Microbiology for Health Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course introduces the fundamental principles of microbiology with an emphasis on their application to the health sciences. Students will explore the morphology, physiology, genetics, and ecology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Topics include microbial pathogenesis, host-microbe interactions, mechanisms of disease transmission, the immune response, and principles of infection control. Laboratory exercises reinforce lecture content by providing hands-on experience with aseptic techniques, microbial identification, and antimicrobial sensitivity testing. This course is essential for students pursuing careers in nursing, allied health, and other health-related professions, providing a critical foundation for understanding infectious disease and clinical microbiology.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 9th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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26 Chapters
1491 Verified Questions
1491 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a reason microorganisms are useful in many different research laboratories (such as ecology,biochemistry,evolution and genetics)?
A)They are easy to see and count
B)They have fairly complex structures and are expensive
C)They reproduce fast and grow in large numbers
D)They live everywhere so contaminants from the environment are not a problem.
Answer: C
Q2) Because viruses could not be visualized using conventional microscopes further progress required the development of techniques for isolating,propagating and analyzing viruses. All of the following are true EXCEPT:
A)crystal structure of the tobacco mosaic virus showed that it was made up of RNA and protein
B)viruses were first observed with an electron microscope
C)viral DNA has a different structure from that discovered by Watson and Crick
D)Hershey and Chase demonstrated that the genetic material of some viruses is DNA
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atoms take part in bond formation to:
A)form polypeptides
B)attain a stable electron configuration
C)increase their charge density
D)increase their energy
Answer: B
Q2) Glucose:
A)is abundant in milk and fruit
B)is a rare monosaccharide
C)is never produced within cells
D)none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which is a false statement about water?
A)Water molecules are polar.
B)Water has a high specific heat because of the extensive covalent bonding between molecules.
C)Hydrogen atoms in water form dipoles with a partial positive charge.
D)Water's polarity allows for many ionic compounds to be dissolved in it.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microscope in which light rays pass directly through a specimen is a ________ microscope.
A)bright field
B)dark field
C)phase-contrast
D)Nomarski
Answer: A
Q2) If the step involving iodine were left out of a Gram stain,which of the following would best describe the results?
A)Gram negative cells would look Gram positive.
B)Gram positive cells would look Gram negative.
C)All rods would be pink, all cocci purple.
D)All cells would be purple.
Answer: B
Q3) In a Gram stain,the mordant is _____.
A)crystal violet
B)iodine
C)water
D)alcohol
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The periplasmic space is found _____.
A)only in Gram positive organisms
B)between the nuclear area and the cell membrane
C)primarily in acid fast bacteria
D)between the inner cell membrane and outer cell wall membrane
Q2) Which of the following statements about the prokaryotic cells surface-to-volume ratio is false?
A)Because of their small size, bacteria have a small surface-to-volume ratio
B)Eukaryotes have surface-to-volume ratio that is only 1/10 that of prokaryotes
C)The prokaryotes surface-to-volume ratio means that nutrients can easily and quickly reach all parts of the cell as no internal part of the cell is very far from the surface.
D)A bacteria with a surface area of about 12 microns squared and a volume of 4 cubic microns has a surface-to-volume ratio of 3:1
Q3) Which of the following statements about cell walls is false?
A)All bacterial cell walls contain teichoic acids.
B)Plants and fungi have cell walls.
C)Bacteria which have lost their cell wall are known as L-forms.
D)Algal protists have cell walls.
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Degradation reactions where large molecules are broken down into smaller molecule is referred to as:
A)metabolism
B)catabolism
C)biosynthesis
D)anabolism
Q2) Bioluminescent microbes:
A)may have evolved because of aerobic metabolism
B)are often beneficiaries of symbiotic relationships with a larger host, producing light in exchange for nutrients
C)often have the enzyme luciferase which catalyzes the oxidation reaction that emits light
D)all of the above
Q3) How is ATP formed by chemiosmosis?
A)Proton gradient across a membrane provides motive force
B)Nitrates are used as their final electron acceptor
C)The last step involves H O to be split into O
D)All of the metabolites enter the Krebs cycle
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within a bacterial endospore,the spore is most closely surrounded by the _____.
A)spore membrane
B)cortex
C)cell membrane
D)spore coat
Q2) The pour plate method of isolating pure cultures _____.
A)relies on the fact that liquid agar will solidify as it cools
B)is useful for growing microaerophiles
C)results in some organisms growing embedded in the agar
D)all of the above
Q3) What is sporulation? What triggers sporulation? In bacteria that form endospores generally only a fraction of the total population sporulate and the process takes over eight hours. Explain why it would be harmful for the whole population to sporulate. Is it better to continuously form spores or wait to sporulate when conditions become unfavorable?
Q4) Acidophiles would be expected to grow best at a pH of _____.
A)3 B)6
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) After DNA replication of a bacterial chromosome,the new DNA contains:
A)2 newly synthesized strands of DNA copied from the original parent strands
B)one strand of parent DNA along with one newly synthesized strand
C)small segments of parent DNA interspersed with newly synthesized segments of DNA D)two of the above
Q2) Spontaneous mutations are:
A)caused by chemicals such as acridine and caffeine.
B)caused by physical agents such as ultraviolet light or x-rays.
C)the result of errors in the base pairing of nucleotides during replication.
D)occur at a rate higher than the rate of induced mutations.
Q3) Protein synthesis in bacteria:
A)can occur with several ribosomes attached to the same mRNA molecule
B)uses very little of a bacterial cell's energy
C)can occur at the same time as an mRNA is being transcribed D)two of the above
Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that express genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cells conjugate for longer periods of time,which of the following will occur?
A)Fewer genes will be transferred.
B)More genes will be transferred.
C)The same number of genes will be transferred.
D)It is impossible to tell. Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related.
Q2) F' (prime)plasmids:
A)are responsible for high frequency recombination
B)carry some chromosomal genes
C)are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome
D)none of the above
Q3) Electroporation is a technique that is used to _____.
A)kill bacteria
B)make bacteria competent
C)increase conjugation among bacteria
D)decrease the pathogenicity of bacteria
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following microorganisms was once called blue-green algae?
A)Mycoplasmas
B)Cyanobacteria
C)Chlamydiae
D)Rickettsia
Q2) A bacterial strain contains _____.
A)several species
B)several families
C)a subgroup of a species with some of the same characteristics
D)a subgroup of a genus which have permanent genetic differences
Q3) Organisms that degrade organic molecules to methane belong to the domain _____.
A)Archaea
B)Eukarya
C)Bacteria
D)Monera
Q4) Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on:
A)the similarity of antibody reactions between species
B)the similarity of DNA between species
C)morphological similarities between species
D)the number of traits shared by two organisms
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses that have plus strand RNA chromosomes that act as a template for DNA synthesis are known as:
A)retroviruses.
B)proviruses.
C)viroids.
D)bacteriophages.
E)lytic phages.
Q2) A minus (antisense)strand virus might synthesize proteins within a host cell through the following synthesis pathway:
A)minus strand RNA protein
B)minus strand RNA plus strand RNA protein
C)RNA DNA protein
D)RNA RNA DNA protein
Q3) Diseases such as Creutzfeld-Jacob disease (variant),kuru,and mad cow disease are caused by:
A)RNA viruses
B)DNA viruses
C)bacteria
D)prions
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Euglenoids contain a stigma,the purpose of which is to:
A)control the passage of molecules in and out of the cell
B)communicate with other cells
C)allow the protist to move toward light for photosynthesis
D)digest nutrients
Q2) Which of the following organisms is a saprophyte?
A)Euglenoids
B)Amebozoans
C)Slime molds
D)Diatoms
Q3) Fungi with no known sexual stage (in their life cycle)are assigned to the phylum
A)Zygomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Deuteromycota
Q4) Outline or illustrate in detailed form the life cycle of the malaria parasite,naming the stages and the various host organisms involved.Describe another protozoan that causes human diseases.
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to the effectiveness of a chemical antimicrobial agent except:
A)time
B)temperature
C)pH
D)combustibility
Q2) Lyophilization is:
A)freeze-drying
B)refrigeration
C)freezing
D)heat-drying
Q3) Which is not used when trying to ensure that autoclaving has achieved sterility?
A)internal devices to maintain proper temperature and pressure
B)tapes impregnated with the word "sterile" when proper temperature has been reached
C)pasteurization by heating to 62.9 °C for 30 minutes
D)autoclaving heat-resistant endospores such as Bacillus stearothermophilus
Q4) Most milk,cheese and juices in the United States are pasteurized. Describe the process of pasteurization and the microorganisms at which it is directed.Do you consider pasteurized milk a sterile product? Why?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except:
A)acyclovir
B)ribavirin
C)quinine
D)zidovudine (AZT)
Q2) Which of following is not a way to limit the ability of microorganisms to acquire drug resistance?
A)High levels of antimicrobial agent in the patient
B)Inhibiting growth of invading microbes so immune defenses can kill them
C)Taking antibiotics until the patient feels better
D)Taking two antibiotics synergistically
Q3) Interferons and immunoenhancers:
A)are widely used to treat viruses
B)cause no side effects
C)include levamisole and inosiplex
D)have been thoroughly researched
Q4) Describe the targets or action for three of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship.
A)Parasitism
B)Mutualism
C)Commensalism
D)Contamination
Q2) A healthcare worker fails to follow aseptic procedures while cleaning a wound,washes his hands properly afterwards and suffers no ill effects-this is an example of:
A)commensalism
B)infection
C)infestation
D)contamination
Q3) Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy some of Koch's postulates?
A)causative agent must be observed in a small percentage of cases of disease
B)must be isolated from hosts that are not inoculated with the pure culture
C)when pure cultures inoculated in healthy hosts, they do not show disease
D)causative agent must be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are not examples of portals of exit?
A)Urine and semen in males
B)Droplets from sneezing or coughing
C)Pus in a liver abscess
D)Breast milk
Q2) Waterborne transmission of pathogens involving water contaminated by raw sewage is an example of what mode of transmission?
A)Indirect fecal-oral
B)Direct fecal-oral
C)Vertical
D)Droplet nuclei
Q3) A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called:
A)systemic
B)endemic
C)epidemic
D)pandemic
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterrorism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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17
Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytokines:
A)are soluble proteins
B)function in host defenses such as macrophage chemotaxis
C)include interferons
D)all of the above
Q2) Acute phase response proteins:
A)include C-reactive protein (CRP)and mannose-binding protein (MBP)
B)all bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent
C)directly destroy abnormal cells
D)increase resistance of cells to viral infection
Q3) Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called _____.
A)lymphocytes
B)platelets
C)mast cells
D)neutrophils
Q4) Is fever useful? A patient comes to you with a fever and a respiratory infection,would you be more worried about aggressively treating the fever or too little fever control? Explain your answers.
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following immune cells kills infected cells by releasing the lethal protein perforin?
A)NK cells
B)B cells
C)macrophages
D)TH2 cells
Q2) Which region of an antibody determines the class of that particular antibody?
A)Constant
B)Variable
C)Light chain
D)Fab
Q3) All of the following are environmental factors that modify the immune response in a host except:
A)genetics and age
B)pollution and radiation
C)tobacco smoke
D)excessive exposure to radiation
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
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Chapter 18: Immunology Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drug reactions:
A)are associated with only 3 of the 4 types of hypersensitivities
B)are common because most drug molecules are large enough to act as allergens
C)can occur with antibiotics
D)two of the above
Q2) Allergens bind to sensitized mast cells carrying surface ____ molecules,causing degranulation.
A)IgG
B)IgB
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) Which is the main cellular mediator released during degranulation of mast cells is associated with capillary dilation (capillaries become more permeable)?
A)Interleukins
B)Histamine
C)Antihistamine
D)IgG
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fungal infections may first appear as a nodular mass at the site of the wound and then spread to the lymphatics?
A)Blastomycosis
B)Cryptococcosis
C)Sporotrichosis
D)Tinea
Q2) Smallpox:
A)was eradicated worldwide except for scientific repositories
B)could be used in biological warfare
C)vaccine is a live non-virulent smallpox virus
D)two of the above
Q3) Burn infections:
A)are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue
B)are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them
C)with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses
D)two of the above
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Are the organisms that cause vaginitis part of the normal microflora or does their presence always lead to disease? Why would a physician prescribe a douche of live-culture yogurt after a course of antibiotics? Are the organisms that cause toxic shock syndrome (TSS)part of the normal vaginal flora? If toxic shock syndrome is supposed to come from tampons why do men,children and postmenopausal women now account for most cases of TSS?
Q2) Glomerulonephritis is caused by cross-reacting antibodies produced in response to the bacterial pathogen _____.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Streptococcus mutans
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by _____.
A)immobilization tests
B)using molecular probes
C)culturing the organism
D)all of these are correct
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22
Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consumption is another name for _____.
A)over-eating
B)diphtheria
C)tuberculosis
D)pneumonia
Q2) The presence of Bordetella pertussis is confirmed by _____.
A)beta colonies on a blood agar plate
B)sensitivity to penicillin
C)a reddish pigmented colony
D)a fluorescent antibody stain
Q3) The following statements about tuberculosis are all true except:
A)Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare causes TB in AIDS patients
B)the pathogens have long generation time (12-18 hours)
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most common causative agent
D)the pathogens are very sensitive to drying and die quickly in the environment
Q4) The major etiological agent of lobar pneumonia is:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)two of these choices
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q2) What is the relationship between plaque and tartar?
A)neither plaque nor tartar contribute to tooth decay
B)plaque is due to mineralization and tartar to microbes
C)plaque is the first step and tartar the second step in the formation of dental caries
D)plaque is a coating of microbe dextrans while tartar is the mineralization of plaque
Q3) Feces are composed about 50% by weight and volume of bacteria. Most of these are species of ________.
A)Salmonella
B)Escherichia
C)Bacteroides
D)Streptococcus
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) ______ disease is actually the reoccurrence of a rickettsial infection.
A)Zoster
B)Brill-Zinsser
C)Tsutsugamushi
D)Burkitt's lymphoma
Q2) Which fever causes a severe bone and joint pain along with other symptoms (headache,nausea,weakness,rash),its main vector is Aedes aegypti and vaccines are only available for two strains?
A)Yellow fever
B)Colorado tick fever
C)Dengue fever
D)Ehrlichiosis
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all of the following except: A)caused by Epstein Barr virus
B)an acute disease that affects many systems
C)most patients have a sore throat
D)a vaccine is available
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) The most common cause of meningitis in adults is:
A)Neisseria meningitidis
B)Haemophilus influenzae type B
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae
D)Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) The central nervous system includes all of the following except:
A)brain
B)spinal cord
C)nerves that reach the tissues in limbs
D)microglial cells
Q3) Which one of the following is not a neutrotropic viral disease?
A)West Nile fever
B)Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
C)Polio
D)Rabies
Q4) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is _____.
A)antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B)dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C)the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D)the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) How do the ONPG and MUG test detect microorganisms in water?
A)color is changed by enzymes secreted by coliform bacteria
B)gas production in cultures of lactose broth
C)observing dark colonies of coliform organisms on EMB-lactose agar
D)colonies forming on surface of a sterile absorbent pad
Q2) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include:
A)chlorine
B)UV light
C)ozone
D)all of these choices
Q3) The trickling filtration system employs a bed of rocks that have been coated with:
A)Sphaerotilus
B)Pseudomonas
C)Beggiatoa
D)two of these choices
Q4) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
Q5) Why are soil microorganisms so important to the nitrogen cycle? Describe the 3 roles bacteria play in the nitrogen cycle.
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) In the second half of the 19 century,there was a mass emigration of Irish citizens to other countries due to which organism?
A)Aspergillus fumigatus
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Pseudomonas syringae
D)Phytophthora infestans
Q2) Which term is matched correctly?
A)aflatoxin - carcinogenic in lungs
B)ergot -- can be hallucinogenic
C)lysozyme - found in egg yolks
D)flat sours - occurs in cans left at room temperature
Q3) Yeast is used to make all of the following food products except:
A)buttermilk
B)bread
C)wine
D)spirits
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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