Microbiology for Health Sciences
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a foundational understanding of microbiology with special emphasis on its relevance to the health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, classification, and genetics of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. The course covers the roles of microorganisms in health and disease, modes of transmission, mechanisms of pathogenicity, and principles of immunology. Additional focus is placed on techniques for microbial control, antimicrobial therapies, and the prevention of infectious diseases in clinical settings. Through lectures and laboratory sessions, students gain practical skills essential for careers in healthcare, nursing, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Nesters Microbiology A Human Perspective 8th Edition by Denise G. Anderson
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Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell types that lack a membrane-bound nucleus are found in the A)eukaryotes.
B)prokaryotes.
C)archaea.
D)protista.
E)prokaryotes AND archaea.
Answer: E
Q2) Which group(s)below contain single-celled and multicellular organisms?
A)Algae
B)Fungi
C)Protozoa
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)Algae AND Fungi
Answer: E
Q3) Viruses are often referred to as
A)infectious agents.
B)eubacteria.
C)archaebacteria.
D)cellular agents.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important molecule(s)in the world is(are)
A)water.
B)protein.
C)carbohydrates.
D)nucleic acids.
Answer: A
Q2) Phospholipids are non-polar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The -OH group in a carbohydrate
A)may be found above or below the plane of the ring.
B)is involved in the formation of stereoisomers.
C)is involved when linking monosaccharides together.
D)All of the choices are true.
Answer: D
Q4) Steroids are simple lipids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endotoxin
A)consists of LPS.
B)determines bacterial shape.
C)may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source.
D)is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.
E)determines bacterial shape,may have different effects depending on the specific bacterial source,AND is toxic due to the effects of the peptide side chains.
Answer: A
Q2) Immunofluorescence
A)uses fluorescently tagged molecules.
B)makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies.
C)utilizes acridine orange.
D)would require a special UV microscope.
E)uses fluorescently tagged molecules,makes use of the specificity in binding of antibodies,AND would require a special UV microscope.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The optimal temperature for most human pathogens might be expected to range from
A)35-40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
B)20-45<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
C)15-25<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
D)93-98.6<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
Q2) Organisms that are indifferent to the presence of oxygen and do not use it are
A)aerotolerant anaerobes.
B)facultative anaerobes.
C)obligate aerobes.
D)microaerophiles.
Q3) Bacteria may be stored
A)on a slant in the refrigerator.
B)frozen in glycerol solution.
C)freeze-dried.
D)in broth at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
E)on a slant in the refrigerator,frozen in glycerol solution,AND freeze-dried.
Q4) Differential media only allows certain bacteria to grow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms are resistant to destruction by typical disinfection methods?
A)Endospores of Bacillus and Clostridium
B)Pseudomonas
C)Non-enveloped viruses
D)Mycobacterium spp.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) If a process kills 90% of the organisms per minute,how many minutes would it take to kill all organisms when starting with 100,000 organisms?
A)1 minute
B)2 minutes
C)3 minutes
D)6 minutes
Q3) The endospores of Pseudomonas make that organism very difficult to kill.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Boiling is very effective at removing most common waterborne pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would a cell ferment rather than respire?
A)There's no oxygen present,and it cannot respire anaerobically.
B)It lacks the ability to respire (i.e.no electron transport chain).
C)There is no oxygen present and it cannot use anaerobic respiration OR it lacks the ability to respire (i.e.,no electron transport chain).
D)None of the above.
Q2) Enzymes speed up reactions by
A)raising activation energy.
B)producing heat.
C)reducing entropy.
D)lowering activation energy.
E)raising activation energy AND reducing entropy.
Q3) Allosteric enzymes
A)may bind two substrates.
B)are used to bind to other enzymes.
C)have an additional binding site that is involved in regulating enzyme activity.
D)are twice as fast as single-site enzymes.
E)may bind two substrates AND are twice as fast as single-site enzymes.
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about DNA replication?
A)It is semiconservative.
B)It starts at an origin of replication.
C)It is bi-directional.
D)It requires RNA primers.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The P-site
A)is found on the polymerase enzyme.
B)is an allosteric site.
C)is a promoter site.
D)is the peptidyl site on the ribosome.
E)is an allosteric site AND is a promoter site.
Q3) What is the number of tRNA molecules that may be associated with translation?
A)16
B)20
C)64
D)Fewer than 64
Q4) Ribozymes are non-protein molecules with catalytic activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are called A)base analogs.
B)intercalating agents.
C)transposons.
D)inverted repeats.
Q2) A quick microbiological test for potential carcinogens was developed by A)Fleming.
B)Lederberg.
C)Ames.
D)Crick.
Q3) The properties of a cell that are determined by its DNA composition are its A)phenotype.
B)genotype.
C)metabolism.
D)nucleoid.
Q4) X-rays
A)have no effect on DNA. B)cause thymine trimers. C)cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules. D)make the DNA radioactive.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polymerase chain reaction is used to duplicate small sections of A)DNA.
B)RNA.
C)proteins.
D)lipids.
Q2) The molecules used as molecular scissors in genetic engineering are A)exonucleases.
B)proteases.
C)restriction enzymes.
D)RNA polymerases.
Q3) Dideoxynucleotides
A)are useful in nucleic acid sequencing.
B)have two additional hydroxyl groups at the 2' and 3' carbons.
C)act as chain initiators.
D)act as chain terminators.
E)are useful in nucleic acid sequencing AND act as chain terminators.
Q4) PCR typically results in the generation of fragments of all sizes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Very often clinically relevant information may be obtained by examining A)a wet mount.
B)the size and shape of the organism.
C)the sequence of proteins.
D)the transformation ability.
E)a wet mount AND the size and shape of the organism.
Q2) Based on DNA hybridization,humans and chimpanzees are the same species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disagreements between conclusions obtained from rDNA data and other techniques may be explained by
A)horizontal DNA transfer.
B)vertical DNA transfer.
C)the difference in translation machinery.
D)vertical RNA transfer.
Q4) The reference for taxonomic descriptions of bacteria is
A)Gray's Anatomy.
B)Websters Manual of Taxonomic Bacteriology.
C)Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.
D)Bacteriology.
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Q1) Mycoplasma
A)lack peptidoglycan.
B)are the smallest free-living organisms.
C)have sterols in their membranes.
D)are killed by penicillin.
E)lack peptidoglycan,are the smallest free-living organisms AND have sterols in their membranes.
Q2) Bacteria and Archaea both have members that use sulfur compounds as a terminal electron acceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of Hansen's disease (leprosy)?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Mycobacterium avium
C)Mycobacterium leprae
D)Mycobacterium smegmatis
Q4) Streptomyces produce a number of antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Algae
A)often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty.
B)are strictly macroscopic organisms.
C)have a vascular system similar to plants.
D)are only found in the soil.
Q2) The pH at which most fungi thrive is
A)3.0.
B)5.0.
C)7.0.
D)8.0.
Q3) Gonyaulax
A)produces a non-protein neurotoxin.
B)infects the nervous system of humans.
C)is a dinoflagellate.
D)produces a non-protein neurotoxin AND is a dinoflagellate.
Q4) Haustoria
A)are a form of parasitic protozoan.
B)refers to the reproductive structure formed by slime molds.
C)are specialized hyphae used by parasitic fungi.
D)are the reproductive form of protozoans.
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the replication of phage containing positive-sense DNA, A)the host's enzymes are used to make dsDNA.
B)the host's DNA polymerase uses the phage RNA as a template to make negative-sense DNA.
C)a phage-encoded DNA polymerase is used to make negative-sense RNA using the phage positive-sense RNA as a template.
D)a phage-encoded DNA polymerase is used to make DNA using the phage positive-sense RNA as a template.
Q2) Specialized transduction
A)involves the random transmission of any gene.
B)involves the transfer of a few specific genes.
C)utilizes a defective virus.
D)only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.
E)involves the transfer of a few specific genes,utilizes a defective virus AND only involves genes near the viral DNA integration site.
Q3) A lysogenic cell contains viral DNA,a prophage,integrated into the host chromosome. A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the
A)peripheral circulation.
B)lymphatic vessels.
C)lymph nodes.
D)bone marrow.
Q2) How do cytokines function?
A)They bind directly to microbes to enhance their chance of being ingested (phagocytosed).
B)They are secreted in the phagolysosomes of neutrophils to effect killing of ingested microbes.
C)They are secreted by one cell type.They then bind to a receptor on target cell causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off)certain genes to achieve a response.
D)They work as a series of serum proteins to produce a hole in microbes to directly lyse them.
Q3) The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the
A)prostaglandin complex.
B)leukotriene activating complex.
C)membrane attack complex.
D)histamine complex.
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that actually secrete antibodies are A)plasma cells.
B)natural killer cells.
C)phagocytes.
D)T cells.
Q2) Which of the following class of antibody is primarily found in external secretions?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
Q3) The stimulation of B cells to divide and mature is provided by A)T helper cells.
B)macrophages.
C)T cytotoxic cells.
D)plasma cells.
Q4) T cell independent antigens lead to a memory response.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Attributes of an organism that promote pathogenicity are called A)disease factors.
B)colonization factors.
C)mutualistic.
D)virulence factors.
Q2) The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must A)invade host tissues.
B)attach to host cells.
C)evade phagocytes.
D)produce toxins.
Q3) An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be A)production of a comet's tail.
B)protease production.
C)inhibition of MHC Class I antigen production.
D)changing the pilus type.
E)production of a comet's tail AND protease production.
Q4) A strong attachment of a microorganism to a host cell automatically leads to disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb)
A)appears promising as a treatment for asthma.
B)decreases the levels of IgG.
C)uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
D)promotes crosslinking between IgE molecules on the mast cells.
E)appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule.
Q2) Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called
A)natural.
B)acquired.
C)injurious.
D)active.
Q3) Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including
A)sensitized T cytotoxic cells.
B)NK cells.
C)erythrocytic cells.
D)basophilic cells.
E)sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells.
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with A)alcohol.
B)phenol.
C)formalin.
D)histamine.
Q2) The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called
A)acquired immunity.
B)memory immunity.
C)vaccination.
D)hypersensitivity.
Q3) The Salk vaccine
A)contains live attenuated virus.
B)contains inactivated virus.
C)contains a portion of the polio virus.
D)occasionally causes disease.
Q4) The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called A)Oriental poxination.
B)humoral immunity.
C)variolation.
D)naturally acquired immunity.
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Q1) Which of the following is recommended by the Standard Precautions guidelines?
A)Glove use
B)Hand washing
C)A face shield
D)Antibiotic use
E)Glove use,hand washing,AND a face shield
Q2) The single most important measure to prevent the spread of disease is A)home cooking.
B)canning.
C)pasteurization.
D)hand washing.
Q3) Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are A)vectors.
B)fomites.
C)vehicles.
D)reservoirs.
Q4) The portal of entry typically has little effect on the course of a disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Q1) Why would it be important for the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test to use a standard concentration (number of cells in the sample)of each of the bacterial strains being tested?
A)Antibiotics only work within a narrow range of cell concentrations.If you use a concentration that is too low or too high,you will get inaccurate measurements of the zone of inhibition.
B)Antibiotic resistance is usually only manifested by bacteria that have achieved a very high concentration (i.e.,they are in the very end of the stationary phase of the growth curve).It's important to use bacteria specifically at this particular point for disc diffusion testing.
C)If you were to use one strain that was stationary phase (high concentration,replicating very slowly or not at all),and another strain that was just beginning log phase (low concentration but replicating quickly),you could see dramatically different results in the disc diffusion test.This could skew your interpretations of resistance/susceptibility.
D)Growth on the Mueller-Hinton agar plates utilized is very sensitive to the phase of the growth curve the bacteria are in when they are placed on the plate.If they are not in the log phase when they are placed on the plate,they will not grow and the test will be worthless.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The characteristic virulence factor of S.pneumoniae is A)a capsule.
B)flagella.
C)pili.
D)cilia.
Q2) Histoplasmosis may mimic tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Streptococci are grouped by their cell wall carbohydrates. A)True B)False
Q4) About 60% of the bacterial pneumonias that require hospitalization of adults are caused by A)S.pyogenes.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.aureus.
D)K.pneumonia.
Q5) Klebsiellae easily acquire and are a source of R factors. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete with a number of axial filaments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The bacteria that appear to maintain balance between the members of the normal microbiota and play a vital role in limiting colonization by pathogens are A)staphylococci.
B)diptheroids.
C)Candida spp.
D)Malassezia spp.
Q3) Which of the following is a fairly reliable method of characterizing strains of S.aureus?
A)Complement fixation
B)Protein fingerprint
C)Genome typing
D)LPS pattern
Q4) Varicella is a member of the herpes family of viruses and produces a latent infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Q1) Streptobacillus moniliformis is unusual in that it spontaneously forms L-forms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cat scratch fever is caused by
A)Bartonella (Rochalimaea)henselae.
B)Pasteurella multocida.
C)Teddis nugentaea.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)Bartonella (Rochalimaea)henselae AND Staphylococcus aureus.
Q3) An important feature of many wounds that may lead to more serious problems is that they are
A)well aerated.
B)well fed.
C)sterile.
D)relatively anaerobic.
Q4) A wound created by the drag of a knife across skin can be classified as A)puncture.
B)incised.
C)lacerated.
D)contused.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Q1) Collections of bacteria that adhere to the surfaces of the teeth are called A)dental caries.
B)dental plaque.
C)halitosis.
D)periodontal disease.
Q2) The animal(s)often associated with Salmonella strains is/are A)turtles.
B)iguanas.
C)baby chickens.
D)ducks.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Who determined that the cholera outbreak in 1850s London was due to contaminated water and approached the problem by removing the pump handle at the contaminated site?
A)Pasteur
B)Snow
C)Koch
D)Smith
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Tract Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is/are able to survive phagocytosis?
A)Brucella sp.
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Francisella tularensis
D)Brucella sp AND Francisella tularensis
Q2) The causative agent of plague is A)Vibrio cholerae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Brucella abortus.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q3) The fluid which bathes and nourishes the tissue cells is the A)cytoplasm.
B)lymph.
C)blood.
D)interstitial fluid.
Q4) The major virulence factors of Yersinia pestis are carried on A)the chromosome.
B)a plasmid.
C)three separate plasmids.
D)nuclear membrane.
27
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