as a result of a phage infection on a lawn of E.coli growing on the surface of an agar plate is called a ________.
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) How long would it take a culture of E.coli with a starting cell density of 1 X 10 cells/ ml to reach a cell density of 1 X 10 cells/ml if it had a generation time of 30 minutes?
A) 3 hours
B) 4 hours
C) 5 hours
D) 6 hours
E) 7 hours
Q2) A device used for the continuous culturing of bacteria is called a _________.
Q3) The bile salts in MacConkey agar,which inhibits the growth of many bacteria,make this media differential in nature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of siderophores?
A) Transporting waste products out of the cell.
B) Binding iron for transport into the cell.
C) Binding glucose for transport into the cell.
D) Transporting proteins out of the cell.
E) Moving potassium into the cell for osmotic regulation.
Q5) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) What does Rho-independent termination of transcription in bacteria involve?
A) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly A sequence.
B) The formation of a hairpin loop only.
C) A poly U sequence followed by a poly A sequence.
D) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly U sequence.
E) A poly A sequence followed by a hairpin loop.
Q2) The Hershey and Chase experiment was able to conclusively demonstrate that DNA,not protein,was the genetic material.They were able to distinguish DNA from protein since labeled _____ incorporated into DNA while labeled _____ incorporated into proteins.
A) nitrogen; sulfur
B) magnesium; nitrogen
C) nitrogen; magnesium
D) phosphorous; sulfur
E) sulfur; nitrogen
Q3) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5' to 3' direction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?
Q5) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Bacteriophage T4 lyses the bacterial host cell for release of newly formed virions.The cell wall of the bacterium is broken down by this virally encoded enzyme A) lysozyme.
B) protease.
C) -lactamase.
D) nuclease.
E) peptidase.
Q2) Most non-enveloped viruses exit the cell by the following process A) exocytosis.
B) budding.
C) Golgi transport.
D) cell lysis.
E) cytokinesis.
Q3) The single-stranded RNA of positive-sense RNA viruses can act directly as mRNA for translation in the cytoplasm of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bacterial cell that contains the integrated genome of a temperate bacteriophage is called a ______.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) Mutations in a cell can occur in the absence of selective pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enzyme ___________ hydrolyzes the chromogenic substrate X-gal.
A) -amylase
B) -lactamase
C) xylanase
D) -galactosidase
E) glucuronidase
Q3) The ________ protein is important in the process of recombination.
A) RecZ
B) RecA
C) TpnB
D) TpnC
E) TpnZ
Q4) An expression vector contains a strong promoter next to the cloning site.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Recombinant DNA technology was greatly facilitated by the discovery of ______ enzymes.
11
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) DNA microarray technology allows a researcher to analyze gene expression in an organism cultured under different growth conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a transcriptome?
A) The coding region on the chromosome.
B) The coding region on the chromosome minus the introns.
C) The coding region on the chromosome plus the control regions.
D) The transcripts encoded for by the genes within a genome.
E) The mount of mRNA in the cell.
Q3) Which of these is TRUE regarding horizontal gene transfer?
A) It does not result in permanent change.
B) It does not play a role in microbial evolution.
C) It does not result in any significant consequences for the organism involved.
D) It is always occurring in nature.
E) It does not alter the genome of the organism.
Q4) A culture-independent method that is used to study genomes from microbial communities in their natural environments is called _______________ .
Q5) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The term for a large group of genes whose expression is under the control of a single regulatory system.
A) operon
B) super operon
C) regulon
D) transcriptome
E) biome
Q2) Which autoinducer is used by many Gram-negative bacteria?
A) a homoserine lactone derivative
B) an activator protein
C) a repressor protein
D) a metabolic intermediate
E) allolactose
Q3) What is a "reporter gene"?
A) A gene that is expressed under adverse environmental conditions.
B) The fusion of two different structural genes.
C) The fusion of a gene of interest to a regulatable promoter.
D) The fusion of a promoter region of interest to a gene whose product can easily be measured.
E) A gene whose product can easily be measured.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Insect resistant transgenic plants are produced by the insertion of a gene into the plant genome from which insect toxin-producing bacterium?
A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Corynebacterium glutamicum
D) Pseudomonas syringae
E) Xanthomonas campestris
Q2) Which of the following methods have been used to increase product production by an industrial microbial strain?
A) site-directed mutagenesis
B) random mutagenesis
C) transformation
D) transduction
E) all of these choices have been used.
Q3) Bioreactors or fermentors are used in industry to maximize cell density and therefore also increase product ________.
Q4) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Q5) Why are microalgae an attractive source of biodiesel?
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation uses ALL of the following for energy production EXCEPT:
A) electrons from NADH.
B) membrane-associated electron transport chain.
C) an ATP synthase.
D) phosphoenolpyruvate.
E) a proton motive force.
Q2) Which organisms contain bacteriochlorophyll?
A) cyanobacteria
B) cyanobacteria and purple non-sulfur bacteria
C) cyanobacteria and green sulfur bacteria
D) cyanobacteria, purple sulfur bacteria, and green sulfur bacteria
E) purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur, and green sulfur bacteria
Q3) What is the chromophore of the chlorophyll molecule composed of?
A) A carotenoid molecule with an atom of iron in the center.
B) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of iron in the center.
C) A phycoerythrin with an atom of iron in the center.
D) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.
E) A phycoerythrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.
Q4) Metabolic processes in the cell that yield energy are called ____________.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Methane cannot be oxidized back to CO under anaerobic conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these is linked with production of cement for construction of highways?
A) A decrease in sand.
B) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
C) A decrease in limestone.
D) A decrease in fossil fuel consumption.
E) An increase of atmospheric nitrogen.
Q3) What is the oxidation state of carbon in carbon dioxide?
A) 0
B) -2
C) -4
D) +2
E) +4
Q4) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Q5) The oxidation state of nitrogen in dinitrogen (N )is +1.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of these represents MOST of the ocean's biomass?
A) fish
B) sea mammals
C) fish and sea mammals
D) marine plants
E) microbes
Q2) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes that live deep within the Earth?
A) carbon dioxide and oxygen
B) hydrogen gas and ferrous iron
C) nitrate and sulfate
D) sulfate and ferric iron
E) nitrate and ferric iron
Q3) Describe how FISH is used to detect certain groups of microorganisms.
Q4) A community of organisms living in a specified area that are interacting with each other and their environment is called a(n)________________.
Q5) Biofilms in the environment are usually comprised of a single species.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Anaerobic digesters at wastewater treatment plants are used to
A) reduce nitrogen and phosphorus in wastewater.
B) remove toxic organic pollutants.
C) remove potential pathogens.
D) treat wastewater effluent.
E) treat sludge and particulates collected during waste treatment.
Q2) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.
Q3) Many bacteria that are used for the production of various fermented milk products belong to the lactic acid bacteria group.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Small protein molecules produced by a microorganism that adversely affect a closely related microorganism are called
A) siderophores.
B) bacteriocins.
C) lysozymes.
D) beta-blockers.
E) proteases.
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) The bacterial genus ___________ is a secondary symbiont and is capable of changing the female to male ratio of an insect to primarily female.
A) Rickettsia
B) Wolbachia
C) Pseudomonas
D) Culex
E) Bordetella
Q2) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
Q3) Intestinal microorganisms are important for the proper functioning of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a primary endosymbiont?
A) They all have reduced genomes.
B) They are found in specialized cells called bacteriocytes.
C) They provide the host with nutrients.
D) They are passed on maternally.
E) They are required for survival or fertility.
Q5) Describe the characteristics of a primary endosymbiont.
Q6) Endophytes are microorganisms that live within the tissue of ___________.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) When the incidence of a disease occurs at a level higher than expected,it is called a(n)______________.
Q2) When the virulence of a pathogen is decreased to such a degree that it no longer can cause disease it is termed a(n)_______________ strain.
Q3) The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called _______________.
Q4) How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host?
A) an aerosol route
B) a fomite
C) contaminated food or water
D) a vector-borne route
E) sexual contact
Q5) Koch's Postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A fomite is an inanimate object used for the transmission of a pathogenic agent.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) Which of these results in immunological memory?
A) The innate immune response.
B) The adaptive immune response.
C) The non-specific immune response.
D) Passive immunity from mother to offspring.
E) Immune mechanisms present at birth.
Q2) NK cells can recognize and destroy cancer cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the process of phagocytosis,microbes are contained within the phagosome.The phagosome fuses with vesicles in the cell that contain components for the destruction and degradation of the microbe.Which one of the following strategies is NOT used to destroy the phagocytized microbe?
A) degradation by enzymes
B) inactivation by acidification
C) lysis via membrane pores
D) destruction by antibodies
E) destruction by toxic oxygen radicals
Q4) How do toll-like receptors (TLRs)function to recognize foreign cells in the body?
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)in secretions has ______ antigen binding sites.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) six
E) eight
Q2) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)performs all the following activities except one.Which activity does it NOT perform?
A) degranulation of basophils
B) toxin neutralization
C) opsonization
D) complement activation
E) crossing of the placenta
Q3) Some B cells are able to be activated by certain antigens without the help of a T-helper cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of TH2 in antibody production.
Q5) Describe how an endogenous antigen is processed and displayed on an antigen presenting cell.
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus are weak superantigens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lipoteichoic acids are associated with which of these bacteria?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Shigella sonnei
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Q3) Impetigo can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.Impetigo is a type of __________ .
A) pneumonia
B) sequelae
C) toxic shock syndrome
D) ear infection
E) skin infection
Q4) Describe the mechanism of tetanus toxin in causing spastic paralysis.
Q5) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.
Q6) Cytolysins are cytotoxins that act on the ________ membrane to lyse the cell.
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Q7) Exotoxins that act specifically on the intestine are called __________________.
Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) The Ebola virus is transmitted by a ____________ mechanism.
A) respiratory
B) zoonotic
C) fecal-oral
D) sexual
E) mechanical
Q2) Many of the clinical symptoms associated with viral infection are caused by the host immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of mutational change in the surface proteins of viruses.
A) antibody drift
B) antigenic drift
C) receptor modification
D) antigen destabilization
E) antibody destabilization
Q4) Viral infections are always acute and cause extensive damage to host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between an acute viral infection and a persistent viral infection.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) The life cycle form of the malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum that is transferred from the mosquito to a human is called a(n)_____________________.
Q2) The form of the Plasmodium parasite that infects the red blood cells is called a merozoite.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plant pathogen Magnaporthe grisea produces specialized cell structures called ____________ that penetrate the plant cuticle to allow the fungi to invade the plant.
A) hyphae
B) conidia
C) ascospores
D) appressoria
E) cysts
Q4) The classical symptoms of giardiasis occur when the protozoan enters the bloodstream of its human host.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the malarial parasite causes disease in humans.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The mode of action of aminoglycosides is to inhibit __________ synthesis.
A) protein
B) RNA
C) DNA
D) membrane
E) peptidoglycan
Q2) Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)has acquired the mecA gene from an unknown source.This gene encodes for a methicillin resistant _____.
A) efflux protein.
B) penicillin-binding protein.
C) -lactamase.
D) acetyltransferase.
E) porin.
Q3) The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a(an)_____.
A) attenuated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) polysaccharide vaccine.
D) killed vaccine.
E) DNA vaccine.
Q4) Describe two unique targets for antimicrobial drugs in bacteria.
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