Microbiology for Health Sciences
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Course Introduction
This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a particular emphasis on topics relevant to health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, classification, and growth of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers microbial pathogenicity, mechanisms of infection and immunity, host-microbe interactions, and the importance of microbes in disease and health. Key concepts also include antimicrobial agents, resistance, laboratory diagnostics, and infection control practices, aiming to equip future healthcare professionals with essential microbiological knowledge for clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) Which term represents the history of an organisms's evolution?
A) taxonomy
B) descent
C) classification
D) phylogeny
E) relative
Answer: D
Q2) In the study of which of these fields have unicellular microbes played an important role?
A) biochemical pathways
B) protein synthesis
C) DNA replication
D) mRNA synthesis
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Viruses are able to infect all types of cellular life forms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) The movement of a bacterial cell toward a chemical attractant is called ________.
Answer: chemotaxis
Q2) What is the main function of peptidoglycan?
A) Controlling movement of nutrients into and outof the cell.
B) Protecting the cell from harmful chemicals.
C) Regulating the transport of water into the cell.
D) Protecting against osmotic stress.
E) Generating energy through electron transport phosphorylation.
Answer: D
Q3) Diaminopimelic acid is an amino acid naturally found in peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ABC transporter system uses phosphoenolpyruvate as the energy source to drive transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) Mitochondria replicate independently of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of these is an example of a eukaryal intestinal pathogen that is transmitted to humans through contaminated food and water?
A) Epulopiscium fischeri
B) Plasmodium vivax
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Legionella pneumophila
Answer: C
Q3) Plasmodium falciparum causes the disease ______.
Answer: malaria
Q4) Microfilament are made of the protein ___.
Answer: actin
Q5) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) How does the Archaea cytoplasmic membrane differ- from the Bacteria membrane?
A) The Archaeal membrane contains cholesterol.
B) The Archaeal membrane contains no proteins.
C) The Archaeal membrane is comprised of fatty acids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ester linkage.
D) The Archaeal membrane is comprised of isoprenoids attached to glycerol phosphate by an ether linkage.
E) The Archaeal membrane gives the cell its characteristic shape.
Q2) Some archaeal cells contain pseudopeptidoglycan as their major cell wall component.What is this material composed of?
A) Lipids and proteins.
B) Sugar polymers cross-linked via a peptide bridge.
C) Sugar polymers that are linked to lipids via an ether bond.
D) Proteins liked together via a glycosidic bond.
E) Lipids cross-linked via a peptide bridge.
Q3) Halobacterium salinarum possess the red-colored protein ___ that absorbs light energy to pump protons across the membrane to create a proton motive force.
Q4) All known methanogens are found in the domain ___.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Infectious protein particles that cause diseases like Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are called ________.
Q2) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.
Q3) Term for bacteriophages that have the ability to either cause a lytic infection or integrate their genome into the host cell chromosome after entry into the host cell.
A) lysogenic phage
B) virulent phage
C) transposable phage
D) cytopathic phage
E) retro-phage
Q4) What protective structure contains the viral nucleic acid?
A) envelope
B) nucleus
C) capsid
D) endosome
E) vacuole
Q5) Small infectious RNA molecules that are able to cause disease in plants are called
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mean growth rate for a culture that has a generation time of 1 hour?
A) 1 hr.
B) 2 hr.
C) 1 hr ¹.
D) 2 hr ¹.
E) Cannot determine from the information given.
Q2) Nucleic acids strongly absorb _____________ radiation of 260 nm.
Q3) Which is the best definition of an antiseptic?
A) A chemical agent that is applied to hospital equipment to kill or inhibit microbes.
B) A chemical agent that is applied to living tissue to kill and inhibit microbes.
C) An antibiotic that is applied to living tissue.
D) A physical agent that is used to sterilize hospital equipment.
E) A physical agent that is used on human tissue to inhibit microbial growth.
Q4) Pasteurization is a method of sterilization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the ingredients in MacConkey agar makes it both selective and differential? Give an example for its use.
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) In eukaryal cells,what does RNA polymerase II transcribe?
A) tRNA genes
B) small regulatory RNAs
C) the 5S and 18S rRNAs
D) mRNA genes
E) rRNAs genes
Q2) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic.What does this term mean?
A) It can be translated more than once.
B) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
C) It can be translated from either end.
D) It is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
E) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
Q3) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
Q4) Messenger RNA (mRNA)can best be described as a molecule that contains the code for a:
A) protein.
B) polypeptide.
C) protein, rRNA or tRNA.
D) polypeptide, tRNA, or rRNA.
E) polypeptide or regulatory RNA.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most RNA viruses utilize
A) an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
B) a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
D) a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E) reverse transcriptase.
Q3) The capsid for many mammalian viruses must be removed after it enters the cytoplasm.Why is this important? Give an example of a virus where capsid removal occurs in the cell membrane.
Q4) The ability of a virus or bacteriophage to specifically attach to a host cell occurs through the interactions of the viral attachment protein with the host cell receptor.This binding determines
A) the rate of viral replication.
B) the host range.
C) the mechanism of viral entry.
D) whether or not the virus will contain an envelope.
E) the rate of viral RNA replication.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) Host cell enzymes that degrade foreign DNA,like viral DNA,that enters the cell are called _________ enzymes.
Q2) The first DNA cloning experiment required ALL of the following EXCEPT:
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) restriction enzymes.
D) plasmid vector with antibiotic resistance gene.
E) competent cells.
Q3) The first plasmid cloning vectors required some restriction enzyme sites that were present in only one copy on the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which term applies to the transfer of genes from mother to daughter cell?
A) vertical gene transfer
B) lateral gene transfer
C) horizontal gene transfer
D) meiosis
E) transduction
Q5) Recombinant DNA technology was greatly facilitated by the discovery of ______ enzymes.
11
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) A culture-independent method that is used to study genomes from microbial communities in their natural environments is called _______________ .
Q2) Dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs)are used in the Sanger sequencing method.What are ddNTPs,and what is the explanation for the theory behind this method?
Q3) What is metagenomics?
A) A culture-dependent method that may be used to determine genome sequences.
B) A culture-dependent method that may be used to find new enzymes.
C) A culture-dependent method that may be used to study groups of microbes in an ecosystem.
D) A culture-independent method that may be used to document microbial community composition.
E) A culture -independent method that may be used for the isolation of different organisms.
Q4) Metagenomics uses a culture-independent based genomic analysis of microbial communities to determine community composition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Once the autoinducer excreted by Vibrio fischeri reaches a critical concentration,it is able to diffuse back into the cell.What is its next action?
A) Bind to the bacterial luciferase to produce luminescence.
B) Inactivate a transcriptional repressor to allow transcription of the lux genes.
C) Bind to a transcriptional activator protein to activate transcription of the lux genes.
D) Be cleaved by a protease to produce luminescence.
E) Bind to the promoter to enhance transcription of the lux genes.
Q2) What is an effector molecule?
A) A protein that binds to an operator region of a gene.
B) An activator protein for gene expression.
C) A small RNA molecule that inhibits translation of mRNA.
D) A small molecule that binds to an enzyme to regulate its activity.
E) A small molecule that binds to the operator region of a gene.
Q3) Based on current research,quorum sensing has only been shown to occur in bioluminescent bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) A his-tag or strep-tag is part of the cloning area in expression vectors.How do these sequences function?
A) To increase gene expression from the cloned DNA.
B) In regulation of expression of the cloned DNA.
C) As unique restriction enzyme sites to aid in cloning DNA.
D) Affinity sequences to aid in purification of the recombinant protein.
E) As signal sequences for the secretion of the recombinant protein.
Q2) Some types of anti-cholesterol drugs,such as the statins,are produced by microbes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do fed batch reactors maximize cell density,and therefore product yield?
A) By limiting a nutrient over time.
B) By maximizing cell growth rate.
C) By supplying excess essential vitamins.
D) By providing excess oxygen for growth.
E) By maintaining an anaerobic environment.
Q4) The first recombinant protein produced for human use was ________.
Q5) Bioreactors or fermentors are used in industry to maximize cell density and therefore also increase product ________.
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) The key carbon dioxide fixation reaction in the Calvin Cycle is carried out by which enzyme?
A) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
B) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
C) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
D) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase
E) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate transcarboxylase
Q2) Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The reduction of dinitrogen to ammonia for assimilation is called nitrogen
Q4) A chemical reaction that has a negative G
A) is an endergonic reaction.
B) will require an input of energy.
C) is not a spontaneous reaction.
D) is an energy yielding reaction.
E) will absorb energy.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) What is the oxidation state of carbon in methane?
A) +1
B) + 2
C) -1
D) -2
E) -4
Q2) The anaerobic process that results in the reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen gas is called ______________.
Q3) The main primary producers in aquatic environments are _______,while in terrestrial environments the main primary producers are __________.
A) plants, plants
B) microbes, microbes
C) plants, microbes
D) microbes, plants
E) microbes and plants contribute equally in both environments
Q4) The carbon reservoir in the atmosphere is actively cycled.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of these is the LEAST important physiological activity to consider when studying an ecosystem?
A) primary production by chemolithotrophs
B) primary production by phototrophs
C) decomposition by chemoorganotrophs
D) methane production by methanogens
E) biogeochemical cycling of the elements
Q2) The specific function role of an organism in an ecosystem is called the ___________.
Q3) Most of the ocean is oligotrophic or nutrient poor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Today,the most effective technique for analyzing microbial community structure is based on this analysis.
A) Sequencing small subunit rRNA.
B) Identification of the catabolic enzymes present.
C) Isolation and characterization of microbes from the community.
D) Enrichment culture technique for microbial isolation.
E) Identification of metabolic intermediates that accumulate in the environment.
Q5) Describe how FISH is used to detect certain groups of microorganisms.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) Lyophilization is
A) the acidification of food for long term storage.
B) a type of canning technique.
C) sun-dried food.
D) freeze-drying of food.
E) salting of food for storage.
Q2) Compare and contrast a food-borne infection to intoxication.
Q3) One of the main reasons for wastewater treatment is to reduce the BOD.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________________ is a measure of the amount of oxygen required for the microbial oxidation of organic compounds in a water source.
A) chemical oxygen demand
B) biological oxygen demand
C) respiration rate
D) carbon dioxide production
E) cell yield
Q5) Describe the process of vinegar production by the trickle method.Name the two genera of bacteria involved.Why do they produce vinegar?
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
Q2) The bacterial genus ___________ is a secondary symbiont and is capable of changing the female to male ratio of an insect to primarily female.
A) Rickettsia
B) Wolbachia
C) Pseudomonas
D) Culex
E) Bordetella
Q3) Which of these is characteristic of the nitrogenase enzyme?
A) It is produced by both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
B) It converts dinitrogen to nitrate.
C) It requires hydrogen gas for activity.
D) It is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen.
E) It is found in all plant symbionts.
Q4) The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen binding protein.
A) cytochrome c
B) flavoprotein
C) leghemoglobin
D) menaquinone
E) nitrate reductase
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) A fomite is an inanimate object used for the transmission of a pathogenic agent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vertical transmission of a pathogenic agent occurs from mother to child.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?
A) By an aerosol route.
B) As a result of an insect bite.
C) From mother to offspring.
D) By a sexual route.
E) By ingesting contaminated water.
Q4) How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host?
A) an aerosol route
B) a fomite
C) contaminated food or water
D) a vector-borne route
E) sexual contact
Q5) The replication of a microbial pathogen on or within a host is called a(n)__________________.
20
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT:
A) swelling.
B) heat.
C) constriction of blood vessels.
D) redness.
E) formation of pus.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT part of the mucosal surface defense barrier against microbial invasion?
A) lysozyme
B) keratinized cells
C) ciliated epithelial cells
D) lactoferrin
E) mucus
Q3) Which of these results in immunological memory?
A) The innate immune response.
B) The adaptive immune response.
C) The non-specific immune response.
D) Passive immunity from mother to offspring.
E) Immune mechanisms present at birth.
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Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Every mature B cell is capable of producing antibodies with:
A) a single unique specificity.
B) at least a hundred specificities.
C) at least a thousand specificities.
D) at least one-hundred thousand specificities.
E) at least a million specificities.
Q2) Antibodies protect the host from infections by performing all of the following activities except one.Select the activity it does NOT perform.
A) antigen degradation
B) complement activation
C) agglutination
D) opsonization
E) ADCC killing of infected cells by NK cells
Q3) What are plasma cells?
A) Antibody producing cells.
B) The same as memory B cells.
C) Any lymphocyte in the blood stream.
D) The same as memory CD8 T cells.
E) T-helper cells.
Q4) Describe how a CD8 cell can recognize and kill a virus infected cell.
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Staphylococcus aureus produces a potent exotoxin which causes cell damage that induces a very strong inflammatory response in the host.What is this toxin?
A) pneumolysin
B) -toxin
C) enterotoxin
D) streptolysin O
E) Protein A
Q2) Explain how superantigens are able to cause toxic shock syndrome.
Q3) The capsule is considered a virulence factor for many pathogens.Explain how the capsule aids the pathogen in establishing the disease process.
Q4) The scientific name of a causative agent of bacterial meningitis is ____________ meningitidis.
Q5) The DTaP vaccine is designed to protect against which diseases?
A) diarrhea, tetanus, and polio
B) diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
C) diarrhea, tetanus, and pertussis
D) diphtheria, tetanus, and polio
E) diarrhea, measles, and polio
Q6) A bacterial toxin that is secreted by the cell is called a(n)_________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) What are syncytia?
A) transformed cells
B) cell lysed by viruses
C) cells undergoing apoptosis
D) multinucleated giant cells
E) cells with inclusion bodies
Q2) Which of these would lead to a recombination in viruses?
A) Crossover events during meiosis.
B) Errors during DNA replication.
C) Crossover events during mitosis.
D) Errors during RNA replication.
E) Co-infection of a cell by two different strains of the virus.
Q3) Many viral-infected cells will undergo apoptosis and die.Why is this important for the organism as a whole?
A) It limits the production of new viruses by the cell.
B) It triggers a strong adaptive immune response.
C) It causes considerable tissue destruction.
D) It triggers a strong cell-mediated immune response.
E) It prevents tissue necrosis.
Q4) Warts are caused by the _______________.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) What can result from an ascaris infection in children?
A) Poor nutrient absorption and growth.
B) Damage to the liver.
C) Damage to the heart.
D) Rashes.
E) Damage to the bladder.
Q2) Trypanosomes have a complex life cycle that involves both an insect and mammal host.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plant pathogen Magnaporthe grisea produces specialized cell structures called ____________ that penetrate the plant cuticle to allow the fungi to invade the plant.
A) hyphae
B) conidia
C) ascospores
D) appressoria
E) cysts
Q4) Explain how the malarial parasite causes disease in humans.
Q5) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The original polio vaccine developed by Jonas Salk in 1952 was a(n)_____.
A) subunit vaccine.
B) acellular vaccine.
C) killed virus vaccine.
D) attenuated virus vaccine.
E) conjugate vaccine.
Q2) Bloodletting,or the intentional draining of blood from an ill individual,was a method commonly used in the middle ages to cure disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with an impaired immune system is given a bacteriostatic drug to treat a bacterial infection.After ending antibiotic therapy the person redevelops the same infection.Explain what may have gone wrong.
Q4) The mode of action for aminoglycoside antibiotics is to inhibit _____________ synthesis.
Q5) Proteins that remove antimicrobial drug from a cell by pumping them out are called ___________ pumps.
Q6) Azidothymidine (AZT)is an antiviral drug used to treat a(n)_________ infection.
Q7) The Sabin polio vaccine was a(n)________________ vaccine.
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