Microbiology for Health Sciences
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on their relevance to health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on the role of microbes in human health and disease, the mechanisms of pathogenicity, the bodys immune responses to infections, and the principles of disease prevention and control. The course also covers the basics of antimicrobial agents, laboratory safety, and diagnostic techniques commonly used in clinical settings. Designed for health science students, this course provides essential knowledge for understanding infectious diseases and their impact on public health.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-power microscopes designed for observing fairly large objects such as insects or worms are
A)electron microscopes.
B)dark-field microscopes.
C)fluorescence microscopes.
D)stereomicroscopes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following diseases is transmitted via aerosols?
A)Psittacosis
B)Shigellosis
C)Leptospirosis
D)Giardiasis
Answer: A
Q3) Stereomicroscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) After filling the first shell,the outermost shell of an atom can hold up to __________ electrons.
A)2
B)6
C)8
D)10
Answer: C
Q2) The breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones in the presence of water is called __________.
Answer: hydrolysis
Q3) Lactose is composed of glucose and __________.
Answer: galactose
Q4) An atom with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons is called a(n)__________.
Answer: isotope
Q5) The monomers of triglycerides are __________ and fatty acids. Answer: glycerol
Q6) Chemically,ATP is a(n)__________.
Answer: nucleic acid
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)helminths. Answer: B
Q2) Described the cell membrane as a barrier
A)Robert Hooke
B)Rudolph Kölliker
C)Naegeli and Cramer
D)Schleiden and Schwann
E)Antony van Leeuwenhoek
F)Richard Altmann
G)Ernst Ruska
Answer: C
Q3) The nucleus is surrounded by a(n)__________. Answer: nuclear envelope
Q4) The sterol-like molecule in bacterial plasma membranes is a(n)__________. Answer: hopanoid
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
Q2) Gas gangrene
A)Rickettsia rickettsii
B)Chlamydia psittaci
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Helicobacter pylori
E)Salmonella
F)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
G)Clostridium perfringens
Q3) Microorganisms that grow only in the presence of oxygen are called __________.
Q4) Bacteria with a spherical shape
A)Psychrotrophs
B)Thermophiles
C)Chemoautotrophs
D)Chemoheterotrophs
E)Sarcinae
F)Tetrads
G)Vibrios
H)Spirillium
I)Cocci
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A persistent infection that is not lytic but productive is called a __________ infection.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)slow
D)transforming
Q2) The phase during which no infectious phage particles can be found in a host cell is the __________ period.
Q3) Human papillomavirus
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q4) Capsids forming multifaced structures having 20 triangular faces are called __________.
Q5) A fully assembled virus is called a __________.
Q6) A virus that infects bacteria is referred to as a __________.
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Result of asexual reproduction of fungi
A)Mycelium
B)Algae
C)Sporangia
D)Fungi
E)Dimorphic fungi
F)Coenocytic
G)Blastospore
Q2) Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most often live in ponds,streams,lakes,and oceans?
A)Mycorrhizae
B)Armillaria gallica
C)Blastospores
D)Protozoans
Q3) Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
A)Enterobius vermicularis
B)Necator americanus
C)Ascaris lumbricoides
D)Ancylostoma duodenale
Q4) The vegetative structure of algae is referred to as a __________.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except A)UV light
B)Gamma rays
C)Electron beams
D)X-rays
Q2) High salt or sugar content/concentrations make use of ____________ to destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
Q3) All of the following are methods for food preservation except
A)Pasteurization
B)Disinfection
C)Irradiation
D)Ultrahigh-temperature pasteurization
Q4) The term to describe an agent that causes microbial growth to be inhibited,thus preventing further growth is __________.
Q5) Decontamination is defined as the
A)killing of all microorganisms in a given area.
B)reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents.
C)stopping of the growth of microorganisms in a given area.
D)removal of all vegetative organisms.
Q6) Food irradiation destroys the __________ of the cell.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following media are defined and have an exact chemical composition?
A)Complex media
B)Synthetic media
C)Enriched media
D)Special media
Q2) Which of the following is a biological test organism for validating dry or moist heat sterilization?
A)Bacillus subtilis var.niger
B)Escherichia coli
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Staphylococcus epidermidis
Q3) A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as
A)napiform.
B)saccate.
C)crateriform.
D)stratiform.
Q4) Substances that kill bacteria are referred to as __________.
Q5) A culture that contains a single species of an organism is a __________ culture.
Q6) A disinfectant is designed to be used only on __________ surfaces.
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Q7) A procedure performed under sterile conditions uses the __________ technique.
Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
A)RG1
B)RG2
C)RG3
D)RG4
Q2) Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only,until the victim reaches another safety unit?
A)Emergency shower
B)Personal eyewash
C)Handheld drench hose
D)Combination unit
Q3) Fires from combustibles such as wood require type __________ fire extinguishers.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) Dangerous and exotic agents need to be handled in a BSL-__________ environment.
Q5) Control of access to BSL-3 laboratories is the responsibility of the __________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time response measures all of the following except A)ED<sub>50</sub>
B)Peak effect time
C)Onset of response
D)Threshold level
Q2) When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the A)threshold level.
B)peak effect.
C)cessation effect.
D)latency time.
Q3) The term used to indicate the extent to which a drug reaches its site of action is A)bioactivity.
B)bioavailability.
C)bioremediation.
D)biostasis.
Q4) Drug administration,absorption,distribution,and clearance are collectively called __________.
Q5) The __________ is the ratio between a drug dose causing undesirable effects and the dose that causes the desired effects.
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the MIC method of determining antibiotic effectiveness,the lowest concentration containing no living organisms is called the __________.
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria?
A)Penicillin
B)Rifampin
C)Erythromycin
D)Cephalosporin
Q3) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
Q4) Erythromycin
A)Vancor
B)Vancocin
C)Sansac
D)Cipro
E)Dalacin
F)Rofact
G)Nydrazid
H)Etibi
Q5) A drug that kills pathogenic bacteria is referred to as __________.
Q6) The zone of inhibition is the result of the __________ method.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A)Peritoneum
B)Urethra
C)Vagina
D)Mouth
Q2) The type of infection in which several infectious agents establish themselves at the same site is referred to as a
A)chronic infection.
B)necrotizing infection.
C)fatal infection.
D)mixed infection.
Q3) Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission?
A)Airborne
B)Insect
C)Foodborne
D)Bodily fluid
Q4) Vectors that transmit pathogens and also serve as host for part of the pathogen's life cycle are __________ vectors.
Q5) The study of the cause of disease is called __________.
Q6) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following provide defense against viral infections?
A)Histamines
B)Antibiotics
C)Prostaglandins
D)Interferons
Q2) Granulocytes are subdivided into three groups: __________,__________,and __________.
Q3) Immunity that is a result of an actual infection is called
A)artificially acquired passive immunity.
B)artificially acquired active immunity.
C)naturally acquired passive immunity.
D)naturally acquired active immunity.
Q4) Cells infected with a virus produce glycoproteins that interfere with viral replication and impede its spread; these glycoproteins are called
A)interferons.
B)suppressors.
C)pyrogens.
D)prostaglandins.
Q5) The category of immunoglobulins that is implicated in allergic reactions is
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Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leprosy is caused by __________.
Q2) Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
Q3) A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________."
Q4) "Athlete's foot" is referred to as A)tinea capitis.
B)tinea corporis.
C)tinea versicolor.
D)tinea pedis.
Q5) Langerhans cells,which play a role in defense against microbes,are located in the A)epidermis.
B)dermis.
C)hypodermis.
D)subcutaneous layer.
Q6) Warts are commonly caused by the A)human papillomavirus.
B)herpesvirus.
C)HIV.
D)varicella-zoster virus.
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Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterium Mycoplasma pneumonia is unique in that it lacks a(an)____________________.
Q2) The "strawberry tongue" symptom is often associated with A)rheumatic fever.
B)scarlet fever.
C)pneumonia.
D)pharyngitis.
Q3) Scarlet fever is caused by
A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q4) SARS stands for __________.
Q5) The three forms of anthrax caused by Bacillus anthracis are __________,__________,and __________.
Q6) Whooping cough is caused by the organism
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Bordetella pertussis.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many peptic ulcers are due to
A)Salmonella typhi.
B)Helicobacter pylori.
C)Shigella boydii.
D)Salmonella enterica.
Q2) The most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children is A)noroviruses.
B)adenoviruses.
C)rotaviruses.
D)caliciviruses.
Q3) Bacterial food intoxication
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q4) The most common nematode infection of humans worldwide is
Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemically,prions are __________.
Q2) African trypanosomiasis is caused by __________.
Q3) The nervous system is divided into two components: the __________ and the __________ .
Q4) The toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum is classified as a __________.
Q5) When both the brain and the meninges are inflamed,the condition is referred to as
Q6) To prevent meningitis,routine vaccination in the United States is provided against A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Listeria monocytogenes.
Q7) Toxoplasmosis is caused by the organism Toxoplasma gondii,which is a A)bacterium.
B)protozoan.
C)virus.
D)fungus.
Q8) Pneumococcal infection of the middle ear is referred to as________________. Page 19
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Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malaria is transmitted by the bite of a(n)______________________ mosquito.
Q2) The bacterium Yersinia pestis is responsible for causing what disease?
A)Tonsillitis
B)Leprosy
C)Plague
D)Rat fever
Q3) The bacterium most frequently found to be involved in gas gangrene is __________ __________.
Q4) "Rabbit fever," a zoonotic disease,is caused by
A)Bartonella henselae.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Francisella tularensis.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q5) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
Q6) The toxic condition caused by the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from the site of infection is called __________.
Q7) Malaria is caused by a protozoan of the genus __________.
Page 21
Q8) Any infectious disease or infection that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans is classified as __________.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common fungus causing urinary tract infections is A)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
B)Rhizopus.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Microsporum.
Q2) The presence of bacteria in the urine is called A)toxemia.
B)bacteriuria.
C)mycoses.
D)urethritis.
Q3) Hemorrhagic cystitis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q4) The reverse flow of urine from the bladder up the ureters and back into the kidneys is called __________.
23
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Group B streptococcal infection
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q2) 30% of vaginitis cases
A)Candida albicans
B)Borrelia vincentii
C)Streptococcus agalactiae
D)Flagellated protozoan
E)Bacillus subtilis
F)Streptococcus pyogenes
G)Gardnerella vaginalis
1. 30% of vaginitis cases
Q3) PID infections may be asymptomatic but often exhibit the symptoms of
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The causative agent for chancroid is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
D)Haemophilus ducreyi.
Q2) Which of the following STIs is also referred to as the "great imitator"?
A)Gonorrhea
B)Chlamydia
C)Syphilis
D)Chancroid
Q3) Jock itch
A)Protozoan
B)Tinea-related species
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Klebsiella species
E)Candida albicans
F)AIDS
G)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q4) HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
Q5) _______________________ is the most reported STI in the United States.
25
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Q1) The most critical time of infection with the rubella virus during pregnancy is during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.
Q2) Congenital CMV infections are caused by A)coronavirus.
B)herpes simplex virus. C)cytomegalovirus.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q3) The gestation period of humans is approximately __________ weeks.
Q4) The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is A)cytomegalovirus.
B)HIV.
C)herpes simplex virus.
D)Epstein-Barr virus.
Q5) A fetus infected with rubella virus produces which of the following antibodies that can then be detected in the umbilical cord?
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) Which of the following zones is present only in oceans?
A)Abyssal zone
B)Benthic zone
C)Littoral zone
D)Profundal zone
Q2) Category B agents would include
A)Vibrio cholerae.
B)Yersinia pestis.
C)Francisella tularensis.
D)Clostridium botulinum.
Q3) Which of the following processes is most commonly used in wastewater treatment?
A)Sulfur
B)Anammox
C)Phosphorus
D)Carbon dioxide
Q4) Brucellosis is a Category __________ disease.
Q5) A region or regions of the earth populated by living organisms is/are referred to as the __________.
Q6) The incubation time for Ebola is 2 to __________ days.
Q7) The conversion of CO to organic molecules is called __________. Page 27
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) IHR
A)Program to reinforce the identification and response to emerging diseases around the world
B)Primary responsibility is to protect people in the United States from infectious diseases
C)Regulations to address a global approach to prevent, detect, and respond to any public health threat of international concern
D)Classifies infectious diseases into three categories
E)Provides instructions for destroying bioterrorism weapons
F)Assigns hospitals as primary response sites in cases of pandemic
Q2) Which of the following organisms belongs in the group I category?
A)Francisella tularensis
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Bacillus anthracis
Q3) Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include
A)new foodborne pathogens.
B)diseases considered eradicated.
C)diseases used specifically as bioterrorism agents.
D)reemerging diseases.
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Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of phage therapy?
A)Specificity of phages to target bacteria
B)Specificity of phages to target viruses
C)Replication of phages at the site of infection
D)No or little side effects
Q2) A sense strand is a __________ to __________ mRNA or DNA molecule.
Q3) Enzymes that cut DNA straight across both of the double helix strands produce __________ ends.
Q4) Which of the following scientists was instrumental in the discovery of plasmids?
A)Robert Koch
B)Louis Pasteur
C)Stanley Cohen
D)Willard Johannsen
Q5) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Q6) The process of copying a plate to identify a specific colony is called __________.
Q7) Synthetic proteins that can be used in the treatment of hepatitis C are __________.
Q8) The hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate stem cells of the bone marrow to mature into red blood cells is __________.
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