Microbiology for Health Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces fundamental concepts of microbiology with a focus on microorganisms and their relevance to human health and disease. Emphasis is placed on the structure, function, and classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as host-microbe interactions. Students will explore topics such as microbial pathogenesis, epidemiology, infection control, and the role of the immune system in defense against pathogens. Practical laboratory skills, including microscopy, culturing techniques, and identification of microbes, are integrated to support understanding of diagnostic practices in health care settings. This course is essential for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology A Human Perspective 7th Edition by Eugene Nester
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2089 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Humans and the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiomargarita namibiensis could not be a eukaryote because it is only 1mm in width.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Viruses are often referred to as A) infectious agents.
B) eubacteria.
C) archaebacteria.
D) cellular agents.
Answer: A
Q3) The system by which organisms are named is referred to as A) systematics.
B) naming.
C) nomenclature.
D) cladistics.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important feature of a protein is its
A) secondary structure.
B) side group.
C) shape.
D) electric charge.
Answer: C
Q2) Which determines the chemical and physical properties of an atom of an element?
A) electron
B) neutron
C) atomic weight
D) atomic number
Answer: D
Q3) The atomic weight is equal to
A) the number of electrons.
B) the number of electrons plus neutrons.
C) the number of protons.
D) the number of neutrons and protons.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The microscope which allows the specimen to appear 3-dimensional is the A) phase contrast microscope.
B) interference microscope.
C) fluorescence microscope.
D) dark-field microscope.
Answer: B
Q2) The cell wall of Gram-negative organisms
A) has a thick peptidoglycan layer.
B) has a thin peptidoglycan layer.
C) is more permeable to various molecules than the Gram-positive cell wall.
D) is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.
E) has a thin peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer membrane containing LPS.
Answer: E
Q3) Most solutes pass through the cytoplasmic membrane via A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) transport proteins.
D) secretion.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Dynamics of Prokaryotic Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium leprae is typically found infecting the ears, toes and fingers of its host due to its
A) requirement for well-oxygenated blood.
B) easy access to those parts.
C) need for cooler temperatures.
D) long incubation period.
Q2) Organisms that are indifferent to the presence of oxygen and do not use it are
A) aerotolerant anaerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) obligate aerobes.
D) microaerophiles.
Q3) One would expect most strict anaerobic organisms to have superoxide dismutase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacteria on fish caught in the Arctic Ocean would
A) be psychrophiles.
B) be mesophiles.
C) continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator.
D) not grow very well in the refrigerator.
E) be psychrophiles AND continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moist heat kills microorganisms by
A) irreversible coagulation of proteins.
B) destruction of carbohydrates in the cell wall.
C) denaturation of nucleic acids.
D) dissolving the capsule.
Q2) Hydrogen peroxide may be used as a sterilant on living tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Typical conditions used for sterilization are
A) 100°C for 10 minutes.
B) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.
C) 80°C for 15 minutes.
D) 72°C for 15 seconds.
Q4) Heat treatment is an effective method for sterilization or disinfection of all materials.
A)True B)False
Q5) Upon heat treatment, bacteria die at a constant proportion.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Fueling Cell Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biosynthetic reactions that require energy for the conversion of molecular subunits into larger molecules are called
A) kinetic energy.
B) catabolic reactions.
C) precursor molecules.
D) anabolic reactions.
Q2) In fermentation, the only ATP produced was during glycolysis and the fermentation reactions usually result in resetting the NADH to NAD.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pyruvate can be metabolized along two major routes. They are A) oxidation and reduction.
B) fermentation and respiration.
C) metabolism and anabolism.
D) anabolism and catabolism.
Q4) Both glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway oxidize glucose to pyruvate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Blueprint of Life, From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signal transduction
A) is the relay of information about conditions outside a cell to inside the cell.
B) often relies on a two component system.
C) may involve phosphorylation of various molecules.
D) is used by certain pathogens to sense low magnesium conditions.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The scientists responsible for the idea that RNA can act as a catalyst were
A) Watson and Crick.
B) Beadle and Tatum.
C) Altman and Cech.
D) Lederberg and Stanley.
Q3) The lagging strand
A) is the third type of RNA.
B) is found during RNA replication.
C) is necessary due to the properties of the enzymes and the antiparallel nature of DNA.
D) is always the bottom strand.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intercalating agents
A) act during DNA synthesis.
B) often result in frame shift mutations.
C) only act in dormant cells.
D) alter the hydrogen bonding properties of the bases.
E) act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.
Q2) Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause
A) 4 nucleotides to covalently bind together.
B) thymine dimers.
C) adenine complementary base pairing with cytosine.
D) the addition of uracil.
Q3) F plasmids and oftentimes R plasmids are both able to code for production of a pilus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The material responsible for transformation was shown to be DNA by
A) Watson and Crick.
B) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty.
C) Lederberg.
D) Stanley.
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vectors must have at least one restriction enzyme recognition site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dideoxynucleotides
A) are useful in nucleic acid sequencing.
B) have two additional hydroxyl groups at the 2' and 3' carbons.
C) act as chain initiators.
D) act as chain terminators.
E) are useful in nucleic acid sequencing AND act as chain terminators.
Q3) Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
A) uses virus hosts.
B) uses a labeled probe.
C) is useful in microbial ecology.
D) allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples.
E) uses a labeled probe, is useful in microbial ecology AND allows identification of particular bacterial groups in mixed samples.
Q4) PCR typically results in the generation of fragments of all sizes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Identification and Classification of Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modern approaches to evolutionary taxonomy often involve
A) biochemical differences.
B) comparison of DNA and RNA.
C) protein similarities.
D) lactose fermentation.
Q2) A selective growth medium
A) allows only certain bacteria to grow.
B) allows all bacteria to grow.
C) allows no bacteria to grow.
D) accentuates differences between the growing bacteria.
Q3) Fatty acid analysis
A) can be used to identify Gram-negative bacteria.
B) can be used to identify Gram-positive bacteria.
C) uses gas chromatography to analyze fatty acid methyl esters.
D) requires that cells be grown under standardized conditions.
E) All of the above
Q4) Streptococcus pyogenes can be easily distinguished microscopically from other Streptococcus species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Diversity of Prokaryotic Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyanobacteria
A) are a form of algae.
B) are prokaryotes.
C) use hydrogen sulfide as an electron source.
D) are eukaryotes.
Q2) The genomes of free-living spirochaetes are larger than those living in animal hosts. Why might this be so?
A) Free-living spirochetes will need to synthesize proteins to obtain or create their own food from the environment around them. Parasitic spirochetes can leech food particles from the animal host, and may not need to move towards those food particles.
B) The spirochetes in animal hosts are different species entirely. As different species, they would naturally have smaller genomes.
C) A smaller genome implies simplicity-the spirochetes living in animal hosts have fewer needs, so they need fewer genes.
D) It isn't so-all spirochetes would have the same size genomes, since they're all the same species of microbe.
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotic Members of the Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protozoans are eukaryotes and as such will always possess a nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the greatest causes of human deaths through time has been due to
A) Giardia spp.
B) Histoplasma spp.
C) Trypanosoma spp.
D) Plasmodium spp.
Q3) The return of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere and nitrogen to the soil is due to the action of
A) viruses and plants.
B) bacteria and viruses.
C) fungi and bacteria.
D) fungi and viruses.
Q4) Algae
A) often grow in areas where other forms of life may have difficulty.
B) are strictly macroscopic organisms.
C) have a vascular system similar to plants.
D) are only found in the soil.
14
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Chapter 13: Viruses, Viroids and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which does not refer to the shape of a virus?
A) icosahedral (isometric)
B) helical
C) complex
D) bacillus
Q2) There are _______ families of DNA containing viruses that infect vertebrates.
A) two
B) four
C) five
D) seven
Q3) An infection in which the virus is continually present in the body is referred to as A) acute.
B) balanced.
C) determinant.
D) persistent.
Q4) Transduction often involves defective virus.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toll-like receptors (TLRs) bind molecules on pathogens. Why is this helpful to the immune response?
A) It provides a highly specific response to very small and highly unique areas on an individual pathogenic microbe, providing the most specific and selective response possible.
B) It provides a general response to broad categories of molecules/cells that should NOT be in our system, as we don't have these molecules on our own cells.
C) These secreted molecules help bind pathogens and then direct them to receptors on the immune system cells that are best capable of eliminating them from our systems. TLRs are delivery mechanisms for the immune responses.
D) TLRs are capable of directly lysing (destroying) the microbes, helping our immune responses by eliminating pathogens.
Q2) Iron
A) is required for growth by some bacteria.
B) binds to lactoferrin.
C) is necessary for the functioning of some enzymes.
D) All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 15: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Fc region on IgG
A) interacts with complement.
B) attaches to receptors on interleukin-1.
C) reacts with and coats the antigen.
D) contains a variable region.
E) interacts with complement AND attaches to receptors on interleukin-1.
Q2) Memory cells may take the form of
A) B cells.
B) T cytotoxic cells.
C) T helper cells.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) "Clonal selection" and "clonal expansion"
A) implies that each individual lymphocyte produces a single antibody.
B) describes how the adaptive immune system can produce millions of different antibodies.
C) depends on an antibody recognizing a specific epitope.
D) are based on random processes.
E) All of the above
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Chapter 16: Host-Microbe Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection always leads to disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Avirulent organisms are
A) more likely to cause disease.
B) more likely to cause severe disease.
C) unable to cause disease.
D) pathogenic.
Q3) A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed
A) commensalism.
B) parasitism.
C) independence.
D) mutualism.
Q4) The microorganisms that are occasionally found in or on the body are called A) abnormal flora.
B) transient flora.
C) variant flora.
D) normal flora.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Immunologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delayed hypersensitivity is also known as ___________ hypersensitivity.
A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
E) type V
Q2) Myasthenia gravis is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves
A) sensitized T cells.
B) cytotoxic T cells.
C) antibodies.
D) IgD.
Q3) Immune complexes
A) consist of antigen-antibody bound together.
B) are usually cleared rapidly from the body.
C) bind to Fc receptors on cells.
D) are involved in Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) MHC plays a pivotal role in transplant rejection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Applications of Immune Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called
A) primary substances.
B) secondary substances.
C) adjuvants.
D) adjuncts.
Q2) Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal?
A) Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe, the antibodies would be monoclonal.
B) Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens, and each antigen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.
C) Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes), the responding antibodies would be polyclonal.
D) Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process, the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal.
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Chapter 19: Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is recommended by the Standard Precautions guidelines?
A) glove use
B) hand washing
C) a face shield
D) antibiotic use
E) glove use, hand washing AND a face shield
Q2) When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as
A) protected population.
B) active immunity.
C) passive immunity.
D) herd immunity.
Q3) Which of the following is not a mechanical vector?
A) fomite
B) human
C) fly
D) flea
E) fomite AND human
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Medications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups of microorganisms produces antibiotics?
A) Penicillium
B) Streptomyces
C) Bacillus
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) Penicillium AND Streptomyces
Q2) Bacteria may become antibiotic resistant due to
A) drug-inactivating enzymes.
B) alteration in the target molecule.
C) decreased uptake of the drug.
D) increased elimination of the drug.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The MBC may be determined by an extension of the MIC.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The key characteristic of a useful antimicrobial is selective toxicity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Respiratory System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adenoviral pharyngitis is effectively treated with A) antibiotics.
B) lysozyme.
C) proteases.
D) nucleotide analogs.
E) None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Although unusually resistant to many control factors, the tubercle bacillus is easily killed by
A) strong acids.
B) disinfectants.
C) pasteurization.
D) strong alkalis.
Q3) Pneumonias are inflammatory diseases of the lung in which fluid fills the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rhinoviruses are effectively treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Skin Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The growth of P. acnes within hair follicles, in many individuals, leads to A) eczema.
B) carbuncles.
C) boils.
D) acne.
Q2) Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The rubeola virus contains
A) double-stranded RNA.
B) single-stranded DNA.
C) multiple pieces of single-stranded, negative-sense RNA.
D) single-stranded RNA.
Q4) Which of the following may be added to normal media to make it more selective for staphylococci?
A) 7.5% salt
B) 0.5% HCl
C) 1.0% glucose
D) 5.0% mannose
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Chapter 23: Wound Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gas gangrene is so named due to the formation of A) carbon dioxide.
B) oxygen.
C) hydrogen.
D) carbon monoxide.
E) carbon dioxide AND hydrogen.
Q2) Factor(s) not found in abscesses is/are A) pus.
B) dead leukocytes.
C) tissue remnants.
D) blood vessels.
Q3) The fungal disease that may be associated with sphagnum moss is A) candidiasis.
B) actinomycosis.
C) cat scratch fever.
D) sporotrichosis.
Q4) Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes have fibronectin-binding proteins.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common chronic blood-borne infection in the U.S. is
A) hepatitis A
B) hepatitis B
C) hepatitis C
D) hepatitis D
Q2) Entamoeba histolytica
A) causes amebiasis.
B) may form cysts.
C) cysts survive passage through the stomach.
D) may produce a cytotoxic enzyme.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) This mineral, typically added to drinking water, makes enamel more resistant to dissolving in acid.
A) calcium
B) chlorine
C) chloramine
D) fluoride
Q4) Cyclospora cayetanensis has, so far, not been identified with an animal source.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Genitourinary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The urinary tract above the bladder usually shows A) E. coli.
B) S. aureus.
C) P. vulgaris.
D) no bacteria.
E) E. coli AND S. aureus.
Q2) HIV typically attaches to A) protein
B) C3b.
C) C5a.
D) CD4.
Q3) The normal flora of the lower urethra may show A) Lactobacillus.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Corynebacterium.
D) Bacteroides.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Women are more likely than men to get urinary tract infections due to anatomy. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nervous System Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium leprae has a generation time of A) 20 minutes.
B) 1 hour.
C) 6 hours.
D) 12 days.
Q2) Meningoencephalitis and African sleeping sickness are both caused by protozoans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis differs from the general pattern of fungal CNS disease by occurring in A) otherwise healthy people.
B) children.
C) AIDS patients.
D) immunosuppressed people.
Q4) To determine the causative agent of a CNS infection, a sample is taken from the A) cerebrospinal fluid.
B) arterial blood.
C) venous blood.
D) urine.
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Chapter 27: Blood and Lymphatic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yops proteins, produced by Yersinia pestis,
A) interfere with phagocytosis
B) activates plasminogen activator.
C) destroys C3b and C5a.
D) promotes apoptosis.
Q2) Blood and lymph may carry A) antibodies.
B) complement.
C) lysozyme.
D) interferon.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Septicemia is only caused by Gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which organism may be implicated in arteriosclerosis?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Chlamydia pneumoniae
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Chapter 28: Hiv Disease and Complications of Immunodeficiency
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV is genetically very variable due to the A) reverse transcriptase being "error" prone.
B) incompatibility with the host chromosome.
C) incorporation of plasmid DNA.
D) variability of the integrase.
Q2) Medications that interfere with reverse transcriptase work by A) binding to the host ribosomes.
B) binding to the reverse transcriptase.
C) mimicking nucleosides.
D) mimicking amino acids.
E) binding to the reverse transcriptase AND mimicking nucleosides.
Q3) The definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii is A) humans.
B) cats.
C) goats.
D) cows.
Q4) Almost everyone infected with HIV develops HIV disease, eventually ending in AIDS. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During aerobic decomposition of organic matter the primary gas produced is A) oxygen.
B) hydrogen sulfide.
C) nitrogen.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q2) Nutrient poor waters are described as being A) hypoxic.
B) oligotrophic.
C) autotrophic.
D) eutrophic.
Q3) Sulfur occurs in all living matter primarily as a component of proteins. A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorus is a component of A) nucleic acids.
B) phospholipids.
C) nucleotides.
D) carbohydrates.
E) nucleic acids, phospholipids AND nucleotides.
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Chapter 30: Environmental Microbiology: Treatment of Water, Wastes,
and Polluted Habitats
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Q1) If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in A) 1 day.
B) 1 month.
C) six weeks.
D) six months.
Q2) The oxygen consuming property of a wastewater sample is designated by the term A) lagooning.
B) stabilization.
C) activation.
D) biochemical oxygen demand.
Q3) If a compost pile is turned frequently and other conditions are adequate for aerobic digestion, the composting can be completed in 6 weeks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term "potable water" refers to water that is not necessarily pure, but is safe to drink.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Food Microbiology
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Q1) Single cell protein
A) refers to the use of single-celled organisms as a protein source.
B) refers to a single-protein produced by several different organisms.
C) is an enzyme.
D) causes food intoxication.
Q2) The bacteria associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome is Escherichia coli O157:H7.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lactic acid bacteria
A) consume lactic acid, allowing them to grow on foods such as yogurt.
B) produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt.
C) are important spoilage organisms.
D) can grow on lemons.
E) produce lactic acid, allowing them to produce foods such as yogurt AND are important spoilage organisms.
Q4) The water activity in foods with high levels of salt or sugar is high.
A)True
B)False
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