Microbiology for Health Sciences
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive introduction to microbiology with a specific focus on topics relevant to health sciences. Students will explore the structure, function, and classification of microorganisms including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Emphasis is placed on understanding the role of microorganisms in human health and disease, methods of infection and immunity, and principles of antimicrobial therapy. The course also covers laboratory safety, aseptic techniques, and the significance of emerging infectious diseases in healthcare settings, providing foundational knowledge essential for health science professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following are true statements about the development of antibiotics,except:
A)most bacteria that stopped the growth of other bacteria by producing antibiotics were soil bacteria
B)Fleming noticed that a contaminant mold (Penicillium)prevented the growth of bacteria adjacent to itself
C)an antibiotic was discovered in the sea after a scientist noted the absence of disease causing organisms in the seawater where the sewage entered D)sulfa drugs did not prove to be useful as the body converted them into inactive molecules
Answer: D
Q2) The first person to use a microscope to observe cells invisible to the naked eye was:
A)Robert Hooke
B)Matthias Schleiden
C)Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D)Louis Pasteur
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A course of antibiotics can disturb gut microflora for what period of time
A)no change occurs
B)10 minutes
C)10 days
D)permanent irreversible damage occurs
E)2 years
Answer: E
Q2) Which term is used if your microbiome is considered conducive to good health
A)balanced
B)retrobiosis
C)antagonobiosis
D)antibiosis
E)dysbiosis
Answer: A
Q3) Age but not sex affects the gut microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atoms are most likely to form ions when they have:
A)an even number of electrons in their outer shells
B)a nearly empty outer shell
C)an odd number of electrons in their outer shells
D)four electrons in their outer shells
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly
A)carbon-organic compounds
B)glucose- hydrogen bonds
C)ions-covalent bonds
D)phosphate-enzyme
Answer: A
Q3) The smallest particle of matter that can take part in chemical reactions is:
A)glucose
B)compound
C)neutron
D)atom
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three dimensional views of cells and other small object could best be obtained using a:
A)phase contrast microscope
B)dark-field microscope
C)transmission electron microscope (TEM)
D)scanning electron microscope (SEM)
Q2) When given a microorganism to identify,which of the following would be useful
A)A gram stain
B)A transmission electron micrograph
C)Biochemical and genetic characteristics
D)All of these
Q3) Why do basic dyes attach to most bacterial surfaces
A)Most bacterial surfaces are negatively charged.
B)Bacterial cells take up safranin.
C)Most bacterial surfaces resist taking up the stain.
D)Most bacterial surfaces do not have a charge.
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Peptidoglycan makes up more than 50% of a ________ cell wall.
A)Gram negative
B)Gram positive
C)Gram variable
D)acid-fast
Q2) Endospores are typically found in the genus:
A)Streptococcus
B)Clostridium
C)Mycobacterium
D)Staphylococci
Q3) The rough endoplasmic reticulum appears rough because of _____.
A)sterols in its membrane
B)fats and sugars on its surface
C)multiple ribosomes on its surface
D)proteins in the lumen of the ER
Q4) Bacteria move by means of:
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)fimbriae
D)pili
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each acetyl-CoA molecule will eventually produce ________ in the Krebs cycle.
A)four pairs of electrons
B)three molecules of NADH
C)one molecule of GTP
D)all of these choices
Q2) In aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is:
A)water
B)oxygen
C)sulfur
D)coenzyme Q
Q3) During glycolysis,electrons are initially transferred to:
A)NAD
B)FAD
C)NADP
D)H O
Q4) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:
A)carbon dioxide
B)oxygen
C)nitrate ions
D)sulfate ions
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microbial growth:
A)refers to the increase in the size of a microbial cell.
B)refers to the increase in the frequency of cell division.
C)in a single generation time leads to double the cell size.
D)in a single generation time leads to double the number of microbes.
Q2) A media on which Gram positive organism turn green and Gram negative organisms turn blue would be _____.
A)selective
B)differential
C)complex
D)enriched
Q3) Microaerophiles:
A)grow best when the environment has a small amount of carbon dioxide.
B)grow best when the environment has a small amount of free oxygen.
C)need a high concentration of carbon dioxide.
D)need a high concentration of oxygen.
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anticodon would be found in/on a ________ molecule.
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)the lagging strand
D)rRNA
Q2) Catabolite repression:
A)cells save energy by not making uneeded enzymes
B)doesn't allow for cells to prioritize consumption of multiple substrates
C)allows cell growth to continue even after the preferred nutrient is used up D)two of these
Q3) Replication results in the formation of what type of new molecule
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)Protein
D)Lipid
Q4) In an enzyme catalyzed reaction that displays feedback inhibition,_____
A)excess substrate will inhibit the reaction.
B)excess product will inhibit the reaction.
C)the reaction continues at the same pace regardless of conditions in the cell.
D)excess product is broken down to create new substrate.
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electroporation is a technique that is used to _____.
A)kill bacteria
B)make bacteria competent
C)increase conjugation among bacteria
D)decrease the pathogenicity of bacteria
Q2) RFLP's are the result of _____.
A)treating cells with enzymes that remove their cell walls
B)fusing two cells together
C)genes being transferred by a virus
D)cutting DNA with restriction enzymes
Q3) "Specialized" transduction refers to the fact that:
A)it only happens at specific times in the cell cycle
B)only specific bacteria take part as hosts
C)only a few specific genes are transferred
D)only specific viruses take part in the process
Q4) The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that:
A)two types of viruses be present
B)the bacteria be deprived of nutrients
C)there be naked DNA in the environment
D)there be contact between donor and recipient cells
11
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) In the three-domain classification system _____.
A)all prokaryotes are grouped into the same domain
B)eukaryotes are found in two of the domains
C)archaea may be more closely related eukaryotes than to bacteria
D)two of these
Q2) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis is used to separate _____.
A)DNA by GC content
B)proteins by size
C)DNA by nucleotide sequence
D)proteins by amino acid sequence
Q3) Which one of the following microorganisms has its own kingdom in the five-kingdom of classification
A)Viruses
B)Algae
C)Bacteria
D)Fungi
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells taken directly from an animal and cultured in vitro represent:
A)primary cell cultures
B)diploid fibroblast strains
C)continuous cell lines from human embryos
D)continuous cell lines that have been re-isolated from animal tissues
Q2) Which of the following explains how DNA tumor viruses may cause human cancers
A)viral proteins infect other uninfected host cells.
B)viral proteins block the effect of tumor-suppressor genes which prevent uncontrolled cell division.
C)viral particles infect sex cells and transmit the virions to offspring.
D)use viral reverse transcriptase to integrate the DNA tumor viruses into the host chromosome.
Q3) A virus that is specific for a bacterial host is called a:
A)phage
B)prion
C)viroid
D)virion
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that obtain nutrients from decaying matter are called _____.
A)autotrophs
B)heterotrophs
C)saprophytes
D)lithophytes
Q2) All protists:
A)are photosynthetic
B)have a true nucleus
C)have cell walls
D)are parasites
Q3) An organism that lives at the expense of another organism is a _____.
A)mutualistic
B)commensal
C)parasite
D)symbiont
Q4) Mycology is defined as the study of _____.
A)microbes
B)protists
C)fungi
D)plants
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Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) The use of phenol as a standard with which to compare the effectiveness of other chemical disinfectants is referred to as the _____.
A)phenol coefficient
B)phenol concentration
C)phenol effectiveness
D)phenol conditions
Q2) Ultraviolet radiation:
A)is the same as X rays
B)is the same as gamma rays
C)penetrates glass,cloth,paper and most other materials
D)kills microorganisms by damaging DNA and proteins
Q3) Which of the following do NOT affect viruses
A)Alkylating agents
B)Detergents
C)Alcohols
D)Heavy Metals
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Tetracyclines interfere with _____.
A)the effectiveness of birth control pills
B)transcription
C)patients with heart defects
D)metabolic reactions
Q2) Which of the antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria
A)Amikacin
B)Tyrothricin
C)Vancomycin
D)Cephalexin
Q3) Why are resistant organisms found often in hospitalized patients
A)Stringent efforts maintain sanitary conditions.
B)Many infections in patients are being treated with different antibiotics.
C)Doctors are treating outpatients with multiple antibiotics.
D)Two of these.
Q4) The development of second-line and third-line antimicrobial agents demonstrates:
A)cross-resistance
B)the effectiveness of first-line drugs
C)an effective method to limit drug resistance
D)the increasingly difficultly of treating drug resistant bacteria
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about host-microbes is true
A)A host is any organism that harbors no other organism.
B)Infestation refers to the presence of larger parasites.
C)In mutualism neither of the two species benefits from the relationship.
D)Virulence is defined as the capacity to produce disease.
Q2) What type of organism has caused the abnormal changes in these cells in Figure (b) The cells in Figure (a)are normal.
A)Fungus
B)Protozoa
C)Virus
D)Bacteria
Q3) Exotoxins:
A)are soluble substances secreted into the host bloodstream
B)buildup after antibiotic treatment
C)require the bacteria to die or divide
D)consist of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) The incidence rate of chicken pox in the United States:
A)includes both old and newly diagnosed cases of disease
B)shows a pattern of pandemics
C)has been increasing for the last ten years
D)is difficult to assess since the disease is no longer "notifiable"
Q2) Which of the following organizations sets the standards for international disease control
A)NIH
B)CDC
C)WHO
D)PHS
Q3) A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called:
A)systemic
B)endemic
C)epidemic
D)pandemic
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toll-like receptors:
A)come from outside the body and stimulate a cytokine
B)act nonspecifically to cause cell killing
C)are a set of receptors that when activated produce a membrane attack complex
D)recognize molecular patterns unique to pathogens
Q2) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except:
A)produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B)block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C)form parasitophorous vacuoles
D)produce streptolysin and leukocidin
Q3) A protein that interferes with the ability of a virus to replicate inside a host cell is
A)streptolysin
B)leukocidin
C)interferon
D)histamine
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Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except:
A)distinguishes self from non-self
B)specificity
C)memory
D)first-line of defense
Q2) All of the following correctly describe the structure of an antibody molecule except:
A)two identical light chains
B)heavy and light chains held together by disulfide bonds
C)binds 2 antigens per molecule
D)two Fc fragments and one Fab fragment
Q3) All of the following are types of vaccines except:
A)killed whole bacteria
B)purified active toxin
C)toxoid
D)live virus
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following could result in a Type II hypersensitivity
A)a patient with A blood given B blood by mistake
B)an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus
C)an Rh-positive mother carrying an Rh-negative fetus
D)two of these
Q2) Allergens bind to sensitized mast cells carrying surface ____ molecules,causing degranulation.
A)IgG
B)IgB
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) Which of the following statements related to serum sickness is false
A)Serum sickness was initially associated with injections of anti-toxin for diphtheria.
B)The patient's immune system makes antibody against horse proteins.
C)Glomerulus function is impaired due to immune complexes.
D)Most patients die rather quickly from the condition.
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21
Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Viral infections of the eye include:
A)trachoma
B)epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
C)acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
D)two of these
Q2) The reason why newborns in developed countries receive antibiotic or silver nitrate drops at birth is:
A)to prevent opthalmia neonatorum
B)because pinkeye is extremely contagious
C)gnats can transmit organisms from the eyes of newborns
D)two of these
Q3) Debridement:
A)destroys much of the body's protective covering
B)is a surgical scraping technique that improves antibiotic efficacy
C)prevents nosicomal infections from occurring in severe burns
D)two of these
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) In healthy individuals all of the following parts of the urinary tract are sterile except:
A)lower folds of the urinary bladder
B)the portion of the urethra closest to the urethral opening
C)the ureter of the kidney
D)nephrons
Q2) The acid pH in the vagina is predominantly due to ______ fermenting the _____ present in vaginal cells.
A)Staphylococcus,glycogen
B)Escherichia,glucose
C)Staphylococcus,starch
D)Lactobacillus,glycogen
Q3) Herpes infection symptoms are most successfully managed with daily doses of _____.
A)penicillin
B)interferon
C)AZT
D)acyclovir
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fungal infection leads to an allergic asthmatic response
A)Aspergillosis
B)Blastomycosis
C)Cryptococcosis
D)Histoplasmosis
Q2) Cyanosis,which may occur during whooping cough,is:
A)a fainting spell
B)a vomiting incident
C)a bluing of the skin
D)formation of a red rash
Q3) Which of the following statements about normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect
A)The presence of Haemophilus in the pharynx does not indicate disease.
B)About 1/3 of the population carries Staphylococcus aureus in their nasal cavity.
C)Coccidioides immitis is a harmless part of the microflora.
D)Nasal carriers of Staphylococcus aureus can easily spread it to other individuals.
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following infections can be self-limiting and will cease without treatment
A)Strongyloides
B)Pinworm
C)Trichinosis
D)Whipworm
Q2) Which pathogen is correctly matched with the symptoms it causes
A)Crytosoporidium - amoebic dysentery
B)Entamoeba histolytica - copious and frothy diarrhea
C)Cyclospora cayentanenisis - extreme fatigue,flu-like symptoms,watery diarrhea
D)Giardia intestinalis - watery diarrhea seen in 400,000+ Milwaukee residents in 1993
Q3) Staphylococcus food poisoning is caused by:
A)enterotoxins
B)exotoxins
C)toxins that cause neural stimulation of the vomiting center of the brain
D)all of these choices
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) In which disease(s)does the merozoite infect red blood cells
A)Malaria
B)Blackwater fever
C)Ehrlichiosis
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Dengue fever is transmitted via:
A)mosquitoes
B)sand flies
C)mites
D)ticks
Q3) Anthrax is characterized by all of the following except:
A)cutaneous is the most common form
B)intestinal anthrax has the highest mortality rate
C)etiology is Bacillus anthracis
D)diagnosed by cultured blood or smears from cutaneous lesions
Q4) The Rickettsial disease that is found in Japan and Southwest Asia is:
A)Trench fever
B)Bartonellosis
C)endemic typhus
D)scrub typhus
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) The most common domestic rabid animals in the United States today are _____.
A)dogs
B)ferrets
C)cats
D)bats
Q2) Prions infectivity:
A)can be destroyed by autoclaving for 1 hour
B)is reduced after formaldehyde treatment
C)can be retained in buried brains left for 3 years in soil
D)two of these choices
Q3) All of the following are true about brain abscesses except:
A)microbes may reach brain from head wounds or via blood
B)they may be treated either with antibiotics or surgical removal
C)may occur in Hansen's disease
D)they can be detected by CAT scan
Q4) Botulism toxin is characterized by all of the following except:
A)most potent toxin known
B)released upon autolysis of cells
C)boiling will not inactivate the toxin
D)activated by proteolytic enzymes
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Most denitrification is due to _____.
A)Rhizobium
B)Azotobacter
C)Pseudomonas
D)Nitrosomonas
Q2) Tertiary treatment of sewage could include:
A)chlorine
B)UV light
C)ozone
D)all of these choices
Q3) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria:
A)oxidize ammonia to nitrates or nitrites
B)oxidize ammonia to nitrous oxide
C)reduce nitrates to nitrites
D)reduce nitrogen gas to ammonia
Q4) In testing for water purity,the presumptive test would include:
A)Eosin-methylene blue agar
B)Lactose broth
C)Nutrient agar
D)Gram stain
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) What can cause mild to severe gastroenteritis,arthritis,glomerulonephrities,a fatal typhoid like septicemia,and fatal ileitis,an inflammation of the small intestines that can be misdiagnosed as appendicitis
A)Adirondack disease
B)Erysipelas
C)Yersinia enterocolitica infection
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Which cut of meat would you expect to have the largest of contaminating microbes per gram
A)a beef streak wrapped at the grocery
B)a side of beef aging in the slaughter house
C)a package of ground beef
D)a pork chop wrapped at the grocery
Q3) Which statement about contamination of eggs is incorrect
A)Cracked eggs cannot be sold.
B)Lysozymes in the whites protect the yolk.
C)Trace metals in the whites are tightly bonded with proteins.
D)Eggs should be stored small side up.
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